Practice the September 2026 Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the second week of August 2026.
The Current Affairs Quiz of 8 to 14 September features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.
2nd Week of September 2026: Current Affairs Quiz
Q1. As per the recent clarification by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA), which of the following statements regarding the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006 is correct?
(A) The FRA explicitly mandates 100% Gram Sabha consent for Stage-II forest clearance
(B) The FRA does not expressly prescribe obtaining Gram Sabha consent for Stage-II forest clearance for diversion of forest land
(C) The FRA abolishes the role of Gram Sabhas in forest-rights matters altogether
(D) The FRA applies only to forests located within Fifth Schedule Areas
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The FRA does not expressly prescribe obtaining Gram Sabha consent for Stage-II forest clearance for diversion of forest land
Q2. Which of the following is NOT among the key objectives of the Forest Rights Act, 2006?
(A) Recognition of Community Forest Resource (CFR) rights
(B) Habitat rights for Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)
(C) Transfer of ownership of all forest land to State Forest Departments
(D) Protection against arbitrary eviction of forest-dwelling communities
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Transfer of ownership of all forest land to State Forest Departments
Q3. The Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA) extends the Panchayati Raj framework under Part IX of the Constitution to:
(A) All rural areas of India uniformly
(B) Fifth Schedule Scheduled Areas
(C) Sixth Schedule Areas only
(D) Union Territories only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Fifth Schedule Scheduled Areas
Q4. Consider the following statements comparing FRA, 2006 and PESA, 1996:
1.FRA primarily focuses on recognition of forest rights, while PESA focuses on tribal self-governance.
2.Both Acts assign an important institutional role to the Gram Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Q5. India’s Flexible Inflation Targeting (FIT) framework, introduced in 2016, derives its statutory basis from which provision of the RBI Act, 1934?
(A) Section 21
(B) Section 45ZA
(C) Section 17
(D) Section 58
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Section 45ZA
Q6. The Expert Committee whose recommendations led to India’s adoption of Flexible Inflation Targeting was chaired by:
(A) Raghuram Rajan
(B) Urjit Patel
(C) Y.V. Reddy
(D) Bimal Jalan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Urjit Patel
Q7. With reference to India’s inflation-targeting framework, which index is used as the principal measure for assessing price stability?
(A) Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
(B) Consumer Price Index (CPI)
(C) GDP Deflator
(D) Producer Price Index (PPI)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Consumer Price Index (CPI)
Q8. Recent assessments of India’s inflation-targeting framework note that the Phillips Curve has remained relatively flat, implying that:
(A) Changes in output or employment produce a strong and immediate change in inflation
(B) Changes in output or employment produce only a limited corresponding change in inflation
(C) Inflation is entirely unrelated to monetary policy
(D) The RBI has no role in influencing aggregate demand
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Changes in output or employment produce only a limited corresponding change in inflation
Q9. A key concern regarding inflation targeting in India is that inflation is frequently driven by which of the following factors, limiting the effectiveness of interest-rate-based tools?
(A) Excessive aggregate demand alone
(B) Supply-side disturbances such as food-price volatility and weather-related disruptions
(C) Excessive household savings
(D) Overvaluation of the rupee
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Supply-side disturbances such as food-price volatility and weather-related disruptions
Q10. The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) recently crossed which cumulative disbursement milestone under India’s Access and Benefit-Sharing (ABS) framework?
(A) ₹50 crore
(B) ₹100 crore
(C) ₹200 crore
(D) ₹500 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) ₹200 crore
Q11. The Biological Diversity Act, 2002 was enacted primarily to implement India’s obligations under which international agreement?
(A) Ramsar Convention
(B) Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), 1992
(C) Kyoto Protocol
(D) Basel Convention
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), 1992
Q12. Under the three-tier biodiversity governance structure in India, which institution functions at the grassroots level and is associated with People’s Biodiversity Registers (PBRs)?
(A) National Biodiversity Authority (NBA)
(B) State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs)
(C) Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs)
(D) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs)
Q13. The Nagoya Protocol, which supplements the Convention on Biological Diversity by providing an international framework for Access and Benefit-Sharing, was adopted in which year and entered into force in which year respectively?
(A) Adopted 2002, entered into force 2010
(B) Adopted 2010, entered into force 2014
(C) Adopted 1992, entered into force 2000
(D) Adopted 2014, entered into force 2018
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Adopted 2010, entered into force 2014
Q14. With reference to the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (KMGBF), adopted at CBD COP15, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) It provides 23 global targets for 2030 and four long-term goals for 2050
(B) It replaces the Convention on Biological Diversity entirely
(C) It was adopted in Nagoya, Japan
(D) It contains no provisions relating to Access and Benefit-Sharing
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) It provides 23 global targets for 2030 and four long-term goals for 2050
Q15. The systematic archaeological excavation at Rajghat, Varanasi, which helped establish the antiquity and cultural sequence of the settlement, was first conducted in 1940 by:
(A) Mortimer Wheeler
(B) Krishna Deva
(C) B.B. Lal
(D) Alexander Cunningham
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Krishna Deva
Q16. Based on the archaeological sequence at Rajghat, particularly the pre-Northern Black Polished Ware (pre-NBPW) layer, the beginnings of the settlement have been placed around:
(A) 3000 BCE
(B) 1500 BCE
(C) 800 BCE
(D) 300 BCE
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 800 BCE
Q17. Northern Black Polished Ware (NBPW), found at sites like Rajghat, is generally regarded as an important archaeological marker associated with:
(A) The Harappan urban phase
(B) The period of second urbanisation in the Gangetic plains
(C) The Mesolithic period
(D) The early colonial period
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The period of second urbanisation in the Gangetic plains
Q18. By around the 6th century BCE, Kashi was recognised as one of the sixteen territorial political units mentioned in early Buddhist and Jain traditions, known as:
(A) Janapadas
(B) Mahajanapadas
(C) Sabhas
(D) Samitis
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Mahajanapadas
Q19. The Mercator projection, developed in 1569, was primarily designed to preserve which property, making it useful for maritime navigation?
(A) Relative area of landmasses
(B) Direction and angles
(C) Distance between all points
(D) Population distribution
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Direction and angles
Q20. The major limitation of the Mercator projection, frequently illustrated by the comparison of Greenland and Africa, is:
(A) It distorts direction but preserves area accurately
(B) It exaggerates the apparent size of regions near the poles while understating equatorial regions
(C) It cannot be used for any navigational purposes
(D) It represents the Earth as a perfect sphere without distortion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) It exaggerates the apparent size of regions near the poles while understating equatorial regions
Q21. The Equal Earth projection, introduced in 2018 as an alternative to the Mercator projection, is best described as:
(A) A projection that preserves angles and directions perfectly
(B) An equal-area projection that more accurately represents relative continental sizes
(C) A projection used exclusively for maritime navigation
(D) A three-dimensional globe representation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) An equal-area projection that more accurately represents relative continental sizes
Q22. With reference to the recent UN General Assembly debate on promoting the Equal Earth projection, which country introduced the proposal, and what was India’s voting position?
(A) Nigeria introduced it; India abstained
(B) Togo introduced it; India voted in favour
(C) South Africa introduced it; India voted against
(D) Kenya introduced it; India abstained
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Togo introduced it; India voted in favour
Q23. The Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP), launched in 2023, primarily aims to promote comprehensive socio-economic development of villages located:
(A) In coastal metropolitan regions
(B) Along India’s international land borders
(C) In central Indian tribal belts only
(D) In state capital regions
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Along India’s international land borders
Q24. Under the Vibrant Villages Programme, development activities at the local level are implemented through:
(A) District Master Plans
(B) Village Action Plans (VAPs)
(C) State Infrastructure Blueprints
(D) Panchayat Development Charters
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Village Action Plans (VAPs)
Q25. With reference to the two phases of the Vibrant Villages Programme, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) VVP-I focuses on northern border villages and is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, while VVP-II is a fully Centre-funded Central Sector Scheme covering other land borders
(B) VVP-I and VVP-II are identical in funding pattern and geographic focus
(C) VVP-I is fully funded by States, while VVP-II is funded by the Centre
(D) VVP-II precedes VVP-I in implementation and covers only northern borders
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) VVP-I focuses on northern border villages and is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, while VVP-II is a fully Centre-funded Central Sector Scheme covering other land borders
Q26. Which ministry serves as the nodal ministry for coordinating implementation of the Vibrant Villages Programme with State Governments and border guarding forces?
(A) Ministry of Rural Development
(B) Ministry of Home Affairs
(C) Ministry of External Affairs
(D) Ministry of Defence
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Ministry of Home Affairs
Q27. The National Commission for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK) was established under an Act enacted in which year, and currently functions as what type of body?
(A) 1993 Act; currently a statutory body
(B) 1993 Act; currently a non-statutory body under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
(C) 2013 Act; currently a constitutional body
(D) 1994 Act; currently an autonomous financial institution
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 1993 Act; currently a non-statutory body under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
Q28. Which of the following is NOT a function of the National Commission for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK)?
(A) Monitoring implementation of welfare and rehabilitation measures for Safai Karamcharis
(B) Taking suo motu cognisance of non-implementation of welfare policies
(C) Setting monetary policy targets for the Reserve Bank of India
(D) Investigating grievances relating to working conditions and safety of Safai Karamcharis
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Setting monetary policy targets for the Reserve Bank of India
Q29. The Union Home Minister’s roadmap for a drug-free India envisages achieving this goal by which year, as a medium-term milestone within the broader objective of a Drug-Free India by 2047?
(A) 2027
(B) 2029
(C) 2035
(D) 2040
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 2029
Q30. The National Coordination Committee for Countering Drug Trafficking (NCORD), established in 2019, primarily functions as:
(A) A judicial body for adjudicating narcotics-related cases
(B) A multi-level coordination mechanism among agencies at the national, state and district levels
(C) An international treaty body under the United Nations
(D) A financial regulator overseeing drug-related asset seizures
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A multi-level coordination mechanism among agencies at the national, state and district levels
Q31. A ‘rhumb line’, a concept closely associated with the Mercator projection, refers to a path on the Earth’s surface that:
(A) Follows the shortest possible distance between two points
(B) Intersects successive meridians at a constant angle
(C) Always runs parallel to the Equator
(D) Represents the boundary of a country’s territorial waters
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Intersects successive meridians at a constant angle
Q32. With reference to the Equal Earth projection, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) It was introduced in 2018 and, compared with the Gall-Peters projection, seeks to reduce severe distortions in continental shapes
(B) It perfectly preserves area, shape, distance and direction simultaneously
(C) It was designed primarily for maritime navigation, like the Mercator projection
(D) It eliminates all polar distortion entirely
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) It was introduced in 2018 and, compared with the Gall-Peters projection, seeks to reduce severe distortions in continental shapes
Q33. Under Section 6 of the Forest Rights Act, 2006, which body initiates the process for determining the nature and extent of individual and community forest rights?
(A) District Collector
(B) State Forest Department
(C) Gram Sabha
(D) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Gram Sabha
Q34. In Orissa Mining Corporation v. Ministry of Environment & Forests (2013) — the Niyamgiri case — the Supreme Court significantly strengthened the role of:
(A) State Pollution Control Boards in granting environmental clearances
(B) Gram Sabhas in determining claims relating to the religious and cultural rights of tribal communities
(C) The National Green Tribunal in mining-related disputes
(D) District Magistrates in land-acquisition proceedings
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Gram Sabhas in determining claims relating to the religious and cultural rights of tribal communities
Q35. The Supreme Court’s judgment in Samatha v. State of Andhra Pradesh (1997) primarily placed restrictions on:
(A) The transfer of land in Scheduled Areas to non-tribal interests
(B) The retirement age of High Court judges
(C) The use of the Mercator projection in school textbooks
(D) The appointment process for members of the National Biodiversity Authority
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) The transfer of land in Scheduled Areas to non-tribal interests
Q36. Under Article 124(4) of the Constitution, a Supreme Court judge can be removed only on the ground of:
(A) Adverse performance appraisal by the Chief Justice of India
(B) Proved misbehaviour or incapacity, through a parliamentary process followed by a presidential order
(C) A simple majority resolution in the Rajya Sabha alone
(D) An executive order of the Union Cabinet
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Proved misbehaviour or incapacity, through a parliamentary process followed by a presidential order
Q37. The ‘Uncle Judge’ phenomenon, examined in the Law Commission of India’s 230th Report, refers to concerns regarding:
(A) Judges being appointed at a very young age
(B) Situations where judges have close relatives practising as lawyers in the same court
(C) Excessive workload among senior judges
(D) The mandatory retirement age of judicial officers
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Situations where judges have close relatives practising as lawyers in the same court
Q38. The Judicial Standards and Accountability Bill, which sought to create a comprehensive statutory framework for judicial accountability, was passed by the Lok Sabha in 2012 but:
(A) Was subsequently enacted into law in 2015
(B) Was struck down by the Supreme Court as unconstitutional
(C) Lapsed in 2014 without becoming law
(D) Was withdrawn immediately after passage
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Lapsed in 2014 without becoming law
Q39. As per India’s Flexible Inflation Targeting framework, if inflation remains outside the prescribed tolerance band for three consecutive quarters, the RBI is statutorily required (under Section 45ZN) to report to the Central Government on all of the following EXCEPT:
(A) Reasons for the inflation breach
(B) Corrective measures being undertaken
(C) The estimated period required to bring inflation back within target
(D) A recommendation for the dissolution of the Monetary Policy Committee
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) A recommendation for the dissolution of the Monetary Policy Committee
Q40. Under India’s inflation-targeting framework, the CPI-Combined inflation target and its tolerance band are set at:
(A) 3% with a band of ±1 percentage point
(B) 4% with a band of ±2 percentage points
(C) 5% with a band of ±3 percentage points
(D) 6% with a band of ±1 percentage point
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 4% with a band of ±2 percentage points
Q41. With reference to the New Keynesian Phillips Curve (NKPC), current inflation is understood to be influenced by:
(A) Only the current unemployment rate
(B) Expected future inflation, economic slack, and marginal costs
(C) Exclusively the exchange rate of the domestic currency
(D) Only the fiscal deficit of the government
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Expected future inflation, economic slack, and marginal costs
Q42. The Green Climate Fund (GCF), the largest dedicated multilateral climate fund, was established in 2010 as an operating entity of the financial mechanism of which international framework?
(A) Montreal Protocol
(B) UNFCCC
(C) Convention on Biological Diversity
(D) Basel Convention
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) UNFCCC
Q43. The Green Climate Fund’s headquarters is located in:
(A) Geneva, Switzerland
(B) Bonn, Germany
(C) Songdo, Incheon, Republic of Korea
(D) Nairobi, Kenya
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Songdo, Incheon, Republic of Korea
Q44. A Glacial Lake Outburst Flood (GLOF), a risk highlighted in the context of the GCF’s delayed clearance of Nepal’s climate-resilience proposal, refers to:
(A) A gradual and predictable seasonal rise in glacier-fed river levels
(B) A sudden and potentially destructive release of water from a glacial lake
(C) A permanent reduction in glacial lake volume due to evaporation
(D) A man-made flood caused by dam mismanagement only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A sudden and potentially destructive release of water from a glacial lake
Q45. The Variable Rate Reverse Repo (VRRR), recently used by the RBI to absorb surplus banking-system liquidity, is best described as:
(A) A facility through which the RBI injects liquidity into the banking system during a shortage
(B) An auction-based instrument under the Liquidity Adjustment Facility through which the RBI absorbs surplus liquidity at a market-determined rate
(C) A fixed-rate standing facility accessible only to NBFCs
(D) A long-term bond issued by the Government of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) An auction-based instrument under the Liquidity Adjustment Facility through which the RBI absorbs surplus liquidity at a market-determined rate
Q46. The Weighted Average Call Rate (WACR), which serves as the RBI’s operating target for monetary policy, refers to the average rate at which:
(A) The RBI lends to the Government of India
(B) Banks lend to and borrow from one another in the overnight call-money market
(C) Retail customers borrow personal loans from banks
(D) The RBI purchases foreign currency in the spot market
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Banks lend to and borrow from one another in the overnight call-money market
Q47. Under ECLGS 5.0, what is the extent of government guarantee coverage provided for eligible MSME borrowers?
(A) 50% of eligible default
(B) 75% of eligible default
(C) 90% of eligible default
(D) 100% of eligible default
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) 100% of eligible default
Q48. Which institution is responsible for implementing the Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS), functioning under the Department of Financial Services?
(A) Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)
(B) National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Limited (NCGTC)
(C) Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE)
(D) Export Credit Guarantee Corporation (ECGC)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Limited (NCGTC)
Q49. Under ECLGS 5.0, the maximum repayment tenure and moratorium period prescribed for the airline sector are respectively:
(A) 5 years tenure, 1 year moratorium
(B) 7 years tenure, 2 years moratorium
(C) 3 years tenure, 6 months moratorium
(D) 10 years tenure, 3 years moratorium
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 7 years tenure, 2 years moratorium
Q50. The Gollala Gudi Temple, recently recognised by the ASI as a Monument of National Importance, is situated near which UNESCO World Heritage Site in Telangana?
(A) Charminar
(B) Golconda Fort
(C) Ramappa Temple
(D) Qutb Shahi Tombs
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Ramappa Temple
Q51. The Gollala Gudi Temple’s ‘Trikutalaya’ plan and its distinctive foundation technique are associated with which medieval dynasty?
(A) Chalukya dynasty
(B) Kakatiya dynasty
(C) Rashtrakuta dynasty
(D) Vijayanagara dynasty
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Kakatiya dynasty
Q52. As per the Geothermal Atlas of India (2022) prepared by the Geological Survey of India, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) India’s total geothermal potential is estimated at around 100 GW
(B) The GSI mapped 381 hot springs across 10 geothermal provinces, with an estimated potential of around 10.6 GW
(C) India has no viable geothermal provinces suitable for power generation
(D) Puga in Ladakh is the only geothermal province identified in India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The GSI mapped 381 hot springs across 10 geothermal provinces, with an estimated potential of around 10.6 GW
Q53. Which type of geothermal power plant is most suitable for relatively lower-temperature geothermal resources, using a secondary working fluid with a lower boiling point to drive the turbine?
(A) Dry steam plant
(B) Flash steam plant
(C) Binary cycle plant
(D) Combined-cycle plant
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Binary cycle plant
Q54. The ONGC Energy Centre’s ‘Wells to Watts’ initiative, involving conversion of an abandoned oil/gas well into a geothermal-energy asset, is located at which field?
(A) Puga field, Ladakh
(B) Gandhar field, Ankleshwar, Gujarat
(C) Bakreshwar field, West Bengal
(D) Manikaran field, Himachal Pradesh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Gandhar field, Ankleshwar, Gujarat
Q55. China’s proposed mega hydropower project on the Yarlung Zangbo river, located near Medog County, is planned to have an approximate installed capacity of:
(A) 10 GW
(B) 25 GW
(C) 60 GW
(D) 120 GW
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 60 GW
Q56. The Yarlung Zangbo river is known by which name after it enters Arunachal Pradesh, before eventually being called the Brahmaputra in Assam?
(A) Teesta
(B) Siang/Dihang
(C) Subansiri
(D) Lohit
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Siang/Dihang
Q57. A major concern for India regarding China’s proposed Brahmaputra mega dam is that:
(A) India and China have a comprehensive, legally binding water-sharing treaty that fully addresses the issue
(B) India and China do not have a comprehensive, legally binding water-sharing treaty covering the Brahmaputra
(C) The Brahmaputra does not flow through any Indian state
(D) The project poses no seismic risk since Medog lies outside any active seismic zone
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) India and China do not have a comprehensive, legally binding water-sharing treaty covering the Brahmaputra
Q58. As per the Supreme Court’s 2026 direction in the All India Judges Association proceedings, the retirement age of district judicial officers in seven consenting States is being raised from:
(A) 58 to 60 years
(B) 60 to 62 years
(C) 62 to 65 years
(D) 60 to 65 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 60 to 62 years
Q59. Under Article 233 of the Constitution, District Judges are appointed by the Governor of the State:
(A) Without any consultation requirement
(B) In consultation with the High Court
(C) On the sole recommendation of the Chief Justice of India
(D) Through a direct examination conducted by the Union Public Service Commission alone
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) In consultation with the High Court
Q60. The Port of Antwerp-Bruges, highlighted as a potential gateway for Indian goods entering European markets, is Europe’s second-largest seaport after which port?
(A) Port of Hamburg
(B) Port of Rotterdam
(C) Port of Marseille
(D) Port of Piraeus
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Port of Rotterdam
Q61. The 2020 Reciprocal Provision of Supplies and Services Agreement (RPSS) between India and Japan primarily enables the armed forces of both countries to:
(A) Jointly manufacture nuclear submarines
(B) Access each other’s facilities for fuel, supplies, maintenance and logistical support
(C) Share intelligence on cyber warfare exclusively
(D) Conduct joint currency swap operations
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Access each other’s facilities for fuel, supplies, maintenance and logistical support
Q62. The 2026 Memorandum of Arrangement on Maritime Security between India and Japan primarily connects which two forces, with cooperation covering maritime domain awareness and search-and-rescue operations?
(A) Indian Coast Guard and Japan Coast Guard only
(B) Indian Navy and Japan Maritime Self-Defense Force
(C) Indian Army and Japan Ground Self-Defense Force
(D) Indian Air Force and Japan Air Self-Defense Force
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Indian Navy and Japan Maritime Self-Defense Force
Q63. The UNICORN programme, involving a formal co-development agreement signed in July 2026 between India and Japan, relates to:
(A) A joint fighter-jet development programme
(B) The Unified Complex Radio Antenna project
(C) A bilateral space-launch cooperation initiative
(D) A joint aircraft-carrier construction programme
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The Unified Complex Radio Antenna project
Q64. Under Article 217(1) of the Constitution, the President appoints the Chief Justice of a High Court after consultation with:
(A) Only the Prime Minister
(B) The Chief Justice of India and the Governor of the concerned State
(C) Only the State Legislative Assembly
(D) The Union Law Ministry alone, without any other consultation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The Chief Justice of India and the Governor of the concerned State
Q65. With reference to the Collegium’s recommendation process for appointing a High Court Chief Justice, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) The State Government’s views amount to a binding concurrence that can veto the Collegium’s recommendation
(B) State consultation does not confer a veto, since judicial primacy in appointments was established by the Second and Third Judges Cases
(C) The Governor alone makes the final appointment without reference to the Union Government
(D) High Court Chief Justices are always appointed from within their own parent High Court
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) State consultation does not confer a veto, since judicial primacy in appointments was established by the Second and Third Judges Cases
Q66. The Second Judges Case (1993) is significant in India’s judicial appointments framework primarily because it:
(A) Abolished the Collegium system entirely
(B) Reinterpreted the constitutional term ‘consultation’ to give primacy to the judiciary in judicial appointments
(C) Transferred appointment powers entirely to the Union Cabinet
(D) Fixed the retirement age of Supreme Court judges at 65 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Reinterpreted the constitutional term ‘consultation’ to give primacy to the judiciary in judicial appointments
Q67. A Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM), such as the one being introduced by the UK from January 2027, is primarily designed to:
(A) Subsidise the export of carbon-intensive goods
(B) Impose a carbon-related cost on certain imported goods based on their embedded greenhouse-gas emissions, to prevent carbon leakage
(C) Ban the import of all fossil-fuel-based products
(D) Provide tax exemptions to domestic carbon-intensive industries only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Impose a carbon-related cost on certain imported goods based on their embedded greenhouse-gas emissions, to prevent carbon leakage
Q68. India’s Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS) derives its statutory basis from which legislation?
(A) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
(B) Energy Conservation Act, 2001, through Section 14AA
(C) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
(D) Electricity Act, 2003
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Energy Conservation Act, 2001, through Section 14AA
Q69. Under India’s CCTS framework, for examination purposes, one Carbon Credit Certificate (CCC) is generally equivalent to:
(A) 1 kg of COâ‚‚ equivalent
(B) 1 tonne of COâ‚‚ equivalent
(C) 1,000 tonnes of COâ‚‚ equivalent
(D) 1 megatonne of COâ‚‚ equivalent
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 1 tonne of COâ‚‚ equivalent
Q70. NITI Aayog’s e-FAST India initiative, under which the Platform for Aggregating Clean Transport (PACT) has been launched, was started in 2022 in partnership with which organisation?
(A) International Energy Agency (IEA)
(B) World Resources Institute (WRI) India
(C) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
(D) Asian Development Bank (ADB)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) World Resources Institute (WRI) India
Q71. With reference to India’s road-freight sector, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Heavy-duty freight vehicles constitute around 3-4% of the registered vehicle fleet but account for more than one-third of transport-sector emissions
(B) Heavy-duty freight vehicles constitute the majority of India’s registered vehicle fleet
(C) Freight vehicles contribute negligibly to India’s transport-sector emissions
(D) Electric trucks currently dominate India’s freight transport sector
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Heavy-duty freight vehicles constitute around 3-4% of the registered vehicle fleet but account for more than one-third of transport-sector emissions
Q72. The Painted Haveli Towns of Shekhawati, recently included in UNESCO’s Tentative List, derive the region’s name from:
(A) Rao Jodha, founder of Jodhpur
(B) Rao Shekha, a chief of the Kachhwaha Rajputs of Amarsar
(C) Maharana Pratap of Mewar
(D) Raja Man Singh of Amber
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Rao Shekha, a chief of the Kachhwaha Rajputs of Amarsar
Q73. Inclusion of a cultural property on UNESCO’s Tentative List primarily signifies that:
(A) The site has already been formally inscribed on the World Heritage List
(B) The country considers the site to have potential Outstanding Universal Value and suitable for future World Heritage nomination
(C) The site has lost its heritage protection status
(D) UNESCO has rejected the site’s nomination permanently
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The country considers the site to have potential Outstanding Universal Value and suitable for future World Heritage nomination
Q74. The theme of the 9th Rashtriya Poshan Maah 2026, inaugurated in Varanasi, was:
(A) Poshan Bhi, Padhai Bhi
(B) Hamari Anganwadi Hamari Jimmedari
(C) Suposhit Bharat, Samarth Bharat
(D) Swasth Bharat, Samriddh Bharat
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Hamari Anganwadi Hamari Jimmedari
Q75. POSHAN Abhiyaan (National Nutrition Mission), under which Rashtriya Poshan Maah is observed, was launched in which year?
(A) 2014
(B) 2016
(C) 2018
(D) 2020
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2018
Q76. The International Day of Clean Air for Blue Skies, observed alongside the Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan Awards, falls on which date and was designated by the UN General Assembly in which year?
(A) 5 June; designated in 2015
(B) 7 September; designated in 2019
(C) 22 April; designated in 2009
(D) 16 September; designated in 2000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 7 September; designated in 2019
Q77. As per the 5th Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan Awards 2026, which city was ranked first in the ‘Million-plus population’ category?
(A) Indore
(B) Jabalpur
(C) Lucknow
(D) Rourkela
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Lucknow
Q78. The Financial Fraud Risk Indicator (FRI), which has helped prevent suspected cyber-fraud losses exceeding ₹5,000 crore since 2025, has been developed under which platform?
(A) RBI’s Central Fraud Registry
(B) Department of Telecommunications’ Digital Intelligence Platform (DIP)
(C) SEBI’s Integrated Surveillance System
(D) Ministry of Home Affairs’ CCTNS
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Department of Telecommunications’ Digital Intelligence Platform (DIP)
Q79. Under the FRI’s risk-classification framework, a transaction associated with a ‘Very High Risk’ mobile number typically results in:
(A) No action, since risk assessment is only advisory
(B) The transaction being declined or blocked at the point of initiation
(C) Automatic approval with a discount offer
(D) Referral to a consumer court for adjudication
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The transaction being declined or blocked at the point of initiation
Q80. International Literacy Day 2026 was observed under the theme ‘Literacy for people, the planet and prosperity’ and is closely aligned with which Sustainable Development Goal (SDG)?
(A) SDG 1 (No Poverty)
(B) SDG 3 (Good Health and Well-being)
(C) SDG 4 (Quality Education)
(D) SDG 13 (Climate Action)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) SDG 4 (Quality Education)
Q81. International Literacy Day, established by UNESCO, was first observed in which year?
(A) 1946
(B) 1966
(C) 1967
(D) 2000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 1967
Q82. The President’s Colour (Rashtrapati’s Colour/Nishaan), recently conferred on the Goa Police, is a distinguished honour that is awarded to:
(A) An individual officer for personal valour
(B) An organisation or unit, in recognition of sustained institutional excellence and service
(C) Only officers above the rank of Inspector General
(D) Foreign military units serving alongside Indian forces
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) An organisation or unit, in recognition of sustained institutional excellence and service
Q83. Which Indian armed force became the first to receive the President’s Colour, in 1951?
(A) Indian Army
(B) Indian Air Force
(C) Indian Navy
(D) Central Reserve Police Force
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Indian Navy
Q84. India’s participation, along with the United States and 24 other countries, in the ‘Call to Action for 6G Leadership and Security’ primarily aims to promote cooperation on:
(A) 6G security, interoperability, resilience and trusted AI in future telecommunications
(B) Space debris removal technologies
(C) International maritime boundary disputes
(D) Global agricultural subsidy reform
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) 6G security, interoperability, resilience and trusted AI in future telecommunications
Q85. 6G (sixth-generation) wireless technology, the subject of the Global 6G Initiative, is expected to succeed 5G around which year?
(A) 2027
(B) 2030
(C) 2035
(D) 2040
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 2030
Q86. The 2nd edition of Exercise Veer Guardian-2026, a bilateral air-defence exercise, was notably significant because it marked:
(A) The first-ever joint naval exercise between India and Japan
(B) The first-ever deployment of Japanese fighter aircraft from an Indian air base during the exercise
(C) The inclusion of a third country for the first time
(D) India’s first air-defence exercise with any foreign country
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The first-ever deployment of Japanese fighter aircraft from an Indian air base during the exercise
Q87. The inaugural edition of Exercise Veer Guardian, held in January 2023, took place at which location?
(A) Air Force Station Jodhpur, India
(B) Hyakuri Air Base, Japan
(C) Pune Air Force Station, India
(D) Misawa Air Base, Japan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Hyakuri Air Base, Japan
Q88. The ‘Dili Declaration on Human Resources for Health: Equity in Specialized Care’, adopted at the 79th Session of the WHO Regional Committee for South-East Asia, primarily addresses:
(A) The shortage and uneven geographical distribution of specialist healthcare professionals, particularly in rural and underserved areas
(B) Global vaccine intellectual property rights
(C) The regulation of pharmaceutical pricing across South-East Asia
(D) Cross-border medical tourism policies
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) The shortage and uneven geographical distribution of specialist healthcare professionals, particularly in rural and underserved areas
Q89. Kishor Makwana, who was recently conferred the Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam Jan Seva Puraskar 2026, serves as Chairman of which body?
(A) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST)
(B) National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC)
(C) National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)
(D) National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC)
Q90. Among India-Japan bilateral defence exercises, which of the following correctly matches the exercise with the military service primarily involved?
(A) Dharma Guardian — Navy
(B) JIMEX — Army
(C) Veer Guardian — Air Force
(D) SHINYUU Maitri — Army
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Veer Guardian — Air Force
Q91. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, Exception 2 to Section 63 excludes from the offence of rape any sexual act by a man with his own wife, provided that:
(A) The wife is 15 years of age or above
(B) The wife is 18 years of age or above, even when the act is non-consensual
(C) The couple has been married for at least five years
(D) The wife has given written consent at the time of marriage
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The wife is 18 years of age or above, even when the act is non-consensual
Q92. Section 67 of the BNS, 2023, which criminalises non-consensual sexual intercourse with a wife living separately under a decree, custom, or otherwise, prescribes a punishment that is:
(A) Identical to the punishment prescribed for rape
(B) Lower than the punishment prescribed for rape, ranging from two to seven years
(C) Restricted to a monetary fine only
(D) Limited to a maximum of six months imprisonment
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Lower than the punishment prescribed for rape, ranging from two to seven years
Q93. The J.S. Verma Committee, constituted following the 2012 Nirbhaya case, recommended which of the following in relation to marital rape?
(A) Retaining the marital rape exception to protect the institution of marriage
(B) Removing the marital rape exception, emphasising that marriage should not be construed as irrevocable consent
(C) Extending the exception to cover live-in relationships as well
(D) Transferring marital rape cases exclusively to family courts
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Removing the marital rape exception, emphasising that marriage should not be construed as irrevocable consent
Q94. As per recent data highlighted in the context of India-BRICS trade, India’s total goods trade with BRICS economies increased from approximately what figure in FY2021 to what figure in FY2026?
(A) $100 billion to $200 billion
(B) $203.1 billion to $417.5 billion
(C) $300 billion to $500 billion
(D) $50 billion to $150 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) $203.1 billion to $417.5 billion
Q95. With reference to India’s BRICS trade relationship, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) India’s exports to BRICS grew faster than its imports, narrowing the trade deficit
(B) India’s imports from BRICS surged much faster than exports, sharply widening the trade deficit
(C) India’s trade deficit with BRICS has remained constant since FY2021
(D) China’s share in India’s BRICS imports has been declining consistently
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) India’s imports from BRICS surged much faster than exports, sharply widening the trade deficit
Q96. Within the BRICS grouping, which country was India’s largest export destination in FY2026, ahead of China?
(A) Russia
(B) Brazil
(C) UAE
(D) South Africa
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) UAE
Q97. The PM SHRI Scheme, launched in September 2022, aims to upgrade selected government schools into model institutions aligned with which policy framework?
(A) Right to Education Act, 2009
(B) National Education Policy (NEP) 2020
(C) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(D) Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan Guidelines, 2018
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) National Education Policy (NEP) 2020
Q98. Under the PM SHRI Scheme’s funding pattern, what is the Centre-State funding ratio applicable to North-Eastern and Himalayan States and Jammu & Kashmir?
(A) 60:40
(B) 50:50
(C) 90:10
(D) 100:0
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 90:10
Q99. Under the ‘Challenge Mode’ of school selection in PM SHRI, what is the maximum number of schools that can be selected per block or Urban Local Body (ULB)?
(A) One school only
(B) Two schools — one elementary and one secondary/senior secondary
(C) Five schools across all levels
(D) There is no upper limit on selection
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Two schools — one elementary and one secondary/senior secondary
Q100. With reference to India’s Dedicated Freight Corridors (DFCs), the Eastern DFC (Ludhiana to Sonnagar) is primarily supported by which multilateral institution, while the Western DFC (Dadri to JNPT) is primarily supported by which agency?
(A) World Bank (Eastern); Japan International Cooperation Agency (Western)
(B) Asian Development Bank (Eastern); World Bank (Western)
(C) JICA (Eastern); World Bank (Western)
(D) IMF (Eastern); Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (Western)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) World Bank (Eastern); Japan International Cooperation Agency (Western)
Q101. The Dedicated Freight Corridor Corporation of India Limited (DFCCIL), the Special Purpose Vehicle responsible for building and operating India’s freight corridors, functions under which ministry and was established in which year?
(A) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways; 2010
(B) Ministry of Railways; 2006
(C) Ministry of Commerce and Industry; 2014
(D) Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways; 2000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Ministry of Railways; 2006
Q102. The Western Dedicated Freight Corridor (WDFC), fully commissioned by March 2026, primarily focuses on:
(A) Domestic coal and steel transportation
(B) Export-import (EXIM) container traffic connecting major industrial and port-based freight centres
(C) Passenger rail services on high-speed routes
(D) Agricultural produce transportation exclusively
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Export-import (EXIM) container traffic connecting major industrial and port-based freight centres
Q103. The Union Budget 2026 announced a new East-West Dedicated Freight Corridor connecting which two locations?
(A) Delhi and Mumbai
(B) Dankuni and Surat
(C) Kolkata and Chennai
(D) Vishakhapatnam and Kandla
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Dankuni and Surat
Q104. MatsyaMetri, developed by the Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI), is primarily a smartphone application designed to:
(A) Track illegal fishing vessels via satellite
(B) Estimate the length and width of fish from photographs without physically handling them
(C) Provide real-time weather alerts to fishermen
(D) Facilitate direct online sale of fish catch to consumers
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Estimate the length and width of fish from photographs without physically handling them
Q105. The Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI), headquartered in Kochi, was established in 1947 and currently functions as part of which organisation?
(A) Ministry of Earth Sciences
(B) Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)
(C) National Fisheries Development Board
(D) Marine Products Export Development Authority (MPEDA)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)
Q106. The first Krishi Vigyan Kendra (KVK) in India was established in 1974 at which location, based on the recommendations of which committee?
(A) Ludhiana, Punjab; based on the Swaminathan Committee
(B) Puducherry; based on the Dr. Mohan Singh Mehta Committee
(C) Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu; based on the National Commission on Agriculture
(D) Pusa, Bihar; based on the Radhakrishnan Committee
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Puducherry; based on the Dr. Mohan Singh Mehta Committee
Q107. Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKs) form a component of the National Agricultural Research System (NARS) and function under the coordination of:
(A) State Agriculture Departments exclusively
(B) One of the 11 Agricultural Technology Application Research Institutes (ATARIs)
(C) The Ministry of Rural Development
(D) NITI Aayog’s Agriculture Vertical
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) One of the 11 Agricultural Technology Application Research Institutes (ATARIs)
Q108. Which of the following is NOT a primary function of Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKs)?
(A) Assessing and refining agricultural technologies under local conditions
(B) Providing training to farmers, rural women and rural youth
(C) Setting the Minimum Support Price for agricultural commodities
(D) Facilitating access to quality seeds and planting materials
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Setting the Minimum Support Price for agricultural commodities
Q109. The Fund for Responding to Loss and Damage (FRLD) was formally operationalised at which UNFCCC Conference of Parties (COP)?
(A) COP26, Glasgow (2021)
(B) COP27, Sharm el-Sheikh (2022)
(C) COP28, Dubai (2023)
(D) COP29, Baku (2024)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) COP28, Dubai (2023)
Q110. Which international institution serves as the interim host and trustee of the FRLD for a four-year period extending up to COP33 in 2028?
(A) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
(B) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
(C) World Bank
(D) Green Climate Fund Board
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) World Bank
Q111. With reference to the governance structure of the FRLD, its 26-member Governing Board comprises how many members from developing and developed countries respectively?
(A) 10 developing, 16 developed
(B) 14 developing, 12 developed
(C) 18 developing, 8 developed
(D) 13 developing, 13 developed
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 14 developing, 12 developed
Q112. Consider the following statements regarding the distinction between climate mitigation, adaptation, and loss and damage:
1.Mitigation refers to actions aimed at reducing greenhouse-gas emissions.
2.Adaptation refers to measures undertaken to adjust to climate impacts and reduce vulnerability.
3.Loss and damage addresses impacts that occur despite mitigation and adaptation efforts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2 and 3 only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3
Q113. The Warsaw International Mechanism (WIM), established at COP19 in 2013, primarily focuses on:
(A) Direct financial disbursement to disaster-affected countries
(B) Knowledge generation, coordination and technical understanding related to loss and damage
(C) Setting binding global emission-reduction targets
(D) Administering carbon credit trading among nations
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Knowledge generation, coordination and technical understanding related to loss and damage
Q114. The Cell Broadcast System (CBS), recently resumed in India, is an emergency alert technology that primarily allows authorities to:
(A) Send individual text messages to specific registered users only
(B) Simultaneously broadcast alerts to all mobile devices within a defined geographical area
(C) Track the real-time location of individual mobile users
(D) Restrict mobile network access during emergencies
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Simultaneously broadcast alerts to all mobile devices within a defined geographical area
Q115. India’s Cell Broadcast System (CBS) solution has been developed indigenously by which organisation, in collaboration with the NDMA and Ministry of Home Affairs?
(A) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
(B) Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT)
(C) Telecommunications Engineering Centre (TEC)
(D) Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT)
Q116. TRISHNA (Thermal Infra-Red Imaging Satellite for High-resolution Natural Resource Assessment) is a joint Earth-observation mission between ISRO and which French space agency?
(A) European Space Agency (ESA)
(B) Centre National d’Études Spatiales (CNES)
(C) Arianespace
(D) French National Centre for Scientific Research (CNRS)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Centre National d’Études Spatiales (CNES)
Q117. The TRISHNA satellite’s Thermal Infra-Red (TIR) payload, developed by CNES, is primarily designed to provide high-resolution measurements of:
(A) Ocean salinity and currents
(B) Land-surface temperature and surface emissivity
(C) Atmospheric carbon dioxide concentration
(D) Ionospheric electron density
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Land-surface temperature and surface emissivity
Q118. The VNIR-SWIR payload aboard TRISHNA, developed by ISRO, incorporates how many spectral bands for observation of surface reflectance?
(A) Three
(B) Five
(C) Seven
(D) Twelve
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Seven
Q119. TRISHNA will be launched aboard which ISRO launch vehicle, and is planned to operate in which type of orbit?
(A) GSLV; Geostationary orbit
(B) PSLV; Sun-synchronous orbit
(C) SSLV; Highly elliptical orbit
(D) LVM3; Molniya orbit
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) PSLV; Sun-synchronous orbit
Q120. Among TRISHNA’s key objectives, which of the following is explicitly included?
(A) Deep-space asteroid mapping
(B) Monitoring urban heat islands, glacier dynamics, and terrestrial water and energy budgets
(C) Direct-to-home satellite television broadcasting
(D) Military reconnaissance of neighbouring countries
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Monitoring urban heat islands, glacier dynamics, and terrestrial water and energy budgets
Q121. A Registered Unrecognised Political Party (RUPP) is a party that is registered with the Election Commission of India under which provision, but has not fulfilled the conditions for recognition as a State or National Party?
(A) Article 324 of the Constitution
(B) Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951
(C) Section 123 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951
(D) The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, directly
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951
Q122. As per the Supreme Court’s ruling in Indian National Congress v. Institute of Social Welfare (2002), the Election Commission:
(A) Possesses unrestricted general power to deregister any political party at will
(B) Does not possess a general power to deregister parties, except in limited circumstances such as fraudulent registration or disavowal of allegiance to the Constitution
(C) Can deregister a party solely for not contesting any election
(D) Has no role whatsoever in matters of political party registration
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Does not possess a general power to deregister parties, except in limited circumstances such as fraudulent registration or disavowal of allegiance to the Constitution
Q123. Under the compliance requirements applicable to registered political parties, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) A registered party must contest at least one election within six years to demonstrate continued political activity
(B) Donations of any amount can be received in cash without disclosure
(C) Registration with the ECI is compulsory for contesting any election
(D) Star campaigners nominated by an RUPP are capped at five
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) A registered party must contest at least one election within six years to demonstrate continued political activity
Q124. As per the Consumer Protection (E-Commerce) (Amendment) Rules, 2026, which of the following requirements has been introduced regarding pricing and discounts?
(A) Platforms need only display the discounted price without reference to any previous price
(B) Platforms must display the discounted price along with the previous price, determined as the lowest price offered during the preceding 30 days
(C) Discounts on e-commerce platforms have been banned entirely
(D) Only government-run e-commerce platforms need to disclose pricing information
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Platforms must display the discounted price along with the previous price, determined as the lowest price offered during the preceding 30 days
Q125. Under the amended e-commerce rules, e-commerce entities are required to comply with which framework concerning manipulative design practices aimed at influencing consumer decisions?
(A) Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines) Rules, 2021
(B) Guidelines for Prevention and Regulation of Dark Patterns, 2023
(C) Competition (Amendment) Act, 2023
(D) Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, exclusively
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Guidelines for Prevention and Regulation of Dark Patterns, 2023
Q126. With reference to the UK’s recent restrictions on imports from Israeli settlements, the West Bank area that remains under full Israeli civil and military control as per the Oslo II Accord, constituting around 60% of the territory, is known as:
(A) Area A
(B) Area B
(C) Area C
(D) Area D
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Area C
Q127. The Oslo Accords, concluded between Israel and the Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO) during the 1990s, primarily sought to:
(A) Establish full Palestinian sovereignty immediately over the entire West Bank
(B) Create a framework for limited Palestinian self-government and conditions for a negotiated settlement
(C) Formally annex the West Bank to Jordan
(D) Dissolve the United Nations mandate over Palestine
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Create a framework for limited Palestinian self-government and conditions for a negotiated settlement
Q128. The Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002, was enacted by Parliament under which constitutional provision empowering legislation to implement international agreements?
(A) Article 245
(B) Article 253
(C) Article 356
(D) Article 368
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Article 253
Q129. Under the PMLA, the underlying criminal activity that must be established for an offence of money laundering to arise is referred to as a:
(A) Cognizable offence
(B) Predicate or scheduled offence
(C) Compoundable offence
(D) Non-bailable offence
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Predicate or scheduled offence
Q130. Which agency functions as India’s national repository for receiving, processing, analysing and disseminating financial intelligence relating to suspicious transactions under the PMLA framework?
(A) Directorate of Enforcement (ED)
(B) Financial Intelligence Unit-India (FIU-IND)
(C) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(D) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Financial Intelligence Unit-India (FIU-IND)
Q131. The Dryland Congress 2026, jointly organised by ICAR and ICRISAT in New Delhi, is being held under the theme:
(A) Water for All, Drylands for None
(B) Transforming Dryland Agriculture through South-South Cooperation
(C) Green Revolution 2.0 for Arid India
(D) Zero Hunger through Dryland Innovation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Transforming Dryland Agriculture through South-South Cooperation
Q132. As per the UN Environment Programme (UNEP), drylands are defined as regions with an Aridity Index below which threshold?
(A) 0.20
(B) 0.65
(C) 1.0
(D) 1.5
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 0.65
Q133. With reference to drylands in India, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Drylands account for around 68% of India’s cultivated area and support more than 40% of the population
(B) Drylands cover less than 10% of India’s cultivated area
(C) Drylands in India support negligible livestock population
(D) India has no dedicated policy framework for dryland rehabilitation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Drylands account for around 68% of India’s cultivated area and support more than 40% of the population
Q134. The Ministry of Home Affairs’ proposal to introduce a new ‘Chapter K’ under Article 371 for Ladakh primarily seeks to:
(A) Grant Ladakh full statehood immediately
(B) Provide constitutional safeguards and an elected institutional framework for protecting land, culture, language and natural resources
(C) Merge Ladakh administratively with Jammu and Kashmir
(D) Abolish the Union Territory status of Ladakh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Provide constitutional safeguards and an elected institutional framework for protecting land, culture, language and natural resources
Q135. Articles 371 to 371-J, contained in Part XXI of the Constitution, provide special provisions for various states. Which of the following correctly matches an article with its corresponding state?
(A) Article 371-A — Sikkim
(B) Article 371-F — Sikkim
(C) Article 371-H — Goa
(D) Article 371-J — Manipur
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Article 371-F — Sikkim
Q136. Govind Ballabh Pant, whose 139th birth anniversary was recently observed, served as the first Chief Minister of which state?
(A) Uttarakhand
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Bihar
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Uttar Pradesh
Q137. Govind Ballabh Pant is particularly associated with overseeing which major land-reform legislation as head of the Uttar Pradesh government?
(A) Land Acquisition Act, 1894
(B) Zamindari Abolition and Land Reforms Act, 1950
(C) Land Ceiling Act, 1972
(D) Tenancy Reforms Act, 1961
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Zamindari Abolition and Land Reforms Act, 1950
Q138. As Union Home Minister, Govind Ballabh Pant played a key role in implementing which reorganisation of Indian states?
(A) States Reorganisation Act, 1956, based substantially on linguistic lines
(B) Delimitation of parliamentary constituencies in 1971
(C) Creation of Union Territories under the Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act
(D) Formation of NITI Aayog replacing the Planning Commission
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) States Reorganisation Act, 1956, based substantially on linguistic lines
Q139. Orangutans, whose juveniles were recently rescued in Balasore, Odisha, are naturally distributed in which region?
(A) Amazon rainforest of South America
(B) Congo Basin of Central Africa
(C) The Southeast Asian islands of Borneo and Sumatra
(D) The Western Ghats of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) The Southeast Asian islands of Borneo and Sumatra
Q140. Which of the three extant orangutan species is considered the rarest of all great apes, restricted to the Batang Toru ecosystem of North Sumatra?
(A) Bornean Orangutan (Pongo pygmaeus)
(B) Sumatran Orangutan (Pongo abelii)
(C) Tapanuli Orangutan (Pongo tapanuliensis)
(D) Sunda Orangutan (Pongo sundaicus)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Tapanuli Orangutan (Pongo tapanuliensis)
Q141. With reference to the conservation status of orangutans, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) All three orangutan species are listed as ‘Least Concern’ on the IUCN Red List
(B) All three orangutan species are classified as Critically Endangered and listed under CITES Appendix I
(C) Orangutans are not covered under CITES since they are not traded internationally
(D) Only the Bornean orangutan is currently considered endangered
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) All three orangutan species are classified as Critically Endangered and listed under CITES Appendix I
Q142. The 27th World Knowledge Forum, held in Seoul, South Korea, was organised around the theme:
(A) Building a Sustainable Green Economy
(B) The Promethean Moment: Architecting the Co-Intelligence Order
(C) Reimagining Global Trade in a Multipolar World
(D) The Future of Work in the Digital Age
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The Promethean Moment: Architecting the Co-Intelligence Order
Q143. Eravikulam National Park, recently surveyed as a favourable habitat for the Resplendent Shrub Frog, is notable for being:
(A) India’s largest national park by area
(B) Kerala’s first national park, declared in 1978
(C) The only national park located entirely in the Eastern Ghats
(D) A designated Ramsar wetland site
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Kerala’s first national park, declared in 1978
Q144. Anamudi, the highest peak in South India, is located within which national park?
(A) Silent Valley National Park
(B) Periyar National Park
(C) Eravikulam National Park
(D) Mudumalai National Park
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Eravikulam National Park
Q145. The Navier-Stokes equations, whose existence-and-smoothness problem is one of the Millennium Prize Problems, are a set of partial differential equations primarily used to describe:
(A) The motion and behaviour of fluids
(B) The propagation of electromagnetic waves
(C) Quantum entanglement between particles
(D) The gravitational interaction between celestial bodies
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) The motion and behaviour of fluids
Q146. The Clay Mathematics Institute’s Millennium Prize Problems include the Navier-Stokes existence-and-smoothness question, which specifically asks whether:
(A) A polynomial-time algorithm exists for all NP problems
(B) Smooth, physically meaningful solutions exist for all time in three-dimensional fluid flow
(C) The Riemann Hypothesis can be proven using classical number theory
(D) A general algorithm exists for solving all Diophantine equations
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Smooth, physically meaningful solutions exist for all time in three-dimensional fluid flow
Q147. ORV Sagar Manthan, India’s first indigenously built Ocean Research Vessel, was built by which entity and functions under which nodal ministry?
(A) Cochin Shipyard Limited; Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways
(B) Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE); Ministry of Earth Sciences
(C) Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited; Ministry of Defence
(D) Hindustan Shipyard Limited; Ministry of Science and Technology
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE); Ministry of Earth Sciences
Q148. ORV Sagar Manthan forms part of which broader national initiative aimed at deep-sea exploration and the development of India’s Blue Economy?
(A) National Mission on Himalayan Studies
(B) Deep Ocean Mission (DOM)
(C) National Coastal Mission
(D) PM MITRA Scheme
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Deep Ocean Mission (DOM)
Q149. The ‘Early Warnings for All’ (EW4All) initiative, referenced in relation to the Addis Ababa Call to Action on Early Warnings in Africa, was launched by the UN Secretary-General in which year, with a target of ensuring universal coverage by which year?
(A) Launched in 2015; target 2025
(B) Launched in 2019; target 2030
(C) Launched in 2022; target 2027
(D) Launched in 2020; target 2028
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Launched in 2022; target 2027
Q150. The term ‘BRIC’ was originally coined in 2001 by which economist to describe the emerging economies of Brazil, Russia, India and China?
(A) Paul Krugman
(B) Jim O’Neill
(C) Joseph Stiglitz
(D) Nouriel Roubini
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Jim O’Neill
Q151. With reference to the evolution of BRICS, which of the following sequences is correctly ordered?
(A) Formal institutionalisation (2006) → Addition of South Africa, becoming BRICS (2011) → 2024 expansion
(B) Addition of South Africa (2006) → Formal institutionalisation (2011) → 2024 expansion
(C) 2024 expansion → Formal institutionalisation (2006) → Addition of South Africa (2011)
(D) Formal institutionalisation (2011) → Addition of South Africa (2006) → 2024 expansion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Formal institutionalisation (2006) → Addition of South Africa, becoming BRICS (2011) → 2024 expansion
Q152. As of the 2024-25 expansion, which of the following countries is NOT among the full members admitted to BRICS?
(A) Egypt
(B) Ethiopia
(C) Indonesia
(D) Vietnam
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Vietnam
Q153. With reference to the global significance of BRICS, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) BRICS countries collectively account for less than 10% of global GDP in PPP terms
(B) BRICS collectively accounts for around 40% of global GDP (PPP terms) and around 40% of global crude oil production
(C) BRICS has no relevance to global energy markets since none of its members are major oil producers
(D) BRICS represents less than 10% of the world’s population
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) BRICS collectively accounts for around 40% of global GDP (PPP terms) and around 40% of global crude oil production
Q154. The New Development Bank (NDB) and the Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA), both associated with BRICS, primarily aim to:
(A) Replace the International Monetary Fund entirely
(B) Strengthen financial cooperation and provide additional financing/financial-stability mechanisms among emerging economies
(C) Regulate global currency exchange rates
(D) Function exclusively as regional development banks for Africa
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Strengthen financial cooperation and provide additional financing/financial-stability mechanisms among emerging economies
Q155. The Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme (DILRMP) functions as a Central Sector Scheme under which ministry?
(A) Ministry of Panchayati Raj
(B) Ministry of Rural Development
(C) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
(D) Ministry of Revenue
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Ministry of Rural Development
Q156. DILRMP was originally launched in 2008 under which name, before being recast as a Central Sector Scheme in 2016?
(A) National Land Records Modernisation Programme (NLRMP)
(B) Bhoomi Rashi Yojana
(C) Digital Bharat Bhoomi Mission
(D) National Cadastral Survey Scheme
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) National Land Records Modernisation Programme (NLRMP)
Q157. The Unique Land Parcel Identification Number (ULPIN), introduced under ‘Bhu-Aadhaar’, is a how many-digit alphanumeric identifier generated using the geographical coordinates of a land parcel?
(A) 10-digit
(B) 12-digit
(C) 14-digit
(D) 16-digit
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 14-digit
Q158. The National Generic Document Registration System (NGDRS), a component of DILRMP, primarily serves as:
(A) A biometric authentication system for Aadhaar
(B) A unified e-registration platform for land and property documents
(C) A satellite-based crop-monitoring system
(D) A digital court-case filing system for the Supreme Court
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A unified e-registration platform for land and property documents
Q159. DILRMP 3.0, covering the period 2026-2031, primarily focuses on developing which of the following?
(A) A blockchain-based cryptocurrency for land transactions
(B) An integrated and interoperable GIS-based Land Stack
(C) A national biometric land-titling system exclusively for urban areas
(D) A single central land bank owned by the Union Government
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) An integrated and interoperable GIS-based Land Stack
Q160. The International Day of Clean Air for Blue Skies, designated by the UN General Assembly in 2019, is observed globally on which date and marked in India as:
(A) 5 June; Vayu Suraksha Diwas
(B) 7 September; Swachh Vayu Diwas
(C) 16 September; Ozone Diwas
(D) 22 April; Prithvi Diwas
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 7 September; Swachh Vayu Diwas
Q161. With reference to particulate matter classification, PM2.5 refers to particles with a diameter of:
(A) 10 micrometres or less
(B) 2.5 micrometres or less
(C) 25 micrometres or less
(D) 0.25 micrometres or less
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 2.5 micrometres or less
Q162. As per recent data, India’s ambient air-quality monitoring network under the National Air Quality Monitoring Programme (NAMP) comprises approximately how many stations, and real-time information is made available through which mobile application?
(A) 500 stations; Vayu Setu app
(B) 1,646 stations; SAMEER app
(C) 2,500 stations; SAFAR app
(D) 800 stations; PRANA app
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 1,646 stations; SAMEER app
Q163. The National Clean Air Programme (NCAP), launched in 2019, initially covered how many non-attainment cities for source-specific pollution mitigation?
(A) 50 cities
(B) 100 cities
(C) 130 cities
(D) 200 cities
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 130 cities
Q164. The PRANA portal, associated with NCAP implementation, stands for:
(A) Programme for Regulation of Air-quality and National Assessment
(B) Portal for Regulation of Air-Pollution in Non-Attainment Cities
(C) Plan for Reduction of Air-pollutants through National Action
(D) Public Reporting for Air-quality and Noise Abatement
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Portal for Regulation of Air-Pollution in Non-Attainment Cities
Q165. The recent reconstruction of nearly 25,000 years of Indian Summer Monsoon variability, based on magnetic minerals in lake sediments, was conducted using samples from:
(A) Chilika Lake, Odisha
(B) Bakhira Lake, Uttar Pradesh
(C) Sambhar Lake, Rajasthan
(D) Loktak Lake, Manipur
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Bakhira Lake, Uttar Pradesh
Q166. Bakhira Lake, the site of the monsoon-reconstruction study, is best described as:
(A) A high-altitude glacial lake in the Himalayas
(B) A perennial oxbow/floodplain wetland formed through migration of the Rapti River
(C) An artificial reservoir created by a hydroelectric dam
(D) A saline desert lake in the Thar region
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A perennial oxbow/floodplain wetland formed through migration of the Rapti River
Q167. Bakhira Lake, part of the Ghaghara-Rapti alluvial system, was designated as a Ramsar Site in which year?
(A) 2018
(B) 2020
(C) 2022
(D) 2024
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2022
Q168. National Forest Martyrs Day, observed annually on 11 September, commemorates the historic sacrifice associated with which community’s resistance to tree-felling in 1730?
(A) Gond community
(B) Bishnoi community
(C) Santhal community
(D) Bhil community
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Bishnoi community
Q169. Amrita Devi Bishnoi, central to the Khejarli sacrifice of 1730, led resistance against the felling of which tree species?
(A) Banyan
(B) Peepal
(C) Khejri
(D) Neem
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Khejri
Q170. The Amrita Devi Bishnoi Wildlife Protection Award, instituted in 2021, is conferred by which ministry to recognise contributions towards wildlife protection?
(A) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(B) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
(C) Ministry of Culture
(D) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
Q171. The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC), the apex decision-making body for capital defence procurement, was constituted in 2001 following the recommendations of the Group of Ministers set up after which event?
(A) Operation Parakram (2001-02)
(B) The 1999 Kargil War
(C) The 1971 Indo-Pak War
(D) The 1999 Pokhran-II nuclear tests
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The 1999 Kargil War
Q172. The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) is chaired by:
(A) The Prime Minister
(B) The Defence Minister
(C) The Chief of Defence Staff (CDS)
(D) The National Security Advisor
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The Defence Minister
Q173. Which of the following is a key function of the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC)?
(A) Conducting joint military exercises with foreign armed forces
(B) Granting Acceptance of Necessity (AoN) for capital acquisition proposals
(C) Adjudicating disputes between defence contractors
(D) Setting the defence budget allocation in Parliament
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Granting Acceptance of Necessity (AoN) for capital acquisition proposals
Q174. The DAC’s approval of capital acquisition proposals worth approximately ₹1.10 lakh crore is primarily aimed at:
(A) Reducing India’s defence expenditure
(B) Strengthening the combat preparedness and operational capabilities of the Indian Armed Forces
(C) Financing space exploration programmes
(D) Supporting international peacekeeping missions
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Strengthening the combat preparedness and operational capabilities of the Indian Armed Forces
Q175. At the First International Space Summit held in Paris, the Prime Minister of India, addressing virtually, outlined India’s ambition of establishing an indigenous space station and sending an Indian astronaut to the Moon by which respective years?
(A) Space station by 2030; Moon mission by 2035
(B) Space station by 2035; Moon mission by 2040
(C) Space station by 2040; Moon mission by 2045
(D) Space station by 2028; Moon mission by 2032
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Space station by 2035; Moon mission by 2040
Q176. Among the four key priorities identified at the First International Space Summit, which of the following relates to encouraging responsible and sustainable management of outer space for the benefit of all nations?
(A) Security
(B) Space Economy
(C) Space as a Common Good
(D) Space as a Fundamental Project
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Space as a Common Good
Q177. The First International Space Summit’s priority area concerning innovation, technological development and the growth of commercial space activity is best described as:
(A) Security
(B) Space Economy
(C) Space as a Common Good
(D) Space as a Fundamental Project
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Space Economy
Q178. Exercise Samudra Laksamana, whose 4th edition (2026) is being conducted at Lumut, Malaysia, is a bilateral maritime exercise between India and Malaysia. Which Indian Navy ship is representing India in this edition?
(A) INS Vikrant
(B) INS Mysore
(C) INS Kolkata
(D) INS Chennai
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) INS Mysore
Q179. INS Mysore, representing India in Exercise Samudra Laksamana 2026, belongs to which class of indigenously built guided-missile destroyers?
(A) Kolkata-class
(B) Delhi-class
(C) Visakhapatnam-class
(D) Rajput-class
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Delhi-class
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