Practice the September 2026 Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the forth week of September 2026.
The Current Affairs Quiz of 22 to 30 September features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.
4th Week of September 2026: Current Affairs Quiz
Q1. India currently holds exploration contracts with the International Seabed Authority (ISA) covering approximately how much area for polymetallic nodules and sulphides in the Indian Ocean?
(A) 25,000 sq. km
(B) 50,000 sq. km
(C) 95,000 sq. km
(D) 150,000 sq. km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 95,000 sq. km
Q2. India’s Central Indian Ocean Basin (CIOB) block, covering approximately 75,000 sq. km, is estimated to contain around how many tonnes of dry polymetallic nodules?
(A) 36 million tonnes
(B) 150 million tonnes
(C) 366 million tonnes
(D) 700 million tonnes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 366 million tonnes
Q3. With reference to India’s deep-sea exploration capabilities, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Commercial exploitation of seabed minerals in the international Area has already commenced under finalised ISA regulations
(B) Commercial exploitation is yet to commence, pending finalisation of the ISA’s exploitation regulations
(C) India has no exploration contracts with the ISA
(D) ISA exploration contracts allow unrestricted commercial mining without regulatory approval
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Commercial exploitation is yet to commence, pending finalisation of the ISA’s exploitation regulations
Q4. India’s Samudrayaan Mission focuses on developing which human-occupied submersible, designed to carry three aquanauts to a depth of 6,000 metres?
(A) Sagar Nidhi
(B) MATSYA-6000
(C) Sindhu Sankalp
(D) Varuna-1
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) MATSYA-6000
Q5. The Deep Ocean Mission (DOM) integrates six thematic areas. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
(A) Deep-sea technology development
(B) Marine biodiversity
(C) Ocean energy and freshwater
(D) Deep-space satellite communication
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Deep-space satellite communication
Q6. As per the WMO’s State of Global Water Resources 2025 report, approximately what proportion of global basin areas experienced below-normal river flows in 2025?
(A) 16%
(B) 26%
(C) 36%
(D) 56%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 36%
Q7. As per the report, glaciers recorded mass loss for the fourth consecutive year, losing approximately how much ice between 2023 and 2025?
(A) 140 gigatonnes
(B) 400 gigatonnes
(C) 1,400 gigatonnes
(D) 5,000 gigatonnes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 1,400 gigatonnes
Q8. With reference to India-specific findings in the WMO report, the Ganges-Indus headwater region has been identified as an area facing:
(A) Rising groundwater levels due to increased rainfall
(B) Substantial groundwater depletion linked to uncontrolled abstraction and agricultural irrigation
(C) No significant water stress compared with global averages
(D) Complete recovery of glacier mass since 2020
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Substantial groundwater depletion linked to uncontrolled abstraction and agricultural irrigation
Q9. As per the WMO report, which two continents together accounted for more than 80% of reported deaths from water-related disasters over the preceding five years?
(A) Europe and North America
(B) Asia and Africa
(C) South America and Oceania
(D) Africa and South America
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Asia and Africa
Q10. The Gender Snapshot Report, jointly published by UN Women and UN DESA, primarily monitors global progress on gender equality with particular emphasis on which SDG?
(A) SDG 1
(B) SDG 4
(C) SDG 5
(D) SDG 10
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) SDG 5
Q11. As per the Gender Snapshot 2026, at the prevailing pace of progress, achieving global gender equality across all indicators could take approximately how long?
(A) 50 years
(B) 100 years
(C) 171 years
(D) 250 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 171 years
Q12. As per the Gender Snapshot 2026, women currently account for approximately what proportion of parliamentary seats globally?
(A) 15.5%
(B) 27.4%
(C) 40%
(D) 50%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 27.4%
Q13. As per the Gender Snapshot 2026, bilateral aid directed towards gender equality objectives declined by what percentage between 2023 and 2024, while funding for women’s rights organisations fell by what percentage over the same period?
(A) 5% aid decline; 10% funding decline
(B) 13% aid decline; 28% funding decline
(C) 25% aid decline; 50% funding decline
(D) 2% aid decline; 5% funding decline
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 13% aid decline; 28% funding decline
Q14. Greenland, the world’s largest island, is a self-governing territory within the Kingdom of Denmark, with autonomy based on which legal framework?
(A) The 1953 Danish Constitutional Act
(B) The 2009 Self-Government Act
(C) The 1979 Home Rule Act
(D) The 2015 Arctic Sovereignty Act
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The 2009 Self-Government Act
Q15. With reference to Greenland’s political status, Denmark retains responsibility for which of the following areas?
(A) Foreign affairs and defence/security
(B) Domestic healthcare and education policy
(C) Municipal taxation
(D) Internal fisheries management
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Foreign affairs and defence/security
Q16. Approximately what proportion of Greenland’s landmass is covered by ice, and what is the name of its capital?
(A) 50% ice cover; capital Nuuk
(B) 80% ice cover; capital Nuuk
(C) 80% ice cover; capital Ilulissat
(D) 95% ice cover; capital Qaqortoq
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 80% ice cover; capital Nuuk
Q17. Sermeq Kujalleq (Jakobshavn Glacier), among the fastest-flowing glaciers in the world, drains into the Ilulissat Icefjord, which is recognised as:
(A) A Ramsar wetland site
(B) A UNESCO World Heritage Site
(C) A Biosphere Reserve under MAB
(D) A UN-designated marine sanctuary
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A UNESCO World Heritage Site
Q18. Project Greensand, described as the EU’s first commercial offshore Carbon Capture and Storage (CCS) facility, was inaugurated by Denmark and involves storing liquefied CO₂ in:
(A) Depleted oil reservoirs beneath the North Sea
(B) Underground salt caverns in Germany
(C) Deep-sea trenches in the Atlantic Ocean
(D) Onshore depleted coal mines in Poland
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Depleted oil reservoirs beneath the North Sea
Q19. The North Sea’s deepest point, the Norwegian Trench, reaches a depth of approximately:
(A) 90 metres
(B) 300 metres
(C) 725 metres
(D) 1,200 metres
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 725 metres
Q20. The North Sea is connected to the Baltic Sea through which straits?
(A) The English Channel and Strait of Dover
(B) The Skagerrak and Kattegat
(C) The Bosphorus and Dardanelles
(D) The Strait of Gibraltar
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The Skagerrak and Kattegat
Q21. Brent Crude, historically associated with North Sea production, serves globally as:
(A) A benchmark for natural gas pricing only
(B) An important global benchmark for crude-oil pricing
(C) A unit of measurement for offshore drilling depth
(D) A classification standard for tanker vessels
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) An important global benchmark for crude-oil pricing
Q22. The Karnataka Government’s decision to grant Tulu second official language status applies specifically to which two districts?
(A) Uttara Kannada and Shimoga
(B) Dakshina Kannada and Udupi
(C) Kodagu and Chikkamagaluru
(D) Belagavi and Bidar
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Dakshina Kannada and Udupi
Q23. Tulu, a Dravidian language predominantly spoken along the south-western coastal belt of Karnataka and in Kasaragod district of Kerala, is historically written using which script, derived from the Grantha script?
(A) Modi script
(B) Tigalari (Tulu Lipi) script
(C) Kharoshthi script
(D) Sharada script
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Tigalari (Tulu Lipi) script
Q24. As per the UNESCO Atlas of the World’s Languages in Danger, Tulu is currently categorised as:
(A) Safe
(B) Vulnerable
(C) Definitely Endangered
(D) Critically Endangered
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Vulnerable
Q25. With reference to Tulu’s constitutional status, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Tulu is currently included among the 22 languages of the Eighth Schedule
(B) Tulu is not currently included in the Eighth Schedule, and constitutional recognition is distinct from state-level official-language status
(C) Tulu was removed from the Eighth Schedule in 2011
(D) The Eighth Schedule currently recognises only 15 languages
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Tulu is not currently included in the Eighth Schedule, and constitutional recognition is distinct from state-level official-language status
Q26. A ‘hawkish’ monetary policy stance, as recently discussed in the context of the US Federal Reserve, is primarily characterised by:
(A) Lowering interest rates to stimulate growth and employment
(B) Prioritising control of inflation, often through raising or maintaining elevated interest rates
(C) Complete disregard for inflation trends
(D) Fixing exchange rates to a gold standard
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Prioritising control of inflation, often through raising or maintaining elevated interest rates
Q27. A ‘dovish’ monetary policy stance is generally associated with:
(A) Contractionary policy aimed solely at reducing inflation
(B) Expansionary or easier monetary policy emphasising growth and employment when inflation is manageable
(C) Mandatory currency devaluation
(D) Elimination of central bank independence
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Expansionary or easier monetary policy emphasising growth and employment when inflation is manageable
Q28. With reference to the transmission of monetary policy, a hawkish stance involving higher interest rates typically leads to:
(A) Reduced borrowing costs and increased consumption
(B) Increased borrowing costs, moderated spending/investment, and reduced demand-side inflationary pressure
(C) No change in borrowing costs or spending patterns
(D) An automatic increase in fiscal deficit
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Increased borrowing costs, moderated spending/investment, and reduced demand-side inflationary pressure
Q29. The revised CBFC film certification guidelines, replacing the 1991 framework, retain which of the following age-based categories, introduced through 2025 amendments to the Cinematograph Act?
(A) U, UA and A only
(B) UA 7+, UA 13+ and UA 16+
(C) PG-13 and PG-18
(D) G, PG and R
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) UA 7+, UA 13+ and UA 16+
Q30. As per the Business Climate Survey 2026, published by the Swedish Chamber of Commerce in India, India was ranked:
(A) 1st in business climate among more than 40 global markets
(B) 5th among BRICS nations
(C) 10th globally, behind most G20 economies
(D) 2nd, behind Singapore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) 1st in business climate among more than 40 global markets
Q31. The Partners for Multilateralism, International Law, Peace and Prosperity (P4M) initiative, launched at the 81st UN General Assembly, was conceptualised by leaders from the European Union, Brazil, Canada and:
(A) South Africa
(B) Kenya
(C) Indonesia
(D) Mexico
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Kenya
Q32. Among the initial co-sponsors of the P4M initiative were India, Barbados and:
(A) Japan
(B) Australia
(C) Germany
(D) South Korea
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Australia
Q33. The ‘Carney Doctrine’, reflected in P4M’s strategic approach, primarily seeks to:
(A) Intensify competition among major powers such as the US, China and Russia
(B) Provide an alternative to intense great-power rivalry through coordinated middle-power action
(C) Establish a new military alliance to counter major powers
(D) Replace the United Nations with a new global body
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Provide an alternative to intense great-power rivalry through coordinated middle-power action
Q34. In Jaskaran Jeet Singh Deol v. State of Punjab (2026), the Supreme Court held that a violation of Article 22(1), involving failure to furnish written grounds of arrest, can be retrospectively cured by:
(A) Filing of a chargesheet or the court taking cognisance
(B) Nothing — such violation cannot be retrospectively validated by subsequent proceedings
(C) Payment of compensation to the accused
(D) A formal apology from the investigating officer
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Nothing — such violation cannot be retrospectively validated by subsequent proceedings
Q35. As per the Supreme Court’s ruling, the grounds of arrest under Article 22(1) must be furnished:
(A) Orally, at the discretion of the arresting officer
(B) In writing, in a language understood by the accused, with a copy furnished at the earliest
(C) Only if specifically requested by the accused’s lawyer
(D) Within 30 days of the arrest
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) In writing, in a language understood by the accused, with a copy furnished at the earliest
Q36. As per the Court’s prescribed procedure for re-arrest following an unconstitutional arrest, which of the following is required before custodial interrogation can proceed?
(A) Approval from the arresting officer’s immediate superior alone, without judicial scrutiny
(B) A fresh application before a Magistrate, carrying superior-officer endorsement, followed by independent judicial scrutiny
(C) Consent of the accused’s family members
(D) A public hearing before the State Human Rights Commission
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A fresh application before a Magistrate, carrying superior-officer endorsement, followed by independent judicial scrutiny
Q37. Where re-arrest is sought after an Article 22(1) violation, the Supreme Court directed that:
(A) The same investigating officer must continue the investigation for continuity
(B) The investigation be transferred to another officer, with a departmental inquiry initiated against those responsible for the original violation
(C) The case be automatically dismissed
(D) The accused be granted permanent immunity from any future arrest
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The investigation be transferred to another officer, with a departmental inquiry initiated against those responsible for the original violation
Q38. India’s rural sanitation coverage increased from around 39% in 2014 to 100% by 2019, with rural India declared Open Defecation Free (ODF) under which mission?
(A) Namami Gange Programme
(B) Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin)
(C) Jal Jeevan Mission
(D) National Rural Livelihoods Mission
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin)
Q39. Under the three-tier ODF Plus village categorisation, a ‘Model’ village is characterised by:
(A) Managing only solid waste
(B) Managing only liquid waste
(C) Managing both solid and liquid waste, maintaining visual cleanliness, and displaying ODF Plus messaging
(D) Managing neither solid nor liquid waste but achieving 100% toilet coverage
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Managing both solid and liquid waste, maintaining visual cleanliness, and displaying ODF Plus messaging
Q40. The GOBARdhan initiative, an umbrella programme under SBM-G Phase II, primarily converts cattle dung and organic waste into:
(A) Drinking water and desalinated brine
(B) Biogas/Compressed Biogas and organic manure/bio-slurry
(C) Synthetic fertilisers and industrial chemicals
(D) Construction-grade cement
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Biogas/Compressed Biogas and organic manure/bio-slurry
Q41. NdFeB (Neodymium-Iron-Boron) magnets, rare-earth permanent magnets known for the highest magnetic strength among commercially available permanent magnets, are primarily composed of neodymium, iron and boron, forming which crystal structure?
(A) Nd₂Fe₁₄B tetragonal structure
(B) NdFe₂B₃ cubic structure
(C) Nd₃FeB₂ hexagonal structure
(D) NdFeB₄ orthorhombic structure
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Nd₂Fe₁₄B tetragonal structure
Q42. Standard NdFeB magnets can undergo irreversible demagnetisation above approximately what temperature, with dysprosium or terbium added to improve high-temperature performance?
(A) 30°C
(B) 80°C
(C) 150°C
(D) 300°C
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 80°C
Q43. China’s global dominance in rare-earth magnet supply is reflected in it accounting for around what share of global rare-earth magnet refining and sintered permanent-magnet production in 2024, respectively?
(A) 50% refining; 60% production
(B) 70% refining; 80% production
(C) 91% refining; 94% production
(D) 99% refining; 99% production
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 91% refining; 94% production
Q44. India’s Rare Earth Permanent Magnet (REPM) Scheme, approved by the Union Cabinet in 2025 with an outlay of ₹7,280 crore, functions under which ministry and targets what capacity?
(A) Ministry of Mines; 3,000 MTPA
(B) Ministry of Heavy Industries; 6,000 MTPA
(C) Ministry of Commerce and Industry; 10,000 MTPA
(D) Ministry of Science and Technology; 1,000 MTPA
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Ministry of Heavy Industries; 6,000 MTPA
Q45. Agentic AI is best distinguished from conventional Generative AI by its ability to:
(A) Only generate new text, images or audio content
(B) Autonomously plan, make decisions, use digital tools and execute multi-step actions towards a specified goal
(C) Only respond to a single predefined instruction at a time
(D) Function exclusively without any access to external tools or APIs
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Autonomously plan, make decisions, use digital tools and execute multi-step actions towards a specified goal
Q46. ‘Agentic misalignment’ refers to a situation in which:
(A) An AI system fails to load correctly due to a software bug
(B) An AI agent autonomously takes actions that conflict with the objectives, instructions or interests of its human operator
(C) Two AI systems produce identical outputs
(D) An AI system requires excessive computational resources
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) An AI agent autonomously takes actions that conflict with the objectives, instructions or interests of its human operator
Q47. Among the key concerns associated with Agentic AI, which relates to determining who bears responsibility when an autonomous system makes a consequential decision?
(A) Privacy
(B) Accountability
(C) Tool utilisation
(D) Multi-step execution
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Accountability
Q48. Under Section 113 of the Lindsey O. Graham Sanctioning Russia and Iran Act, 2026, the United States is authorised to impose tariffs of up to what rate on goods from designated countries linked to Russian energy purchases or sanctions evasion?
(A) 25%
(B) 50%
(C) 100%
(D) 500%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 100%
Q49. Under Section 112 of the Act, tariffs of up to what rate may be imposed directly on goods imported from Russia?
(A) 100%
(B) 250%
(C) 500%
(D) 1,000%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 500%
Q50. With reference to India’s potential exposure under the Act, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) India is entirely exempt since it does not import Russian crude oil
(B) India, as the world’s second-largest buyer of Russian crude after China, could face exposure under Section 113, potentially affecting a broad range of exports beyond energy
(C) The Act applies only to European countries
(D) The Act specifically excludes any tariff exposure for goods beyond crude oil
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) India, as the world’s second-largest buyer of Russian crude after China, could face exposure under Section 113, potentially affecting a broad range of exports beyond energy
Q51. The India Deep Tech Alliance (IDTA), which announced investments of around ₹2,170 crore in 56 deep-tech companies at SEMICON India 2026, was originally launched at:
(A) SEMICON India 2023
(B) SEMICON India 2024
(C) SEMICON India 2025
(D) SEMICON India 2026 itself
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) SEMICON India 2025
Q52. The India Semiconductor Academy (ISA), established through a partnership between IDTA and SEMI, primarily aims to:
(A) Provide venture capital funding to semiconductor start-ups
(B) Develop a skilled, fab-ready workforce for India’s semiconductor manufacturing ecosystem
(C) Regulate semiconductor import tariffs
(D) Certify semiconductor chip designs for export
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Develop a skilled, fab-ready workforce for India’s semiconductor manufacturing ecosystem
Q53. SEMICON India, the annual semiconductor conference at which IDTA announcements were made, is organised by the India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) under which ministry?
(A) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
(B) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
(C) Ministry of Science and Technology
(D) NITI Aayog
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
Q54. The National Statistical Office (NSO), which recently released district-level labour market indicators for the first time, was established in 2019 by merging the Central Statistical Organisation with:
(A) The Registrar General of India
(B) The National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO)
(C) The Directorate General of Commercial Intelligence and Statistics
(D) The Reserve Bank of India’s statistical wing
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO)
Q55. As per the NSO’s district-level labour market data on the 100 most populous districts, which district recorded the highest LFPR and WPR, and which recorded the lowest?
(A) Surat (highest); Darbhanga (lowest)
(B) Mumbai (highest); Patna (lowest)
(C) Bengaluru (highest); Gaya (lowest)
(D) Ahmedabad (highest); Muzaffarpur (lowest)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Surat (highest); Darbhanga (lowest)
Q56. The Worker Population Ratio (WPR), one of the key labour market indicators, is defined as:
(A) The percentage of unemployed persons among those in the labour force
(B) The percentage of the population that is employed or engaged in an economic activity
(C) The percentage of the population not in employment, education or training
(D) The ratio of male to female workers in a district
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The percentage of the population that is employed or engaged in an economic activity
Q57. Elias 2-24 b, recently confirmed as the youngest known exoplanet at less than 1 million years old, orbits which type of star?
(A) A red giant nearing the end of its life
(B) Elias 2-24, a young T Tauri star in the pre-main-sequence stage
(C) A white dwarf remnant
(D) A neutron star
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Elias 2-24, a young T Tauri star in the pre-main-sequence stage
Q58. Elias 2-24 b, a Jupiter-like gas giant, is located within a narrow gap in its protoplanetary disk, approximately how far from its host star, in a system lying within the Ophiuchus molecular cloud?
(A) 5 astronomical units (AU)
(B) 55 astronomical units (AU)
(C) 150 astronomical units (AU)
(D) 500 astronomical units (AU)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 55 astronomical units (AU)
Q59. The Core Accretion Model of planet formation, relevant to understanding Elias 2-24 b’s development, proposes that:
(A) A giant planet forms directly through gravitational instability in a gas cloud, without a solid core
(B) A solid planetary core first forms through accumulation of dust and planetesimals, later capturing surrounding gas to form a giant planet
(C) Planets form entirely from stellar material ejected during a supernova
(D) Gas giants form only around binary star systems
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A solid planetary core first forms through accumulation of dust and planetesimals, later capturing surrounding gas to form a giant planet
Q60. SLINEX-26, the 13th edition of the India-Sri Lanka bilateral maritime exercise conducted at Visakhapatnam, involved which Indian Navy ships?
(A) INS Vikrant and INS Kolkata
(B) INS Kavaratti and INS Jyoti
(C) INS Chennai and INS Delhi
(D) INS Sahyadri and INS Tarkash
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) INS Kavaratti and INS Jyoti
Q61. The Partners for Multilateralism, International Law, Peace and Prosperity (P4M) initiative primarily seeks to advance UN reforms in alignment with which UN initiative, launched to respond to growing global fragmentation?
(A) UN2045 Initiative
(B) UN80 Initiative
(C) UN Charter Review Process
(D) Sustainable Development Compact
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) UN80 Initiative
Q62. Consider the following statements regarding challenges to traditional multilateralism:
1. The ‘triple planetary crisis’ refers to climate change, biodiversity loss and pollution.
2. The ‘4F crisis’ refers to disruptions in the supply of Food, Fuel, Fertilisers and Finance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Q63. As per estimates cited in the context of reformed multilateralism, developing countries currently face an annual development financing shortfall of approximately:
(A) $1 trillion
(B) $2 trillion
(C) $4 trillion
(D) $10 trillion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) $4 trillion
Q64. Which of the following is an example of India’s advocacy for the Global South, cited in the context of reformed multilateralism?
(A) Facilitating the African Union’s permanent membership in the G20 during India’s 2023 Presidency
(B) Vetoing UN Security Council resolutions on behalf of developing countries
(C) Withdrawing from the WTO Appellate Body
(D) Suspending its membership in the New Development Bank
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Facilitating the African Union’s permanent membership in the G20 during India’s 2023 Presidency
Q65. India promotes global public goods partly through Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) and the India Stack, and through climate cooperation platforms including the International Solar Alliance (ISA) and which other coalition?
(A) Global Methane Pledge
(B) Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI)
(C) Powering Past Coal Alliance
(D) Climate Vulnerable Forum
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI)
Q66. The Supreme Court judgment strengthening safeguards under Article 22(1), delivered on 21 September 2026, was pronounced by a Bench comprising Justices Ujjal Bhuyan and:
(A) B.R. Gavai
(B) Atul S. Chandurkar
(C) Surya Kant
(D) D.Y. Chandrachud
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Atul S. Chandurkar
Q67. As per the Supreme Court’s ruling, a violation of Article 22(1) primarily results in which of the following consequences for the accused?
(A) A reduction in the eventual sentence upon conviction
(B) Immediate release from illegal and unconstitutional detention, distinct from ordinary bail
(C) Automatic acquittal of all charges
(D) Transfer of the case to a special fast-track court
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Immediate release from illegal and unconstitutional detention, distinct from ordinary bail
Q68. With reference to the applicability of Article 22(1) safeguards, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) The safeguard applies only to arrests made under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita
(B) The safeguard applies across the criminal justice framework, including arrests under special enactments, and is treated as a mandatory constitutional requirement
(C) The safeguard is a discretionary procedural formality that courts may choose to waive
(D) The safeguard applies only to arrests of foreign nationals
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The safeguard applies across the criminal justice framework, including arrests under special enactments, and is treated as a mandatory constitutional requirement
Q69. Under the re-arrest procedure prescribed by the Supreme Court, the Magistrate examining a fresh application must determine bona fide reasons for the initial failure to furnish grounds of arrest, along with:
(A) Whether the accused has sufficient financial means to post bail
(B) Whether fresh custody is genuinely necessary
(C) Whether the media has reported on the case
(D) Whether the original arresting officer has been promoted
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Whether fresh custody is genuinely necessary
Q70. Which flagship annual cleanliness campaign, launched in 2017 to strengthen the ‘Jan Bhagidari’ approach, was themed ‘Swachhata Mein Sahbhag; Swachh Bharat, Viksit Bharat’ in 2026?
(A) GOBARdhan Diwas
(B) Swachhata Hi Seva (SHS)
(C) Swachh Survekshan
(D) Namami Gange Yatra
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Swachhata Hi Seva (SHS)
Q71. As per progress reported in September 2026, India has achieved how many ODF Plus villages in total, including how many ODF Plus Model villages?
(A) 2.5 lakh ODF Plus villages, including 1 lakh Model villages
(B) 5.69 lakh ODF Plus villages, including 5.25 lakh Model villages
(C) 10 lakh ODF Plus villages, including 8 lakh Model villages
(D) 1 lakh ODF Plus villages, including 50,000 Model villages
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 5.69 lakh ODF Plus villages, including 5.25 lakh Model villages
Q72. The example of SHGs conducting a plastic-removal drive across 18 Ganga-adjacent Gram Panchayats, collecting 9.32 tonnes of plastic waste in 18 days, was reported from which district?
(A) Gorakhpur, Uttar Pradesh
(B) Howrah, West Bengal
(C) Nadia, West Bengal
(D) Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Howrah, West Bengal
Q73. Village Water and Sanitation Committees (VWSCs), which support village-level planning, mobilisation and behaviour change under SBM-G, achieved ODF Plus Model status through a community-led approach in Gadli Gram Panchayat, located in which state?
(A) Punjab
(B) Haryana
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Haryana
Q74. The two broad manufacturing types of NdFeB magnets are distinguished primarily by their production process. Which of the following correctly matches type with characteristic?
(A) Sintered NdFeB — magnetic powder combined with a polymer binder for flexible shapes
(B) Bonded NdFeB — magnetic powder compacted and heat-treated for higher magnetic performance
(C) Sintered NdFeB — magnetic powder compacted and heat-treated into a dense solid, offering higher magnetic performance
(D) Both types use identical manufacturing processes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Sintered NdFeB — magnetic powder compacted and heat-treated into a dense solid, offering higher magnetic performance
Q75. Which of the following is NOT typically cited as a major application of NdFeB permanent magnets?
(A) Electric-vehicle traction motors
(B) Direct-drive wind-turbine generators
(C) Certain permanent-magnet MRI systems
(D) Conventional incandescent light bulbs
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Conventional incandescent light bulbs
Q76. The Union Budget 2026-27 announced Rare Earth Corridors to support the rare-earth value chain (mining, processing, research and manufacturing) in Odisha, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and:
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Karnataka
(C) Telangana
(D) West Bengal
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Andhra Pradesh
Q77. Which of the following best distinguishes Agentic AI from Generative AI, as per the classification of AI types?
(A) Generative AI plans and executes multi-step actions autonomously, while Agentic AI only creates content
(B) Agentic AI plans, decides and takes autonomous action to achieve a goal, while Generative AI primarily creates new content such as text, images or code
(C) Both terms describe identical categories of AI systems
(D) Generative AI cannot process text, while Agentic AI cannot process images
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Agentic AI plans, decides and takes autonomous action to achieve a goal, while Generative AI primarily creates new content such as text, images or code
Q78. Among the applications of Agentic AI listed, which sector involves supporting clinical workflows and patient-management processes?
(A) Finance
(B) Cybersecurity
(C) Healthcare
(D) Business automation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Healthcare
Q79. Which concern relating to Agentic AI specifically involves ensuring that autonomous systems remain subject to meaningful human supervision?
(A) Privacy
(B) Human oversight
(C) Tool utilisation
(D) Multi-step execution
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Human oversight
Q80. The Lindsey O. Graham Sanctioning Russia and Iran Act, 2026, was enacted by the United States on which date?
(A) 1 September 2026
(B) 18 September 2026
(C) 30 September 2026
(D) 15 August 2026
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 18 September 2026
Q81. As per the Act, tariffs under Section 113 may target both the five largest purchasers of Russian-origin crude oil/natural gas and:
(A) The five largest exporters of goods to Russia
(B) The five countries most involved in facilitating Russian oil sanctions evasion
(C) The five permanent members of the UN Security Council
(D) The five largest recipients of US foreign aid
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The five countries most involved in facilitating Russian oil sanctions evasion
Q82. With reference to Presidential authority under the Lindsey O. Graham Act, the US President:
(A) Has no discretion whatsoever over the imposition of tariffs under the Act
(B) May exercise waiver powers, subject to applicable statutory conditions
(C) Must obtain UN Security Council approval before imposing any tariff
(D) Can only apply the Act’s provisions to European countries
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) May exercise waiver powers, subject to applicable statutory conditions
Q83. The India Deep Tech Alliance (IDTA), a consortium of investors, corporates and technology partners, primarily aims to bridge the commercialisation gap in deep technologies by providing patient capital, technical mentorship, market access and:
(A) Consumer marketing support
(B) Policy engagement
(C) Retail distribution networks
(D) Currency hedging services
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Policy engagement
Q84. Which of the following is NOT among IDTA’s stated investment focus areas?
(A) Quantum technologies
(B) Space technology
(C) Bio-economy
(D) Traditional textile manufacturing
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Traditional textile manufacturing
Q85. SEMI, the global non-profit association partnering with IDTA to establish the India Semiconductor Academy, stands for:
(A) Semiconductor Manufacturing India
(B) Semiconductor Equipment and Materials International
(C) South East Manufacturing Institute
(D) Strategic Electronics and Microchip Industries
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Semiconductor Equipment and Materials International
Q86. As per the district-level labour market indicators released by the NSO, approximately what proportion of districts recorded a female Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) of 40% or above?
(A) 27.8%
(B) 37.8%
(C) 57.8%
(D) 77.8%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 57.8%
Q87. As per the NSO’s district-level data, more than 75% of districts reported which of the following?
(A) Female LFPR above 60%
(B) NEET rates below 30%
(C) Unemployment rates above 20%
(D) WPR above 80%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) NEET rates below 30%
Q88. The NSO functions under which ministry as the apex body for statistical coordination and socio-economic surveys?
(A) Ministry of Finance
(B) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI)
(C) Ministry of Labour and Employment
(D) NITI Aayog
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI)
Q89. The observation of Elias 2-24 b, confirmed as the youngest known exoplanet, was made possible using archival data from which observatory?
(A) Hubble Space Telescope
(B) James Webb Space Telescope
(C) W. M. Keck Observatory
(D) Atacama Large Millimeter Array
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) W. M. Keck Observatory
Q90. The McGetchin Crater, identified by NASA as a newly formed lunar impact crater, is significant partly because it illustrates that the Moon’s near-absence of an atmosphere:
(A) Causes most incoming space debris to burn up before impact
(B) Provides negligible atmospheric braking or burning, allowing debris to reach the surface and form impact craters
(C) Deflects incoming asteroids via magnetic shielding
(D) Prevents any impact craters from forming on the Moon
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Provides negligible atmospheric braking or burning, allowing debris to reach the surface and form impact craters
Q91. Form 6, at the centre of the recent electoral-roll governance controversy, is the statutory application form used for:
(A) Deletion of a deceased voter’s name from the electoral roll
(B) Inclusion of an eligible citizen’s name in the electoral roll as a new voter
(C) Transfer of a voter’s registration between constituencies
(D) Filing objections against a candidate’s nomination
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Inclusion of an eligible citizen’s name in the electoral roll as a new voter
Q92. Under the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners Act, 2023, where the CEC and Election Commissioners differ in opinion on a matter, the issue is decided by:
(A) The CEC’s decision, which is treated as final and binding
(B) Majority opinion among the Commission members
(C) Reference to the President of India
(D) Reference to the Supreme Court in every instance
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Majority opinion among the Commission members
Q93. T.N. Seshan v. Union of India (1995) is significant in Election Commission jurisprudence primarily because it:
(A) Established that the CEC is hierarchically superior to other Election Commissioners
(B) Upheld the institutional framework emphasising the collective character of the Commission, rather than CEC supremacy
(C) Struck down the multi-member structure of the Election Commission
(D) Transferred electoral-roll preparation entirely to the judiciary
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Upheld the institutional framework emphasising the collective character of the Commission, rather than CEC supremacy
Q94. Under the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners Act, 2023, which of the following statements regarding removal protections is correct?
(A) Both the CEC and other Election Commissioners can be removed only in the manner applicable to a Supreme Court judge
(B) The CEC can be removed only in the manner applicable to a Supreme Court judge, while an Election Commissioner cannot be removed except on the CEC’s recommendation
(C) Election Commissioners can be removed by a simple Cabinet resolution
(D) Neither the CEC nor Election Commissioners enjoy any removal protection
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The CEC can be removed only in the manner applicable to a Supreme Court judge, while an Election Commissioner cannot be removed except on the CEC’s recommendation
Q95. As per the recently revived demand, Uttar Pradesh Minister Om Prakash Rajbhar proposed dividing the state into four parts, including Purvanchal, Madhyanchal, Bundelkhand and:
(A) Awadh Pradesh
(B) Harit Pradesh
(C) Rohilkhand
(D) Braj Pradesh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Harit Pradesh
Q96. Under Article 3 of the Constitution, a Bill to form a new State can be introduced in Parliament only on:
(A) The recommendation of the Supreme Court
(B) The recommendation of the President
(C) A resolution passed by the concerned State Legislature
(D) The recommendation of the Election Commission
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The recommendation of the President
Q97. With reference to the State Legislature’s role under Article 3, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) The State Legislature’s consent is constitutionally mandatory before Parliament can reorganise the State
(B) The State Legislature’s views must be sought, but they are consultative and not binding on Parliament
(C) State Legislatures have no role whatsoever in the reorganisation process
(D) Only the Rajya Sabha can refer reorganisation Bills to State Legislatures
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The State Legislature’s views must be sought, but they are consultative and not binding on Parliament
Q98. In Babulal Parate v. State of Bombay, the Supreme Court held that:
(A) Every parliamentary amendment to a State reorganisation Bill requires a fresh reference to the State Legislature
(B) A fresh reference to the State Legislature is not required merely because Parliament subsequently modifies the Bill’s proposal
(C) State reorganisation Bills cannot be amended after introduction
(D) The President cannot recommend more than one reorganisation Bill per year
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A fresh reference to the State Legislature is not required merely because Parliament subsequently modifies the Bill’s proposal
Q99. The States Reorganisation Commission (1955) is best known for having:
(A) Endorsed ‘one language, one State’ as the sole organising principle
(B) Rejected the simplistic ‘one language, one State’ principle, favouring a balance of linguistic, administrative and national-unity considerations
(C) Recommended abolishing States altogether in favour of Union Territories
(D) Proposed making State consent mandatory under Article 3
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Rejected the simplistic ‘one language, one State’ principle, favouring a balance of linguistic, administrative and national-unity considerations
Q100. The Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC), headquartered in Jeddah, Saudi Arabia, was established following the Rabat Summit in 1969, in the aftermath of:
(A) The 1967 Arab-Israeli War
(B) An arson attack on the Al-Aqsa Mosque in Jerusalem
(C) The Iranian Revolution
(D) The Suez Canal Crisis
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) An arson attack on the Al-Aqsa Mosque in Jerusalem
Q101. With reference to India’s relationship with the OIC, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) India is a full member of the OIC
(B) India is an observer state of the OIC
(C) India is neither a member nor an observer, though it was invited as a Guest of Honour at a 2019 OIC ministerial meeting
(D) India withdrew its OIC membership in 2019
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) India is neither a member nor an observer, though it was invited as a Guest of Honour at a 2019 OIC ministerial meeting
Q102. The OIC’s highest policy-making body, providing broad political direction to the organisation, is the:
(A) General Secretariat
(B) Council of Foreign Ministers
(C) Islamic Summit of Heads of State and Government
(D) OIC Contact Group
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Islamic Summit of Heads of State and Government
Q103. As per the Planetary Health Check 2026 report, released by the Planetary Boundaries Science Lab at the Potsdam Institute for Climate Impact Research, how many of the nine planetary boundaries have been transgressed?
(A) 4 of 9
(B) 5 of 9
(C) 6 of 9
(D) 7 of 9
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) 7 of 9
Q104. The Planetary Boundaries framework, originally introduced in 2009, was led by which scientist?
(A) James Hansen
(B) Johan Rockström
(C) Will Steffen
(D) Paul Crutzen
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Johan Rockström
Q105. Within the Planetary Boundaries framework, ‘Novel Entities’ primarily refers to:
(A) Newly discovered species of flora and fauna
(B) Substances and materials introduced into the Earth system through human activity, such as plastics, synthetic chemicals and GMOs
(C) New renewable-energy technologies
(D) Recently formed geological structures
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Substances and materials introduced into the Earth system through human activity, such as plastics, synthetic chemicals and GMOs
Q106. Within the Planetary Boundaries framework, the distinction between ‘blue water’ and ‘green water’ under the Freshwater Change boundary refers to:
(A) Water in rivers/lakes/reservoirs versus water stored in soil and available to plants
(B) Drinking water versus industrial water
(C) Groundwater versus rainwater
(D) Saline water versus freshwater
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Water in rivers/lakes/reservoirs versus water stored in soil and available to plants
Q107. The International Mobile Equipment Identity (IMEI), a unique identification number assigned to a mobile device, consists of how many digits?
(A) 10 digits
(B) 12 digits
(C) 15 digits
(D) 20 digits
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 15 digits
Q108. Within the IMEI structure, the first eight digits, which identify the model or type of a mobile device, constitute the:
(A) Serial Number Block (SNB)
(B) Type Allocation Code (TAC)
(C) Software Version Number (SVN)
(D) Global Device Identifier (GDI)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Type Allocation Code (TAC)
Q109. The Device Setu-Indian Counterfeited Device Restriction (ICDR) portal is used in India primarily to:
(A) Register IMEI numbers of devices manufactured or imported into India
(B) Process telecom subscriber SIM applications
(C) Track international roaming charges
(D) Certify mobile network towers
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Register IMEI numbers of devices manufactured or imported into India
Q110. India’s first blue bond is planned to be issued by which entity?
(A) National Housing Bank
(B) Sagarmala Finance Corporation Limited (SMFCL)
(C) Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA)
(D) Power Finance Corporation (PFC)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Sagarmala Finance Corporation Limited (SMFCL)
Q111. SMFCL, described as India’s first NBFC dedicated to the maritime sector, functions as:
(A) A privately owned investment bank
(B) A Mini Ratna Category-I Central Public Sector Enterprise, fully owned by the Government of India
(C) A joint venture between India and Seychelles
(D) An autonomous body under the Reserve Bank of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A Mini Ratna Category-I Central Public Sector Enterprise, fully owned by the Government of India
Q112. The world’s first sovereign blue bond was issued in 2018 by:
(A) Mauritius
(B) Seychelles
(C) Maldives
(D) Fiji
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Seychelles
Q113. At the G20 Energy Abundance Ministerial Meeting in Houston, the Household Energy Access consensus outcome specifically recognises which fuel as a scalable transition option from traditional biomass-based cooking?
(A) Natural gas
(B) LPG
(C) Compressed biogas
(D) Ethanol
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) LPG
Q114. The Household Energy Access outcome at the G20 Houston meeting is aligned with which Indian scheme aimed at expanding access to clean cooking fuel?
(A) Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY)
(B) Ujjwala Plus Scheme
(C) PM Garib Kalyan Yojana
(D) Saubhagya Scheme
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY)
Q115. The four consensus outcomes adopted at the G20 Energy Abundance Ministerial Meeting were characterised as being:
(A) Legally binding on all G20 members
(B) Voluntary and non-binding, while respecting national sovereignty over natural resources
(C) Enforceable through WTO dispute mechanisms
(D) Applicable only to OECD member countries
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Voluntary and non-binding, while respecting national sovereignty over natural resources
Q116. The Global Cities Index 2026, released by Oxford Economics, assesses urban economies using 27 indicators across five broad categories. Which category carries the HIGHEST weightage?
(A) Human Capital (25%)
(B) Quality of Life (25%)
(C) Economics (30%)
(D) Governance (10%)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Economics (30%)
Q117. Which city retained the top position in the Global Cities Index 2026?
(A) London, UK
(B) Paris, France
(C) New York, USA
(D) Tokyo, Japan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) New York, USA
Q118. As per the Global Cities Index 2026, which Indian city recorded the highest (best) global rank among Delhi, Bengaluru and Mumbai?
(A) Delhi (rank 268)
(B) Bengaluru (rank 311)
(C) Mumbai (rank 330)
(D) All three were ranked equally
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Delhi (rank 268)
Q119. The Ghost Flower Orchid (Gastrodia keyiensis), recently discovered in Keyi Panyor district of Arunachal Pradesh, is called ‘Oram Opuh’ by the Nyishi community, a name that reflects:
(A) Its bright, luminous flower colour
(B) Its unusual life cycle of remaining underground for most of its life and flowering only briefly above ground
(C) Its association with local funeral rites
(D) Its extremely tall growth habit
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Its unusual life cycle of remaining underground for most of its life and flowering only briefly above ground
Q120. The 18th edition of Exercise Nomadic Elephant, the India-Mongolia joint military exercise, was conducted in Pithoragarh, Uttarakhand, with the previous edition having been held in:
(A) New Delhi, India
(B) Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia
(C) Leh, India
(D) Irkutsk, Russia
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia
Q121. The core challenge to the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners Act, 2023, concerns the composition of the Selection Committee, specifically the replacement of the Chief Justice of India with:
(A) The Vice-President of India
(B) A Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister
(C) The Attorney General of India
(D) A retired Supreme Court judge nominated by Parliament
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister
Q122. As per Article 324(5), which of the following statements regarding the CEC’s service conditions is correct?
(A) The CEC’s service conditions can be varied to his disadvantage after appointment if Parliament so decides
(B) The CEC’s service conditions cannot be varied to his disadvantage after appointment
(C) Only the President can alter the CEC’s service conditions, without any restriction
(D) The CEC has no protection regarding service conditions once appointed
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The CEC’s service conditions cannot be varied to his disadvantage after appointment
Q123. In Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India (2023), pending a parliamentary law, the Supreme Court directed that Election Commissioner appointments be made on the advice of a committee comprising the Prime Minister, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and:
(A) A Union Cabinet Minister
(B) The Chief Justice of India
(C) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) The Comptroller and Auditor General
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The Chief Justice of India
Q124. Under the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners Act, 2023, the CEC and Election Commissioners hold office for six years or until attaining which age, whichever is earlier?
(A) 60 years
(B) 62 years
(C) 65 years
(D) 70 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 65 years
Q125. Black carbon, identified as contributing to accelerated Himalayan glacier melting, is primarily produced through:
(A) Complete combustion of natural gas
(B) Incomplete combustion of fossil fuels, biofuels and biomass
(C) Photosynthesis in high-altitude vegetation
(D) Volcanic outgassing exclusively
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Incomplete combustion of fossil fuels, biofuels and biomass
Q126. When black carbon deposits on snow and ice surfaces, it primarily contributes to accelerated melting by:
(A) Increasing the surface’s albedo, causing it to reflect more sunlight
(B) Reducing the surface’s albedo, causing it to absorb more solar radiation
(C) Releasing latent heat through chemical reactions with ice
(D) Blocking sunlight entirely, preventing any melting
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Reducing the surface’s albedo, causing it to absorb more solar radiation
Q127. With reference to black carbon’s atmospheric behaviour, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) It persists in the atmosphere for centuries, similar to CO₂
(B) It is a short-lived climate pollutant, remaining in the atmosphere for days to weeks, though it has a strong near-term warming effect
(C) It has no measurable warming effect despite its atmospheric presence
(D) It is classified as a greenhouse gas rather than a particulate pollutant
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) It is a short-lived climate pollutant, remaining in the atmosphere for days to weeks, though it has a strong near-term warming effect
Q128. India’s first Canal-Top Photovoltaic (CTPV) installation was established in 2012 at:
(A) Vadodara, Gujarat
(B) Mehsana, Gujarat
(C) Ludhiana, Punjab
(D) Nashik, Maharashtra
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Mehsana, Gujarat
Q129. As per estimates cited for India’s CTPV and canal-bank solar potential, the total potential is estimated at approximately:
(A) 50 GW
(B) 80 GW
(C) 131 GW
(D) 200 GW
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 131 GW
Q130. Which of the following is cited as a key advantage of Canal-Top Photovoltaics?
(A) Significantly lower installation costs compared with ground-mounted solar plants
(B) Minimal additional land requirement and reduced water evaporation from the canal
(C) Elimination of the need for grid-connection infrastructure
(D) Complete immunity from structural maintenance requirements
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Minimal additional land requirement and reduced water evaporation from the canal
Q131. A key roadblock associated with CTPV projects, as compared with large contiguous solar parks, relates to:
(A) Excessive land acquisition requirements
(B) The linear configuration of canals, which can increase generation costs due to substation placement and directional changes
(C) The complete unavailability of suitable canal infrastructure in India
(D) A ban on solar installations over water bodies
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The linear configuration of canals, which can increase generation costs due to substation placement and directional changes
Q132. The Make in India initiative, which completed 12 years of implementation, was launched in which year and is spearheaded by which department?
(A) 2014; Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT)
(B) 2016; Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
(C) 2019; NITI Aayog
(D) 2020; Ministry of Heavy Industries
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) 2014; Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT)
Q133. Among the four pillars of Make in India, ‘New Mindset’ primarily refers to:
(A) Simplifying regulatory procedures to improve Ease of Doing Business
(B) Reorienting government’s role from a regulator towards an active facilitator of investment and industrial growth
(C) Building new industrial corridors and manufacturing ecosystems
(D) Liberalising FDI norms in new sectors
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Reorienting government’s role from a regulator towards an active facilitator of investment and industrial growth
Q134. As per data cited on the achievements of Make in India, cumulative FDI inflows increased by approximately what percentage over the preceding twelve years, reaching around $843 billion?
(A) 69%
(B) 100%
(C) 169%
(D) 250%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 169%
Q135. Despite the achievements of Make in India, which of the following persisting bottlenecks has been highlighted?
(A) Manufacturing’s share of GDP has already crossed the 25% target
(B) Manufacturing continues to account for around 16-17% of GDP, considerably below the 25% target
(C) Manufacturing employment has more than doubled since 2016-17
(D) India’s gross R&D expenditure already exceeds 2% of GDP
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Manufacturing continues to account for around 16-17% of GDP, considerably below the 25% target
Q136. Polylactic Acid (PLA), whose commercial use was recently launched under the BioE3 framework, is manufactured using renewable organic resources such as corn starch, tapioca and sugarcane, through which sequence of processes?
(A) Biomass → Sugars → Lactic Acid → Polymerisation → PLA
(B) Biomass → Polymerisation → Sugars → Lactic Acid → PLA
(C) Biomass → Lactic Acid → Polymerisation → Sugars → PLA
(D) Biomass → PLA directly, without intermediate steps
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Biomass → Sugars → Lactic Acid → Polymerisation → PLA
Q137. With reference to PLA’s properties, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) PLA has higher thermal resistance than PET and can withstand very high temperatures
(B) PLA possesses high mechanical strength and optical clarity but softens above approximately 55-60°C
(C) PLA is entirely petroleum-derived, like conventional plastics
(D) PLA cannot be used in any biomedical application
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) PLA possesses high mechanical strength and optical clarity but softens above approximately 55-60°C
Q138. PLA’s bio-resorbable property, useful in biomedical applications such as surgical sutures, arises because inside the human body it:
(A) Remains chemically inert and is never broken down
(B) Undergoes hydrolysis and breaks down into lactic acid, a naturally occurring metabolic product
(C) Triggers an immune rejection response
(D) Converts into a toxic by-product requiring surgical removal
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Undergoes hydrolysis and breaks down into lactic acid, a naturally occurring metabolic product
Q139. The OECD’s Interim Economic Outlook projected India’s economic growth for FY 2026-27 at approximately:
(A) 5.5%
(B) 6.3%
(C) 7.1%
(D) 8.5%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 7.1%
Q140. As per the OECD’s assessment, India’s growth momentum is expected to moderate towards late 2026 primarily due to risks including persistent inflation and:
(A) A sharp decline in domestic consumption
(B) Weather-related agricultural risks
(C) Complete cessation of government price-support measures
(D) A collapse in India’s export markets
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Weather-related agricultural risks
Q141. With reference to India’s relationship with the OECD, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) India is a full member of the OECD
(B) India is not an OECD member but is one of its five Key Partners
(C) India chairs the OECD’s Development Assistance Committee
(D) India withdrew from OECD partner status in 2020
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) India is not an OECD member but is one of its five Key Partners
Q142. Pandit Deendayal Upadhyaya’s principal philosophical contribution, ‘Integral Humanism’ (Ekatma Manavavad), emphasised the balanced development of which four dimensions of human existence?
(A) Body, Mind, Intellect and Soul
(B) Economy, Society, Polity and Culture
(C) Village, District, State and Nation
(D) Agriculture, Industry, Trade and Services
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Body, Mind, Intellect and Soul
Q143. Antyodaya Diwas, observed on 25 September to mark Deendayal Upadhyaya’s birth anniversary, embodies the idea that:
(A) Industrial growth should take precedence over social welfare
(B) Development should ultimately benefit the last and most marginalised person in society
(C) Foreign investment should be prioritised over domestic enterprise
(D) Urbanisation should be actively promoted over rural development
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Development should ultimately benefit the last and most marginalised person in society
Q144. Deendayal Upadhyaya’s economic thought, which criticised highly centralised and capital-intensive industrialisation, favoured greater emphasis on:
(A) Large-scale, capital-intensive public sector enterprises
(B) Labour-intensive, small-scale and cottage industries
(C) Complete reliance on foreign direct investment
(D) State-controlled collective farming on the Soviet model
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Labour-intensive, small-scale and cottage industries
Q145. ‘Analogue paneer’, addressed by FSSAI’s proposed draft regulations, refers to a paneer-like product in which milk fat or milk protein is substituted with:
(A) Additional milk solids from a different source
(B) Non-milk ingredients such as starches and vegetable fats
(C) Only additional water, without any substitution
(D) Synthetic vitamins and minerals
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Non-milk ingredients such as starches and vegetable fats
Q146. Under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, food marketed or sold under the name of another food (such as analogue paneer sold as paneer) is treated as:
(A) Adulterated food, attracting imprisonment only
(B) Misbranded food, attracting a penalty of up to ₹3 lakh
(C) Substandard food, requiring only a warning notice
(D) Unsafe food, requiring immediate recall without penalty
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Misbranded food, attracting a penalty of up to ₹3 lakh
Q147. As per the External Affairs Minister’s remarks at the High-Level Meeting of Like-Minded Global South Countries, developing countries collectively account for over 40% of global output and merchandise trade but only around what share of global financial markets?
(A) 10%
(B) 25%
(C) 50%
(D) 70%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 25%
Q148. Among the challenges in empowering the Global South, ‘fragmentation of cooperation’ refers to the difficulty in formulating a common agenda despite platforms such as:
(A) NATO, EU and ASEAN
(B) G20, BRICS, G77 and NAM
(C) IMF, World Bank and WTO alone
(D) UNSC, ICJ and ICC
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) G20, BRICS, G77 and NAM
Q149. PB-SHABD, whose adoption by more than 3,600 media organisations was recently highlighted, is a centralised news-feed service developed by which organisation?
(A) Press Trust of India (PTI)
(B) Prasar Bharati
(C) Press Information Bureau (PIB)
(D) Doordarshan News exclusively
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Prasar Bharati
Q150. The DURGA Scheme, approved by the Delhi Cabinet to provide ‘Pink’ electric auto-rickshaws to women and transgender individuals, primarily aims to promote dignified self-employment, asset ownership and:
(A) Reduced fuel subsidies
(B) Sustainable urban mobility
(C) Increased vehicle import duties
(D) Privatisation of public transport
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Sustainable urban mobility
Q151. The France–Mexico initiative on veto restraint, recently backed by the United Kingdom, calls on the P5 to voluntarily suspend use of the veto in situations involving:
(A) Trade disputes and sanctions regimes
(B) Genocide, crimes against humanity and large-scale war crimes
(C) Border disputes between member states
(D) Elections of non-permanent members
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Genocide, crimes against humanity and large-scale war crimes
Q152. Under Article 27 of the UN Charter, adoption of a substantive resolution in the UNSC requires:
(A) A simple majority of the General Assembly
(B) At least nine affirmative votes, including the concurring votes of the permanent members
(C) A unanimous vote of all 15 members
(D) Only the votes of the five permanent members
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) At least nine affirmative votes, including the concurring votes of the permanent members
Q153. UNGA Resolution 76/262 (2022), the ‘Liechtenstein initiative’, requires the President of the General Assembly to convene a debate after a UNSC veto within how many working days?
(A) 3 working days
(B) 10 working days
(C) 30 working days
(D) 90 working days
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 10 working days
Q154. Under Article 324(5) of the Constitution, the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) can be removed only:
(A) By the President acting on the Prime Minister’s advice
(B) In the same manner and on the same grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court
(C) On the recommendation of the other Election Commissioners
(D) By a simple majority resolution of the Lok Sabha
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) In the same manner and on the same grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court
Q155. A motion for removal of the CEC requires notice signed by at least how many members of the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha respectively?
(A) 50 and 25
(B) 100 and 50
(C) 150 and 75
(D) 200 and 100
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 100 and 50
Q156. The special majority required in each House for the CEC’s removal consists of a majority of the total membership of that House and:
(A) A simple majority of members present and voting
(B) A majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting
(C) Unanimous support from all members present
(D) Three-fourths of the total membership
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting
Q157. Under Section 29C of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, political parties are required to report contributions exceeding:
(A) ₹2,000
(B) ₹20,000
(C) ₹2 lakh
(D) ₹20 lakh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) ₹20,000
Q158. As per the ADR report, the declared income of Registered Unrecognised Political Parties (RUPPs) in FY 2022-23 rose by approximately:
(A) 23%
(B) 123%
(C) 223%
(D) 523%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 223%
Q159. In Association for Democratic Reforms v. Union of India (2024), the Supreme Court:
(A) Upheld the Electoral Bond Scheme as constitutional
(B) Struck down the Electoral Bond Scheme and held that political-funding information falls within voters’ right to information under Article 19(1)(a)
(C) Directed the abolition of all political-party funding by corporations
(D) Held that political parties are fully covered under the RTI Act
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Struck down the Electoral Bond Scheme and held that political-funding information falls within voters’ right to information under Article 19(1)(a)
Q160. The Asian Development Bank (ADB), which recently raised India’s 2026-27 growth projection to 7%, is headquartered in:
(A) Tokyo, Japan
(B) Manila, Philippines
(C) Singapore
(D) Beijing, China
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Manila, Philippines
Q161. With reference to the ADB’s shareholding structure, which two countries are the largest shareholders by subscribed capital, each holding about 15.6%?
(A) Japan and China
(B) Japan and the United States
(C) United States and India
(D) China and India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Japan and the United States
Q162. The ADB’s long-term strategic framework, adopted in 2018, is known as:
(A) Vision 2050
(B) Strategy 2030
(C) Asia Compact 2040
(D) Blueprint 2025
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Strategy 2030
Q163. OneSCD, co-hosted by India at the UN during the 81st UNGA session, is described as the first global coordination mechanism dedicated to which disease?
(A) Tuberculosis
(B) Sickle Cell Disease
(C) Thalassaemia
(D) Malaria
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Sickle Cell Disease
Q164. Sickle Cell Disease follows which pattern of inheritance?
(A) Autosomal dominant
(B) Autosomal recessive
(C) X-linked dominant
(D) Mitochondrial
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Autosomal recessive
Q165. India’s National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission, launched in 2023, aims to eliminate SCD as a public-health problem by:
(A) 2030
(B) 2035
(C) 2040
(D) 2047
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) 2047
Q166. The 72nd National Film Awards ceremony was notable for being held outside New Delhi for the first time in 72 years, at:
(A) Ekta Nagar (Kevadia), Gujarat
(B) Mumbai, Maharashtra
(C) Hyderabad, Telangana
(D) Kolkata, West Bengal
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Ekta Nagar (Kevadia), Gujarat
Q167. Which film won the Best Feature Film award at the 72nd National Film Awards?
(A) Kalki 2898 AD
(B) Article 370
(C) Amaran
(D) Maharaja
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Article 370
Q168. The Dadasaheb Phalke Award for 2024 was conferred on Anant Nag. The award has been conferred since which year?
(A) 1954
(B) 1969
(C) 1975
(D) 1990
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 1969
Q169. The Community of Latin American and Caribbean States (CELAC), whose Foreign Ministers met India on the sidelines of the 81st UNGA, comprises how many sovereign states?
(A) 23
(B) 33
(C) 43
(D) 53
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 33
Q170. With reference to CELAC’s institutional structure, which of the following is correct?
(A) It has a permanent secretariat headquartered in Caracas
(B) It has no permanent secretariat or headquarters and its presidency rotates annually
(C) It includes the United States and Canada as full members
(D) It uses majority voting for all decisions
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) It has no permanent secretariat or headquarters and its presidency rotates annually
Q171. The ‘Lithium Triangle’, where KABIL has acquired exploration interests, comprises Argentina, Bolivia and:
(A) Peru
(B) Chile
(C) Brazil
(D) Uruguay
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Chile
Q172. The Atal Vayo Abhyudaya Yojana (AVYAY), which includes the Elderline helpline (14567), is implemented by which ministry?
(A) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(B) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
(C) Ministry of Rural Development
(D) Ministry of Women and Child Development
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
Q173. The Seniorcare Ageing Growth Engine (SAGE) component of AVYAY primarily supports:
(A) Free distribution of hearing aids to senior citizens
(B) Start-ups in the elder-care sector, promoting the ‘Silver Economy’
(C) Grants to old-age homes run by NGOs
(D) Mass cataract surgery camps
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Start-ups in the elder-care sector, promoting the ‘Silver Economy’
Q174. The Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana (RVY) under AVYAY provides eligible BPL senior citizens with:
(A) Monthly cash pensions
(B) Assisted-living devices such as hearing aids and wheelchairs, free of cost
(C) Free legal aid in property disputes
(D) Subsidised housing loans
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Assisted-living devices such as hearing aids and wheelchairs, free of cost
Q175. Ayurveda Day is observed annually on 23 September, fixed through a Gazette notification to coincide with:
(A) Summer solstice
(B) Autumnal equinox
(C) Winter solstice
(D) Vernal equinox
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Autumnal equinox
Q176. The WHO Global Centre for Traditional Medicine, strengthening India’s role in promoting traditional medicine, is located at:
(A) Nagpur, Maharashtra
(B) Jamnagar, Gujarat
(C) New Delhi
(D) Bengaluru, Karnataka
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Jamnagar, Gujarat
Q177. Pune has been awarded hosting rights for the 2032 UCI Road World Championships. Which of the following is correct about this development?
(A) India will become the first Asian host of the championship
(B) It will be India’s first time hosting this premier global cycling championship
(C) The championship was first organised in 1990
(D) Pune will host it jointly with Abu Dhabi
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) It will be India’s first time hosting this premier global cycling championship
Q178. As per the Supreme Court’s rulings, including Kuldip Nayar v. Union of India (2006), the right to vote in India is currently treated as:
(A) A Fundamental Right under Article 19
(B) A statutory right, regulated by election legislation
(C) A Directive Principle of State Policy
(D) An unenumerated constitutional right under Article 21
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A statutory right, regulated by election legislation
Q179. Article 326 of the Constitution provides for elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies on the basis of:
(A) Proportional representation
(B) Adult suffrage
(C) Indirect election
(D) Nominated representation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Adult suffrage
Q180. Article 325 of the Constitution provides for one general electoral roll for every territorial constituency and prohibits exclusion from it on grounds of religion, race, caste and:
(A) Sex
(B) Income
(C) Education
(D) Place of birth
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Sex
Q181. In the PUCL v. Union of India line of cases, the Supreme Court connected a voter’s ability to express choice, including through NOTA, with which fundamental freedom?
(A) Freedom of movement under Article 19(1)(d)
(B) Freedom of expression under Article 19(1)(a)
(C) Right to equality under Article 14
(D) Right to constitutional remedies under Article 32
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Freedom of expression under Article 19(1)(a)
Q182. The National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2002) recommended addressing low voter participation primarily by:
(A) Making the right to vote a Fundamental Right
(B) Adding a duty to vote among the Fundamental Duties under Article 51A
(C) Abolishing the secret ballot
(D) Making voting compulsory with criminal penalties
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Adding a duty to vote among the Fundamental Duties under Article 51A
Q183. The Global Cooling Pledge, launched at COP28 in 2023, was launched by which country?
(A) Singapore
(B) United Arab Emirates
(C) Saudi Arabia
(D) Qatar
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) United Arab Emirates
Q184. Among the Global Cooling Pledge’s key targets is to increase the global average efficiency of newly sold air conditioners by what percentage by 2030, compared with 2022 levels?
(A) 20%
(B) 35%
(C) 50%
(D) 68%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 50%
Q185. With reference to India’s approach to sustainable cooling, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) India has joined the Global Cooling Pledge and follows its targets exclusively
(B) India has not joined the Global Cooling Pledge and instead follows its own India Cooling Action Plan (ICAP), 2019
(C) India has no domestic cooling-sector policy framework
(D) India withdrew from ICAP in favour of the Global Cooling Pledge in 2023
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) India has not joined the Global Cooling Pledge and instead follows its own India Cooling Action Plan (ICAP), 2019
Q186. The Bharat Maritime Insurance Pool (BMIP), India’s first domestic maritime insurance pool, was launched in May 2026 with which entity acting as the Pool Administrator?
(A) Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC)
(B) General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC Re)
(C) New India Assurance
(D) Export Credit Guarantee Corporation (ECGC)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC Re)
Q187. BMIP is supported by a Government of India sovereign guarantee of approximately how much?
(A) ₹5,000 crore
(B) ₹12,980 crore
(C) ₹25,000 crore
(D) ₹50,000 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) ₹12,980 crore
Q188. Under BMIP’s claims-management structure, claims up to US$100 million are met through accumulated pool reserves and reinsurance recoveries, while the sovereign guarantee is activated:
(A) Immediately for every claim, regardless of amount
(B) Only after the pool’s reserves have been completely exhausted, for claims exceeding this level
(C) Only for claims below US$10 million
(D) Automatically once a claim is filed, without exhausting reserves
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Only after the pool’s reserves have been completely exhausted, for claims exceeding this level
Q189. AFSPA, currently extended for another six months in parts of Manipur, Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh, traces its origins to which colonial-era legislation?
(A) The Government of India Act, 1935
(B) The Armed Forces (Special Powers) Ordinance, 1942
(C) The Indian Penal Code, 1860
(D) The Defence of India Act, 1915
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The Armed Forces (Special Powers) Ordinance, 1942
Q190. Under Section 3 of AFSPA, the power to declare an area ‘disturbed’ can be exercised by the Governor of a State, the Administrator of a Union Territory, or:
(A) The Chief Justice of the concerned High Court
(B) The Central Government
(C) The Director General of Police alone
(D) The local District Magistrate
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The Central Government
Q191. Under Section 6 of AFSPA, no prosecution, suit or other legal proceeding can be instituted against a person acting under the Act without:
(A) The consent of the affected individual
(B) Prior sanction of the Central Government
(C) A local Panchayat resolution
(D) Approval from the state High Court alone
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Prior sanction of the Central Government
Q192. In Naga People’s Movement for Human Rights v. Union of India (1997), the Supreme Court:
(A) Struck down AFSPA as unconstitutional
(B) Upheld AFSPA’s constitutional validity while laying down safeguards such as periodic review of disturbed-area declarations
(C) Held that AFSPA applies only during a formally declared National Emergency
(D) Transferred AFSPA-related matters entirely to military courts
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Upheld AFSPA’s constitutional validity while laying down safeguards such as periodic review of disturbed-area declarations
Q193. Subsea telecommunications cables currently carry approximately what proportion of global internet traffic?
(A) 50%
(B) 75%
(C) 90%
(D) More than 99%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) More than 99%
Q194. Cable Landing Stations (CLS), a key component of subsea cable infrastructure, primarily function to:
(A) Generate electricity for coastal power grids
(B) Connect submarine cables with terrestrial telecommunications networks
(C) Monitor ship movements for maritime security
(D) Desalinate seawater for local use
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Connect submarine cables with terrestrial telecommunications networks
Q195. As per recent estimates, the average marine repair time for damaged subsea cables in Indian waters is around how many days, compared with generally less than 40 days in several other regions?
(A) 20 days
(B) 50 days
(C) 102 days
(D) 200 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 102 days
Q196. The Lalit Kala Akademi, India’s apex institution for the promotion of visual and fine arts, was established in 1954 under the leadership of:
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(D) C. Rajagopalachari
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
Q197. The Lalit Kala Akademi’s highest honour, conferred for outstanding and sustained contribution to fine arts, is known as:
(A) Padma Ratna
(B) Ratna Sadasya (Fellowship)
(C) Kala Bhushan
(D) Akademi Puraskar
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Ratna Sadasya (Fellowship)
Q198. The National Exhibition of Art (NEA), initiated in 1955 by the Lalit Kala Akademi, primarily serves as a platform for:
(A) Auctioning historical artefacts
(B) Showcasing contemporary visual art and recognising outstanding artists through national awards
(C) Training film-industry professionals
(D) Preserving classical Sanskrit manuscripts
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Showcasing contemporary visual art and recognising outstanding artists through national awards
Q199. The Forum for India-Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC), established in 2014, currently brings together India and how many Pacific Island Countries?
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 14
(D) 18
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 14
Q200. The third FIPIC Summit, at which the 12-point Action Plan was announced, was held in 2023 at:
(A) Suva, Fiji
(B) Jaipur, India
(C) Port Moresby, Papua New Guinea
(D) Honiara, Solomon Islands
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Port Moresby, Papua New Guinea
Q201. With reference to FIPIC and the Pacific Islands Forum (PIF), which of the following statements is correct?
(A) FIPIC and PIF are the same organisation under different names
(B) FIPIC is an India-Pacific Islands cooperation platform, while PIF is the principal regional organisation of the Pacific, including Australia and New Zealand
(C) PIF is exclusively an India-led initiative
(D) FIPIC was established before PIF, in 1965
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) FIPIC is an India-Pacific Islands cooperation platform, while PIF is the principal regional organisation of the Pacific, including Australia and New Zealand
Q202. The QUAD-at-Sea Ship Observer Mission, in which ICG ship Shaunak sailed from Chennai to Perth, draws its formal foundation from which 2024 declaration?
(A) The Tokyo Declaration
(B) The Wilmington Declaration
(C) The Camp David Declaration
(D) The Sydney Declaration
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The Wilmington Declaration
Q203. SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region), India’s maritime vision, focuses particularly on India’s engagement in which region?
(A) The South China Sea
(B) The Indian Ocean Region
(C) The Arctic Ocean
(D) The Pacific Rim exclusively
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The Indian Ocean Region
Q204. The Coffee Board of India, a statutory body established under the Coffee Act, 1942, is headquartered in:
(A) Chikkamagaluru, Karnataka
(B) Bengaluru, Karnataka
(C) Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu
(D) Kochi, Kerala
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Bengaluru, Karnataka
Q205. As per recent trade data, India ranks as the world’s _ largest coffee producer and _ largest coffee exporter.
(A) 3rd; 2nd
(B) 5th; 3rd
(C) 7th; 5th
(D) 10th; 8th
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 7th; 5th
Q206. E-Methanol, for which India’s first port-based plant broke ground at Deendayal Port Authority, Kandla, is produced by combining green hydrogen with:
(A) Captured carbon dioxide (CO₂)
(B) Natural gas
(C) Liquefied ammonia
(D) Sulphur dioxide
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Captured carbon dioxide (CO₂)
Q207. The Karnataka Legislature’s resolution against the 7th draft notification on the Western Ghats primarily opposes recommendations originally made by which committee?
(A) Madhav Gadgil Committee
(B) K. Kasturirangan Committee
(C) T.S.R. Subramanian Committee
(D) B.K. Chaturvedi Committee
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) K. Kasturirangan Committee
Q208. In Bilal v. State of NCT of Delhi, the Delhi High Court held that a marriage under Muslim personal law does NOT provide immunity from prosecution under the POCSO Act or BNS when:
(A) Both spouses are above 18 years of age
(B) The alleged sexual intercourse involves a minor wife
(C) The marriage was registered under the Special Marriage Act
(D) The husband is a first-time offender
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The alleged sexual intercourse involves a minor wife
Q209. Under the POCSO Act, 2012, a ‘child’ is defined as any person below the age of:
(A) 16 years
(B) 18 years
(C) 21 years
(D) 14 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 18 years
Q210. Section 42A of the POCSO Act provides that:
(A) State-specific personal laws override POCSO provisions
(B) The POCSO Act has an overriding effect where its provisions are inconsistent with those of other laws
(C) POCSO applies only to non-Muslim citizens
(D) Customary practices automatically supersede POCSO in cases of child marriage
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The POCSO Act has an overriding effect where its provisions are inconsistent with those of other laws
Q211. Section 29 of the POCSO Act creates a statutory presumption regarding the commission of specified offences, which:
(A) Cannot be rebutted under any circumstances
(B) Operates unless the contrary is proved
(C) Applies only in cases involving female victims
(D) Requires the prosecution to prove guilt beyond reasonable doubt without any presumption
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Operates unless the contrary is proved
Q212. As per the UN report on sea-level rise and human rights cited alongside the UNGA’s first declaration on sea-level rise, approximately how many people worldwide live less than five metres above the high-tide line?
(A) 77 million
(B) 270 million
(C) 500 million
(D) 770 million
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) 770 million
Q213. The UNGA’s first declaration on sea-level rise affirms that small island nations facing territorial submergence:
(A) Automatically lose their statehood once their territory is submerged
(B) Do not automatically lose their statehood if rising sea levels submerge their territory
(C) Must merge with a neighbouring larger state
(D) Retain statehood only if recognised individually by the UN Security Council
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Do not automatically lose their statehood if rising sea levels submerge their territory
Q214. The declaration on sea-level rise refers to the Malé Declaration of 1989, which addressed:
(A) Global warming and sea-level rise
(B) Nuclear non-proliferation in the Indian Ocean
(C) Maritime piracy in the Arabian Sea
(D) Fisheries management in the Pacific
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Global warming and sea-level rise
Q215. Under the IAU’s 2006 Resolution 5A, which of the following is NOT one of the three criteria for a celestial body to be classified as a planet?
(A) It must orbit the Sun
(B) It must have sufficient mass to be approximately spherical
(C) It must have cleared the neighbourhood around its orbit
(D) It must possess at least one natural satellite
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) It must possess at least one natural satellite
Q216. Pluto was reclassified as a dwarf planet primarily because it failed to satisfy which of the IAU’s three planetary criteria?
(A) It does not orbit the Sun
(B) It is not approximately spherical in shape
(C) It has not cleared its orbital neighbourhood of other objects
(D) It does not have sufficient mass
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) It has not cleared its orbital neighbourhood of other objects
Q217. NASA’s New Horizons spacecraft, the only mission to have conducted a close-up exploration of Pluto, flew past it in which year?
(A) 2006
(B) 2012
(C) 2015
(D) 2020
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2015
Q218. Charon, Pluto’s largest moon, is notable because:
(A) It is larger than Pluto itself
(B) It is approximately half the size of Pluto, leading the pair to be described as a ‘double planet’ system
(C) It has no gravitational interaction with Pluto
(D) It was discovered before Pluto itself
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) It is approximately half the size of Pluto, leading the pair to be described as a ‘double planet’ system
Q219. The 15th United Nations Congress on Crime Prevention and Criminal Justice, held in Abu Dhabi, adopted the Abu Dhabi Declaration under the theme:
(A) Building Resilient Justice Systems for a Digital World
(B) Protecting People and Planet in the Digital Age
(C) Global Solidarity Against Organised Crime
(D) Rule of Law in the Age of Artificial Intelligence
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Protecting People and Planet in the Digital Age
Q220. Which UN body serves as the secretariat of the UN Congress on Crime Prevention and Criminal Justice and supports implementation of the Abu Dhabi Declaration?
(A) United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC)
(B) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
(C) Interpol
(D) United Nations Human Rights Council
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC)
Q221. The Abu Dhabi Declaration draws attention to emerging criminal-network models described as ‘Crime as a Service’ and:
(A) Terrorism as a Service
(B) Violence as a Service
(C) Surveillance as a Service
(D) Espionage as a Service
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Violence as a Service
Q222. Under the Indian Ports Act, 2025, a Bulk Port qualifies for Mega Port status upon reaching an annual cargo throughput of:
(A) 50 MMT
(B) 100 MMT
(C) 150 MMT
(D) 250 MMT
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 150 MMT
Q223. Under the same framework, a Container Port qualifies for Mega Port status upon handling an annual throughput of:
(A) 2.5 million TEUs
(B) 5 million TEUs
(C) 7.5 million TEUs
(D) 10 million TEUs
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 7.5 million TEUs
Q224. Among the four ports notified as India’s first Mega Ports, which is the only one located on India’s eastern coast?
(A) Deendayal Port (Kandla)
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru Port (Nhava Sheva)
(C) Paradip Port
(D) Mundra Port
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Paradip Port
Q225. Among the four notified Mega Ports, which is the only non-major port, illustrating that Mega Port status is distinct from the Major/Non-major Port classification?
(A) Deendayal Port (Kandla)
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru Port (Nhava Sheva)
(C) Paradip Port
(D) Mundra Port
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Mundra Port
Q226. Mega Port designation under the Indian Ports Act, 2025, remains valid for:
(A) 2 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 10 years
(D) Indefinitely, once granted
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 5 years
Q227. The Travel & Tourism Development Index (TTDI) 2026, published by the World Economic Forum, was originally introduced in 2007 under which earlier name?
(A) Global Tourism Competitiveness Report
(B) Travel & Tourism Competitiveness Index (TTCI)
(C) World Tourism Resilience Index
(D) Sustainable Tourism Benchmark Index
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Travel & Tourism Competitiveness Index (TTCI)
Q228. According to TTDI 2026, which country topped the global ranking in the index’s 10th edition?
(A) United States
(B) Spain
(C) Japan
(D) Australia
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Japan
Q229. As per TTDI 2026, which country was the notable exception among the top 10 ranked economies, being an emerging rather than advanced economy?
(A) India
(B) Brazil
(C) China
(D) Indonesia
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) China
Q230. India’s rank in the TTDI 2026 improved to 31st from a previous rank of:
(A) 35th
(B) 39th
(C) 45th
(D) 54th
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 39th
Q231. India’s first LNG-powered train, using an LNG-diesel dual-fuel system, was launched on which route?
(A) Delhi-Agra
(B) Sabarmati-Mahesana
(C) Mumbai-Pune
(D) Chennai-Bengaluru
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Sabarmati-Mahesana
Q232. As per the technology used in India’s first LNG-powered train, LNG is expected to replace approximately what proportion of diesel consumption?
(A) 10%
(B) 25%
(C) 40%
(D) 75%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 40%
Q233. With reference to the distinction between LNG-powered and hydrogen-powered trains in India, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Both use identical fuel-cell technology
(B) The LNG train uses a dual-fuel internal-combustion engine, while the hydrogen train uses a hydrogen fuel-cell system producing water vapour as a by-product
(C) The hydrogen train’s first route is Sabarmati-Mahesana
(D) The LNG train produces water vapour as its only emission
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Correct Answer: (B) The LNG train uses a dual-fuel internal-combustion engine, while the hydrogen train uses a hydrogen fuel-cell system producing water vapour as a by-product
Q234. The Subansiri River, for which the Subansiri Upper Hydroelectric Project has received environmental-clearance recommendation, is best described as:
(A) A left-bank tributary of the Ganga originating in Nepal
(B) The largest right-bank tributary of the Brahmaputra, originating in Tibet
(C) A tributary of the Indus originating in Ladakh
(D) The main stem of the Brahmaputra River
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Correct Answer: (B) The largest right-bank tributary of the Brahmaputra, originating in Tibet
Q235. The Subansiri River is popularly referred to as the ‘Gold River’ because:
(A) It flows through gold-mining regions of Assam
(B) Gold dust has reportedly been found in its waters
(C) Its waters appear golden due to sediment deposits at sunset
(D) It was historically used to transport gold from Tibet
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Correct Answer: (B) Gold dust has reportedly been found in its waters
Q236. World Tourism Day, observed on 27 September under the theme ‘Digital Agenda and Artificial Intelligence to Redesign Tourism’ in 2026, marks the anniversary of:
(A) The founding of the United Nations
(B) The adoption of the UNWTO Statutes in 1970
(C) The signing of the Paris Agreement
(D) The launch of the first commercial airline
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Correct Answer: (B) The adoption of the UNWTO Statutes in 1970
Q237. Exercise KAZIND, the India-Kazakhstan joint military exercise whose 9th edition is being conducted at Oskemen, Kazakhstan, was originally instituted in 2016 under which name?
(A) Exercise Kazakh Shakti
(B) Exercise Prabal Dostyk
(C) Exercise Steppe Eagle
(D) Exercise Central Asia Bond
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Exercise Prabal Dostyk
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