Find the current affairs quiz 24 September 2026 by Exam Charcha.
Staying updated with current events is crucial, and this quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the latest happenings. The 24 September 2026 current affairs quiz covers the key events, news, and developments from this day.
Each question comes with multiple choices, and the correct answer is provided to help you learn. Whether you’re preparing for competitive exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz is a great way to assess your awareness of current affairs.
Current Affairs Quiz – 24 September 2026 (Test Now)
Q1. The Partners for Multilateralism, International Law, Peace and Prosperity (P4M) initiative primarily seeks to advance UN reforms in alignment with which UN initiative, launched to respond to growing global fragmentation?
(A) UN2045 Initiative
(B) UN80 Initiative
(C) UN Charter Review Process
(D) Sustainable Development Compact
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) UN80 Initiative
Q2. Consider the following statements regarding challenges to traditional multilateralism:
1. The ‘triple planetary crisis’ refers to climate change, biodiversity loss and pollution.
2. The ‘4F crisis’ refers to disruptions in the supply of Food, Fuel, Fertilisers and Finance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Q3. As per estimates cited in the context of reformed multilateralism, developing countries currently face an annual development financing shortfall of approximately:
(A) $1 trillion
(B) $2 trillion
(C) $4 trillion
(D) $10 trillion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) $4 trillion
Q4. Which of the following is an example of India’s advocacy for the Global South, cited in the context of reformed multilateralism?
(A) Facilitating the African Union’s permanent membership in the G20 during India’s 2023 Presidency
(B) Vetoing UN Security Council resolutions on behalf of developing countries
(C) Withdrawing from the WTO Appellate Body
(D) Suspending its membership in the New Development Bank
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Facilitating the African Union’s permanent membership in the G20 during India’s 2023 Presidency
Q5. India promotes global public goods partly through Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) and the India Stack, and through climate cooperation platforms including the International Solar Alliance (ISA) and which other coalition?
(A) Global Methane Pledge
(B) Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI)
(C) Powering Past Coal Alliance
(D) Climate Vulnerable Forum
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI)
Q6. The Supreme Court judgment strengthening safeguards under Article 22(1), delivered on 21 September 2026, was pronounced by a Bench comprising Justices Ujjal Bhuyan and:
(A) B.R. Gavai
(B) Atul S. Chandurkar
(C) Surya Kant
(D) D.Y. Chandrachud
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Atul S. Chandurkar
Q7. As per the Supreme Court’s ruling, a violation of Article 22(1) primarily results in which of the following consequences for the accused?
(A) A reduction in the eventual sentence upon conviction
(B) Immediate release from illegal and unconstitutional detention, distinct from ordinary bail
(C) Automatic acquittal of all charges
(D) Transfer of the case to a special fast-track court
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Immediate release from illegal and unconstitutional detention, distinct from ordinary bail
Q8. With reference to the applicability of Article 22(1) safeguards, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) The safeguard applies only to arrests made under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita
(B) The safeguard applies across the criminal justice framework, including arrests under special enactments, and is treated as a mandatory constitutional requirement
(C) The safeguard is a discretionary procedural formality that courts may choose to waive
(D) The safeguard applies only to arrests of foreign nationals
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The safeguard applies across the criminal justice framework, including arrests under special enactments, and is treated as a mandatory constitutional requirement
Q9. Under the re-arrest procedure prescribed by the Supreme Court, the Magistrate examining a fresh application must determine bona fide reasons for the initial failure to furnish grounds of arrest, along with:
(A) Whether the accused has sufficient financial means to post bail
(B) Whether fresh custody is genuinely necessary
(C) Whether the media has reported on the case
(D) Whether the original arresting officer has been promoted
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Whether fresh custody is genuinely necessary
Q10. Which flagship annual cleanliness campaign, launched in 2017 to strengthen the ‘Jan Bhagidari’ approach, was themed ‘Swachhata Mein Sahbhag; Swachh Bharat, Viksit Bharat’ in 2026?
(A) GOBARdhan Diwas
(B) Swachhata Hi Seva (SHS)
(C) Swachh Survekshan
(D) Namami Gange Yatra
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Swachhata Hi Seva (SHS)
Q11. As per progress reported in September 2026, India has achieved how many ODF Plus villages in total, including how many ODF Plus Model villages?
(A) 2.5 lakh ODF Plus villages, including 1 lakh Model villages
(B) 5.69 lakh ODF Plus villages, including 5.25 lakh Model villages
(C) 10 lakh ODF Plus villages, including 8 lakh Model villages
(D) 1 lakh ODF Plus villages, including 50,000 Model villages
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 5.69 lakh ODF Plus villages, including 5.25 lakh Model villages
Q12. The example of SHGs conducting a plastic-removal drive across 18 Ganga-adjacent Gram Panchayats, collecting 9.32 tonnes of plastic waste in 18 days, was reported from which district?
(A) Gorakhpur, Uttar Pradesh
(B) Howrah, West Bengal
(C) Nadia, West Bengal
(D) Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Howrah, West Bengal
Q13. Village Water and Sanitation Committees (VWSCs), which support village-level planning, mobilisation and behaviour change under SBM-G, achieved ODF Plus Model status through a community-led approach in Gadli Gram Panchayat, located in which state?
(A) Punjab
(B) Haryana
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Haryana
Q14. The two broad manufacturing types of NdFeB magnets are distinguished primarily by their production process. Which of the following correctly matches type with characteristic?
(A) Sintered NdFeB — magnetic powder combined with a polymer binder for flexible shapes
(B) Bonded NdFeB — magnetic powder compacted and heat-treated for higher magnetic performance
(C) Sintered NdFeB — magnetic powder compacted and heat-treated into a dense solid, offering higher magnetic performance
(D) Both types use identical manufacturing processes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Sintered NdFeB — magnetic powder compacted and heat-treated into a dense solid, offering higher magnetic performance
Q15. Which of the following is NOT typically cited as a major application of NdFeB permanent magnets?
(A) Electric-vehicle traction motors
(B) Direct-drive wind-turbine generators
(C) Certain permanent-magnet MRI systems
(D) Conventional incandescent light bulbs
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Conventional incandescent light bulbs
Q16. The Union Budget 2026-27 announced Rare Earth Corridors to support the rare-earth value chain (mining, processing, research and manufacturing) in Odisha, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and:
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Karnataka
(C) Telangana
(D) West Bengal
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Andhra Pradesh
Q17. Which of the following best distinguishes Agentic AI from Generative AI, as per the classification of AI types?
(A) Generative AI plans and executes multi-step actions autonomously, while Agentic AI only creates content
(B) Agentic AI plans, decides and takes autonomous action to achieve a goal, while Generative AI primarily creates new content such as text, images or code
(C) Both terms describe identical categories of AI systems
(D) Generative AI cannot process text, while Agentic AI cannot process images
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Agentic AI plans, decides and takes autonomous action to achieve a goal, while Generative AI primarily creates new content such as text, images or code
Q18. Among the applications of Agentic AI listed, which sector involves supporting clinical workflows and patient-management processes?
(A) Finance
(B) Cybersecurity
(C) Healthcare
(D) Business automation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Healthcare
Q19. Which concern relating to Agentic AI specifically involves ensuring that autonomous systems remain subject to meaningful human supervision?
(A) Privacy
(B) Human oversight
(C) Tool utilisation
(D) Multi-step execution
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Human oversight
Q20. The Lindsey O. Graham Sanctioning Russia and Iran Act, 2026, was enacted by the United States on which date?
(A) 1 September 2026
(B) 18 September 2026
(C) 30 September 2026
(D) 15 August 2026
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 18 September 2026
Q21. As per the Act, tariffs under Section 113 may target both the five largest purchasers of Russian-origin crude oil/natural gas and:
(A) The five largest exporters of goods to Russia
(B) The five countries most involved in facilitating Russian oil sanctions evasion
(C) The five permanent members of the UN Security Council
(D) The five largest recipients of US foreign aid
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The five countries most involved in facilitating Russian oil sanctions evasion
Q22. With reference to Presidential authority under the Lindsey O. Graham Act, the US President:
(A) Has no discretion whatsoever over the imposition of tariffs under the Act
(B) May exercise waiver powers, subject to applicable statutory conditions
(C) Must obtain UN Security Council approval before imposing any tariff
(D) Can only apply the Act’s provisions to European countries
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) May exercise waiver powers, subject to applicable statutory conditions
Q23. The India Deep Tech Alliance (IDTA), a consortium of investors, corporates and technology partners, primarily aims to bridge the commercialisation gap in deep technologies by providing patient capital, technical mentorship, market access and:
(A) Consumer marketing support
(B) Policy engagement
(C) Retail distribution networks
(D) Currency hedging services
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Policy engagement
Q24. Which of the following is NOT among IDTA’s stated investment focus areas?
(A) Quantum technologies
(B) Space technology
(C) Bio-economy
(D) Traditional textile manufacturing
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Traditional textile manufacturing
Q25. SEMI, the global non-profit association partnering with IDTA to establish the India Semiconductor Academy, stands for:
(A) Semiconductor Manufacturing India
(B) Semiconductor Equipment and Materials International
(C) South East Manufacturing Institute
(D) Strategic Electronics and Microchip Industries
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Semiconductor Equipment and Materials International
Q26. As per the district-level labour market indicators released by the NSO, approximately what proportion of districts recorded a female Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) of 40% or above?
(A) 27.8%
(B) 37.8%
(C) 57.8%
(D) 77.8%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 57.8%
Q27. As per the NSO’s district-level data, more than 75% of districts reported which of the following?
(A) Female LFPR above 60%
(B) NEET rates below 30%
(C) Unemployment rates above 20%
(D) WPR above 80%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) NEET rates below 30%
Q28. The NSO functions under which ministry as the apex body for statistical coordination and socio-economic surveys?
(A) Ministry of Finance
(B) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI)
(C) Ministry of Labour and Employment
(D) NITI Aayog
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI)
Q29. The observation of Elias 2-24 b, confirmed as the youngest known exoplanet, was made possible using archival data from which observatory?
(A) Hubble Space Telescope
(B) James Webb Space Telescope
(C) W. M. Keck Observatory
(D) Atacama Large Millimeter Array
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) W. M. Keck Observatory
Q30. The McGetchin Crater, identified by NASA as a newly formed lunar impact crater, is significant partly because it illustrates that the Moon’s near-absence of an atmosphere:
(A) Causes most incoming space debris to burn up before impact
(B) Provides negligible atmospheric braking or burning, allowing debris to reach the surface and form impact craters
(C) Deflects incoming asteroids via magnetic shielding
(D) Prevents any impact craters from forming on the Moon
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Provides negligible atmospheric braking or burning, allowing debris to reach the surface and form impact craters
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24 September 2026 Current Affairs