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30 September 2026 – Current Affairs Quiz & MCQ (With PDF)

Find the current affairs quiz 30 September 2026 by Exam Charcha.

Staying updated with current events is crucial, and this quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the latest happenings. The 30 September 2026 current affairs quiz covers the key events, news, and developments from this day.

Each question comes with multiple choices, and the correct answer is provided to help you learn. Whether you’re preparing for competitive exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz is a great way to assess your awareness of current affairs.

Current Affairs Quiz – 30 September 2026 (Test Now)

Q1. In Bilal v. State of NCT of Delhi, the Delhi High Court held that a marriage under Muslim personal law does NOT provide immunity from prosecution under the POCSO Act or BNS when:

(A) Both spouses are above 18 years of age
(B) The alleged sexual intercourse involves a minor wife
(C) The marriage was registered under the Special Marriage Act
(D) The husband is a first-time offender

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) The alleged sexual intercourse involves a minor wife


Q2. Under the POCSO Act, 2012, a ‘child’ is defined as any person below the age of:

(A) 16 years
(B) 18 years
(C) 21 years
(D) 14 years

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) 18 years


Q3. Section 42A of the POCSO Act provides that:

(A) State-specific personal laws override POCSO provisions
(B) The POCSO Act has an overriding effect where its provisions are inconsistent with those of other laws
(C) POCSO applies only to non-Muslim citizens
(D) Customary practices automatically supersede POCSO in cases of child marriage

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) The POCSO Act has an overriding effect where its provisions are inconsistent with those of other laws


Q4. Section 29 of the POCSO Act creates a statutory presumption regarding the commission of specified offences, which:

(A) Cannot be rebutted under any circumstances
(B) Operates unless the contrary is proved
(C) Applies only in cases involving female victims
(D) Requires the prosecution to prove guilt beyond reasonable doubt without any presumption

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Operates unless the contrary is proved


Q5. As per the UN report on sea-level rise and human rights cited alongside the UNGA’s first declaration on sea-level rise, approximately how many people worldwide live less than five metres above the high-tide line?

(A) 77 million
(B) 270 million
(C) 500 million
(D) 770 million

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (D) 770 million


Q6. The UNGA’s first declaration on sea-level rise affirms that small island nations facing territorial submergence:

(A) Automatically lose their statehood once their territory is submerged
(B) Do not automatically lose their statehood if rising sea levels submerge their territory
(C) Must merge with a neighbouring larger state
(D) Retain statehood only if recognised individually by the UN Security Council

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Do not automatically lose their statehood if rising sea levels submerge their territory


Q7. The declaration on sea-level rise refers to the Malé Declaration of 1989, which addressed:

(A) Global warming and sea-level rise
(B) Nuclear non-proliferation in the Indian Ocean
(C) Maritime piracy in the Arabian Sea
(D) Fisheries management in the Pacific

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (A) Global warming and sea-level rise


Q8. Under the IAU’s 2006 Resolution 5A, which of the following is NOT one of the three criteria for a celestial body to be classified as a planet?

(A) It must orbit the Sun
(B) It must have sufficient mass to be approximately spherical
(C) It must have cleared the neighbourhood around its orbit
(D) It must possess at least one natural satellite

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (D) It must possess at least one natural satellite


Q9. Pluto was reclassified as a dwarf planet primarily because it failed to satisfy which of the IAU’s three planetary criteria?

(A) It does not orbit the Sun
(B) It is not approximately spherical in shape
(C) It has not cleared its orbital neighbourhood of other objects
(D) It does not have sufficient mass

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) It has not cleared its orbital neighbourhood of other objects


Q10. NASA’s New Horizons spacecraft, the only mission to have conducted a close-up exploration of Pluto, flew past it in which year?

(A) 2006
(B) 2012
(C) 2015
(D) 2020

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) 2015


Q11. Charon, Pluto’s largest moon, is notable because:

(A) It is larger than Pluto itself
(B) It is approximately half the size of Pluto, leading the pair to be described as a ‘double planet’ system
(C) It has no gravitational interaction with Pluto
(D) It was discovered before Pluto itself

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) It is approximately half the size of Pluto, leading the pair to be described as a ‘double planet’ system


Q12. The 15th United Nations Congress on Crime Prevention and Criminal Justice, held in Abu Dhabi, adopted the Abu Dhabi Declaration under the theme:

(A) Building Resilient Justice Systems for a Digital World
(B) Protecting People and Planet in the Digital Age
(C) Global Solidarity Against Organised Crime
(D) Rule of Law in the Age of Artificial Intelligence

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Protecting People and Planet in the Digital Age


Q13. Which UN body serves as the secretariat of the UN Congress on Crime Prevention and Criminal Justice and supports implementation of the Abu Dhabi Declaration?

(A) United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC)
(B) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
(C) Interpol
(D) United Nations Human Rights Council

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (A) United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC)


Q14. The Abu Dhabi Declaration draws attention to emerging criminal-network models described as ‘Crime as a Service’ and:

(A) Terrorism as a Service
(B) Violence as a Service
(C) Surveillance as a Service
(D) Espionage as a Service

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Violence as a Service


Q15. Under the Indian Ports Act, 2025, a Bulk Port qualifies for Mega Port status upon reaching an annual cargo throughput of:

(A) 50 MMT
(B) 100 MMT
(C) 150 MMT
(D) 250 MMT

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) 150 MMT


Q16. Under the same framework, a Container Port qualifies for Mega Port status upon handling an annual throughput of:

(A) 2.5 million TEUs
(B) 5 million TEUs
(C) 7.5 million TEUs
(D) 10 million TEUs

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) 7.5 million TEUs


Q17. Among the four ports notified as India’s first Mega Ports, which is the only one located on India’s eastern coast?

(A) Deendayal Port (Kandla)
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru Port (Nhava Sheva)
(C) Paradip Port
(D) Mundra Port

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) Paradip Port


Q18. Among the four notified Mega Ports, which is the only non-major port, illustrating that Mega Port status is distinct from the Major/Non-major Port classification?

(A) Deendayal Port (Kandla)
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru Port (Nhava Sheva)
(C) Paradip Port
(D) Mundra Port

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (D) Mundra Port


Q19. Mega Port designation under the Indian Ports Act, 2025, remains valid for:

(A) 2 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 10 years
(D) Indefinitely, once granted

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) 5 years


Q20. The Travel & Tourism Development Index (TTDI) 2026, published by the World Economic Forum, was originally introduced in 2007 under which earlier name?

(A) Global Tourism Competitiveness Report
(B) Travel & Tourism Competitiveness Index (TTCI)
(C) World Tourism Resilience Index
(D) Sustainable Tourism Benchmark Index

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Travel & Tourism Competitiveness Index (TTCI)


Q21. According to TTDI 2026, which country topped the global ranking in the index’s 10th edition?

(A) United States
(B) Spain
(C) Japan
(D) Australia

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) Japan


Q22. As per TTDI 2026, which country was the notable exception among the top 10 ranked economies, being an emerging rather than advanced economy?

(A) India
(B) Brazil
(C) China
(D) Indonesia

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) China


Q23. India’s rank in the TTDI 2026 improved to 31st from a previous rank of:

(A) 35th
(B) 39th
(C) 45th
(D) 54th

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) 39th


Q24. India’s first LNG-powered train, using an LNG-diesel dual-fuel system, was launched on which route?

(A) Delhi-Agra
(B) Sabarmati-Mahesana
(C) Mumbai-Pune
(D) Chennai-Bengaluru

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Sabarmati-Mahesana


Q25. As per the technology used in India’s first LNG-powered train, LNG is expected to replace approximately what proportion of diesel consumption?

(A) 10%
(B) 25%
(C) 40%
(D) 75%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) 40%


Q26. With reference to the distinction between LNG-powered and hydrogen-powered trains in India, which of the following statements is correct?

(A) Both use identical fuel-cell technology
(B) The LNG train uses a dual-fuel internal-combustion engine, while the hydrogen train uses a hydrogen fuel-cell system producing water vapour as a by-product
(C) The hydrogen train’s first route is Sabarmati-Mahesana
(D) The LNG train produces water vapour as its only emission

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) The LNG train uses a dual-fuel internal-combustion engine, while the hydrogen train uses a hydrogen fuel-cell system producing water vapour as a by-product


Q27. The Subansiri River, for which the Subansiri Upper Hydroelectric Project has received environmental-clearance recommendation, is best described as:

(A) A left-bank tributary of the Ganga originating in Nepal
(B) The largest right-bank tributary of the Brahmaputra, originating in Tibet
(C) A tributary of the Indus originating in Ladakh
(D) The main stem of the Brahmaputra River

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) The largest right-bank tributary of the Brahmaputra, originating in Tibet


Q28. The Subansiri River is popularly referred to as the ‘Gold River’ because:

(A) It flows through gold-mining regions of Assam
(B) Gold dust has reportedly been found in its waters
(C) Its waters appear golden due to sediment deposits at sunset
(D) It was historically used to transport gold from Tibet

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Gold dust has reportedly been found in its waters


Q29. World Tourism Day, observed on 27 September under the theme ‘Digital Agenda and Artificial Intelligence to Redesign Tourism’ in 2026, marks the anniversary of:

(A) The founding of the United Nations
(B) The adoption of the UNWTO Statutes in 1970
(C) The signing of the Paris Agreement
(D) The launch of the first commercial airline

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) The adoption of the UNWTO Statutes in 1970


Q30. Exercise KAZIND, the India-Kazakhstan joint military exercise whose 9th edition is being conducted at Oskemen, Kazakhstan, was originally instituted in 2016 under which name?

(A) Exercise Kazakh Shakti
(B) Exercise Prabal Dostyk
(C) Exercise Steppe Eagle
(D) Exercise Central Asia Bond

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Exercise Prabal Dostyk


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