Find the current affairs quiz 25 September 2026 by Exam Charcha.
Staying updated with current events is crucial, and this quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the latest happenings. The 25 September 2026 current affairs quiz covers the key events, news, and developments from this day.
Each question comes with multiple choices, and the correct answer is provided to help you learn. Whether you’re preparing for competitive exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz is a great way to assess your awareness of current affairs.
Current Affairs Quiz – 25 September 2026 (Test Now)
Q1. Form 6, at the centre of the recent electoral-roll governance controversy, is the statutory application form used for:
(A) Deletion of a deceased voter’s name from the electoral roll
(B) Inclusion of an eligible citizen’s name in the electoral roll as a new voter
(C) Transfer of a voter’s registration between constituencies
(D) Filing objections against a candidate’s nomination
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Inclusion of an eligible citizen’s name in the electoral roll as a new voter
Q2. Under the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners Act, 2023, where the CEC and Election Commissioners differ in opinion on a matter, the issue is decided by:
(A) The CEC’s decision, which is treated as final and binding
(B) Majority opinion among the Commission members
(C) Reference to the President of India
(D) Reference to the Supreme Court in every instance
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Majority opinion among the Commission members
Q3. T.N. Seshan v. Union of India (1995) is significant in Election Commission jurisprudence primarily because it:
(A) Established that the CEC is hierarchically superior to other Election Commissioners
(B) Upheld the institutional framework emphasising the collective character of the Commission, rather than CEC supremacy
(C) Struck down the multi-member structure of the Election Commission
(D) Transferred electoral-roll preparation entirely to the judiciary
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Upheld the institutional framework emphasising the collective character of the Commission, rather than CEC supremacy
Q4. Under the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners Act, 2023, which of the following statements regarding removal protections is correct?
(A) Both the CEC and other Election Commissioners can be removed only in the manner applicable to a Supreme Court judge
(B) The CEC can be removed only in the manner applicable to a Supreme Court judge, while an Election Commissioner cannot be removed except on the CEC’s recommendation
(C) Election Commissioners can be removed by a simple Cabinet resolution
(D) Neither the CEC nor Election Commissioners enjoy any removal protection
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The CEC can be removed only in the manner applicable to a Supreme Court judge, while an Election Commissioner cannot be removed except on the CEC’s recommendation
Q5. As per the recently revived demand, Uttar Pradesh Minister Om Prakash Rajbhar proposed dividing the state into four parts, including Purvanchal, Madhyanchal, Bundelkhand and:
(A) Awadh Pradesh
(B) Harit Pradesh
(C) Rohilkhand
(D) Braj Pradesh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Harit Pradesh
Q6. Under Article 3 of the Constitution, a Bill to form a new State can be introduced in Parliament only on:
(A) The recommendation of the Supreme Court
(B) The recommendation of the President
(C) A resolution passed by the concerned State Legislature
(D) The recommendation of the Election Commission
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The recommendation of the President
Q7. With reference to the State Legislature’s role under Article 3, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) The State Legislature’s consent is constitutionally mandatory before Parliament can reorganise the State
(B) The State Legislature’s views must be sought, but they are consultative and not binding on Parliament
(C) State Legislatures have no role whatsoever in the reorganisation process
(D) Only the Rajya Sabha can refer reorganisation Bills to State Legislatures
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The State Legislature’s views must be sought, but they are consultative and not binding on Parliament
Q8. In Babulal Parate v. State of Bombay, the Supreme Court held that:
(A) Every parliamentary amendment to a State reorganisation Bill requires a fresh reference to the State Legislature
(B) A fresh reference to the State Legislature is not required merely because Parliament subsequently modifies the Bill’s proposal
(C) State reorganisation Bills cannot be amended after introduction
(D) The President cannot recommend more than one reorganisation Bill per year
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A fresh reference to the State Legislature is not required merely because Parliament subsequently modifies the Bill’s proposal
Q9. The States Reorganisation Commission (1955) is best known for having:
(A) Endorsed ‘one language, one State’ as the sole organising principle
(B) Rejected the simplistic ‘one language, one State’ principle, favouring a balance of linguistic, administrative and national-unity considerations
(C) Recommended abolishing States altogether in favour of Union Territories
(D) Proposed making State consent mandatory under Article 3
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Rejected the simplistic ‘one language, one State’ principle, favouring a balance of linguistic, administrative and national-unity considerations
Q10. The Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC), headquartered in Jeddah, Saudi Arabia, was established following the Rabat Summit in 1969, in the aftermath of:
(A) The 1967 Arab-Israeli War
(B) An arson attack on the Al-Aqsa Mosque in Jerusalem
(C) The Iranian Revolution
(D) The Suez Canal Crisis
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) An arson attack on the Al-Aqsa Mosque in Jerusalem
Q11. With reference to India’s relationship with the OIC, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) India is a full member of the OIC
(B) India is an observer state of the OIC
(C) India is neither a member nor an observer, though it was invited as a Guest of Honour at a 2019 OIC ministerial meeting
(D) India withdrew its OIC membership in 2019
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) India is neither a member nor an observer, though it was invited as a Guest of Honour at a 2019 OIC ministerial meeting
Q12. The OIC’s highest policy-making body, providing broad political direction to the organisation, is the:
(A) General Secretariat
(B) Council of Foreign Ministers
(C) Islamic Summit of Heads of State and Government
(D) OIC Contact Group
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Islamic Summit of Heads of State and Government
Q13. As per the Planetary Health Check 2026 report, released by the Planetary Boundaries Science Lab at the Potsdam Institute for Climate Impact Research, how many of the nine planetary boundaries have been transgressed?
(A) 4 of 9
(B) 5 of 9
(C) 6 of 9
(D) 7 of 9
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) 7 of 9
Q14. The Planetary Boundaries framework, originally introduced in 2009, was led by which scientist?
(A) James Hansen
(B) Johan Rockström
(C) Will Steffen
(D) Paul Crutzen
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Johan Rockström
Q15. Within the Planetary Boundaries framework, ‘Novel Entities’ primarily refers to:
(A) Newly discovered species of flora and fauna
(B) Substances and materials introduced into the Earth system through human activity, such as plastics, synthetic chemicals and GMOs
(C) New renewable-energy technologies
(D) Recently formed geological structures
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Substances and materials introduced into the Earth system through human activity, such as plastics, synthetic chemicals and GMOs
Q16. Within the Planetary Boundaries framework, the distinction between ‘blue water’ and ‘green water’ under the Freshwater Change boundary refers to:
(A) Water in rivers/lakes/reservoirs versus water stored in soil and available to plants
(B) Drinking water versus industrial water
(C) Groundwater versus rainwater
(D) Saline water versus freshwater
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Water in rivers/lakes/reservoirs versus water stored in soil and available to plants
Q17. The International Mobile Equipment Identity (IMEI), a unique identification number assigned to a mobile device, consists of how many digits?
(A) 10 digits
(B) 12 digits
(C) 15 digits
(D) 20 digits
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 15 digits
Q18. Within the IMEI structure, the first eight digits, which identify the model or type of a mobile device, constitute the:
(A) Serial Number Block (SNB)
(B) Type Allocation Code (TAC)
(C) Software Version Number (SVN)
(D) Global Device Identifier (GDI)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Type Allocation Code (TAC)
Q19. The Device Setu-Indian Counterfeited Device Restriction (ICDR) portal is used in India primarily to:
(A) Register IMEI numbers of devices manufactured or imported into India
(B) Process telecom subscriber SIM applications
(C) Track international roaming charges
(D) Certify mobile network towers
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Register IMEI numbers of devices manufactured or imported into India
Q20. India’s first blue bond is planned to be issued by which entity?
(A) National Housing Bank
(B) Sagarmala Finance Corporation Limited (SMFCL)
(C) Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA)
(D) Power Finance Corporation (PFC)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Sagarmala Finance Corporation Limited (SMFCL)
Q21. SMFCL, described as India’s first NBFC dedicated to the maritime sector, functions as:
(A) A privately owned investment bank
(B) A Mini Ratna Category-I Central Public Sector Enterprise, fully owned by the Government of India
(C) A joint venture between India and Seychelles
(D) An autonomous body under the Reserve Bank of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A Mini Ratna Category-I Central Public Sector Enterprise, fully owned by the Government of India
Q22. The world’s first sovereign blue bond was issued in 2018 by:
(A) Mauritius
(B) Seychelles
(C) Maldives
(D) Fiji
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Seychelles
Q23. At the G20 Energy Abundance Ministerial Meeting in Houston, the Household Energy Access consensus outcome specifically recognises which fuel as a scalable transition option from traditional biomass-based cooking?
(A) Natural gas
(B) LPG
(C) Compressed biogas
(D) Ethanol
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) LPG
Q24. The Household Energy Access outcome at the G20 Houston meeting is aligned with which Indian scheme aimed at expanding access to clean cooking fuel?
(A) Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY)
(B) Ujjwala Plus Scheme
(C) PM Garib Kalyan Yojana
(D) Saubhagya Scheme
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY)
Q25. The four consensus outcomes adopted at the G20 Energy Abundance Ministerial Meeting were characterised as being:
(A) Legally binding on all G20 members
(B) Voluntary and non-binding, while respecting national sovereignty over natural resources
(C) Enforceable through WTO dispute mechanisms
(D) Applicable only to OECD member countries
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Voluntary and non-binding, while respecting national sovereignty over natural resources
Q26. The Global Cities Index 2026, released by Oxford Economics, assesses urban economies using 27 indicators across five broad categories. Which category carries the HIGHEST weightage?
(A) Human Capital (25%)
(B) Quality of Life (25%)
(C) Economics (30%)
(D) Governance (10%)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Economics (30%)
Q27. Which city retained the top position in the Global Cities Index 2026?
(A) London, UK
(B) Paris, France
(C) New York, USA
(D) Tokyo, Japan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) New York, USA
Q28. As per the Global Cities Index 2026, which Indian city recorded the highest (best) global rank among Delhi, Bengaluru and Mumbai?
(A) Delhi (rank 268)
(B) Bengaluru (rank 311)
(C) Mumbai (rank 330)
(D) All three were ranked equally
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Delhi (rank 268)
Q29. The Ghost Flower Orchid (Gastrodia keyiensis), recently discovered in Keyi Panyor district of Arunachal Pradesh, is called ‘Oram Opuh’ by the Nyishi community, a name that reflects:
(A) Its bright, luminous flower colour
(B) Its unusual life cycle of remaining underground for most of its life and flowering only briefly above ground
(C) Its association with local funeral rites
(D) Its extremely tall growth habit
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Its unusual life cycle of remaining underground for most of its life and flowering only briefly above ground
Q30. The 18th edition of Exercise Nomadic Elephant, the India-Mongolia joint military exercise, was conducted in Pithoragarh, Uttarakhand, with the previous edition having been held in:
(A) New Delhi, India
(B) Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia
(C) Leh, India
(D) Irkutsk, Russia
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia
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25 September 2026 Current Affairs