Find the current affairs quiz 26 September 2026 by Exam Charcha.
Staying updated with current events is crucial, and this quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the latest happenings. The 26 September 2026 current affairs quiz covers the key events, news, and developments from this day.
Each question comes with multiple choices, and the correct answer is provided to help you learn. Whether you’re preparing for competitive exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz is a great way to assess your awareness of current affairs.
Current Affairs Quiz – 26 September 2026 (Test Now)
Q1. The core challenge to the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners Act, 2023, concerns the composition of the Selection Committee, specifically the replacement of the Chief Justice of India with:
(A) The Vice-President of India
(B) A Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister
(C) The Attorney General of India
(D) A retired Supreme Court judge nominated by Parliament
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister
Q2. As per Article 324(5), which of the following statements regarding the CEC’s service conditions is correct?
(A) The CEC’s service conditions can be varied to his disadvantage after appointment if Parliament so decides
(B) The CEC’s service conditions cannot be varied to his disadvantage after appointment
(C) Only the President can alter the CEC’s service conditions, without any restriction
(D) The CEC has no protection regarding service conditions once appointed
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The CEC’s service conditions cannot be varied to his disadvantage after appointment
Q3. In Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India (2023), pending a parliamentary law, the Supreme Court directed that Election Commissioner appointments be made on the advice of a committee comprising the Prime Minister, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and:
(A) A Union Cabinet Minister
(B) The Chief Justice of India
(C) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) The Comptroller and Auditor General
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The Chief Justice of India
Q4. Under the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners Act, 2023, the CEC and Election Commissioners hold office for six years or until attaining which age, whichever is earlier?
(A) 60 years
(B) 62 years
(C) 65 years
(D) 70 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 65 years
Q5. Black carbon, identified as contributing to accelerated Himalayan glacier melting, is primarily produced through:
(A) Complete combustion of natural gas
(B) Incomplete combustion of fossil fuels, biofuels and biomass
(C) Photosynthesis in high-altitude vegetation
(D) Volcanic outgassing exclusively
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Incomplete combustion of fossil fuels, biofuels and biomass
Q6. When black carbon deposits on snow and ice surfaces, it primarily contributes to accelerated melting by:
(A) Increasing the surface’s albedo, causing it to reflect more sunlight
(B) Reducing the surface’s albedo, causing it to absorb more solar radiation
(C) Releasing latent heat through chemical reactions with ice
(D) Blocking sunlight entirely, preventing any melting
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Reducing the surface’s albedo, causing it to absorb more solar radiation
Q7. With reference to black carbon’s atmospheric behaviour, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) It persists in the atmosphere for centuries, similar to COâ‚‚
(B) It is a short-lived climate pollutant, remaining in the atmosphere for days to weeks, though it has a strong near-term warming effect
(C) It has no measurable warming effect despite its atmospheric presence
(D) It is classified as a greenhouse gas rather than a particulate pollutant
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) It is a short-lived climate pollutant, remaining in the atmosphere for days to weeks, though it has a strong near-term warming effect
Q8. India’s first Canal-Top Photovoltaic (CTPV) installation was established in 2012 at:
(A) Vadodara, Gujarat
(B) Mehsana, Gujarat
(C) Ludhiana, Punjab
(D) Nashik, Maharashtra
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Mehsana, Gujarat
Q9. As per estimates cited for India’s CTPV and canal-bank solar potential, the total potential is estimated at approximately:
(A) 50 GW
(B) 80 GW
(C) 131 GW
(D) 200 GW
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 131 GW
Q10. Which of the following is cited as a key advantage of Canal-Top Photovoltaics?
(A) Significantly lower installation costs compared with ground-mounted solar plants
(B) Minimal additional land requirement and reduced water evaporation from the canal
(C) Elimination of the need for grid-connection infrastructure
(D) Complete immunity from structural maintenance requirements
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Minimal additional land requirement and reduced water evaporation from the canal
Q11. A key roadblock associated with CTPV projects, as compared with large contiguous solar parks, relates to:
(A) Excessive land acquisition requirements
(B) The linear configuration of canals, which can increase generation costs due to substation placement and directional changes
(C) The complete unavailability of suitable canal infrastructure in India
(D) A ban on solar installations over water bodies
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The linear configuration of canals, which can increase generation costs due to substation placement and directional changes
Q12. The Make in India initiative, which completed 12 years of implementation, was launched in which year and is spearheaded by which department?
(A) 2014; Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT)
(B) 2016; Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
(C) 2019; NITI Aayog
(D) 2020; Ministry of Heavy Industries
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) 2014; Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT)
Q13. Among the four pillars of Make in India, ‘New Mindset’ primarily refers to:
(A) Simplifying regulatory procedures to improve Ease of Doing Business
(B) Reorienting government’s role from a regulator towards an active facilitator of investment and industrial growth
(C) Building new industrial corridors and manufacturing ecosystems
(D) Liberalising FDI norms in new sectors
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Reorienting government’s role from a regulator towards an active facilitator of investment and industrial growth
Q14. As per data cited on the achievements of Make in India, cumulative FDI inflows increased by approximately what percentage over the preceding twelve years, reaching around $843 billion?
(A) 69%
(B) 100%
(C) 169%
(D) 250%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 169%
Q15. Despite the achievements of Make in India, which of the following persisting bottlenecks has been highlighted?
(A) Manufacturing’s share of GDP has already crossed the 25% target
(B) Manufacturing continues to account for around 16-17% of GDP, considerably below the 25% target
(C) Manufacturing employment has more than doubled since 2016-17
(D) India’s gross R&D expenditure already exceeds 2% of GDP
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Manufacturing continues to account for around 16-17% of GDP, considerably below the 25% target
Q16. Polylactic Acid (PLA), whose commercial use was recently launched under the BioE3 framework, is manufactured using renewable organic resources such as corn starch, tapioca and sugarcane, through which sequence of processes?
(A) Biomass → Sugars → Lactic Acid → Polymerisation → PLA
(B) Biomass → Polymerisation → Sugars → Lactic Acid → PLA
(C) Biomass → Lactic Acid → Polymerisation → Sugars → PLA
(D) Biomass → PLA directly, without intermediate steps
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Biomass → Sugars → Lactic Acid → Polymerisation → PLA
Q17. With reference to PLA’s properties, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) PLA has higher thermal resistance than PET and can withstand very high temperatures
(B) PLA possesses high mechanical strength and optical clarity but softens above approximately 55-60°C
(C) PLA is entirely petroleum-derived, like conventional plastics
(D) PLA cannot be used in any biomedical application
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) PLA possesses high mechanical strength and optical clarity but softens above approximately 55-60°C
Q18. PLA’s bio-resorbable property, useful in biomedical applications such as surgical sutures, arises because inside the human body it:
(A) Remains chemically inert and is never broken down
(B) Undergoes hydrolysis and breaks down into lactic acid, a naturally occurring metabolic product
(C) Triggers an immune rejection response
(D) Converts into a toxic by-product requiring surgical removal
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Undergoes hydrolysis and breaks down into lactic acid, a naturally occurring metabolic product
Q19. The OECD’s Interim Economic Outlook projected India’s economic growth for FY 2026-27 at approximately:
(A) 5.5%
(B) 6.3%
(C) 7.1%
(D) 8.5%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 7.1%
Q20. As per the OECD’s assessment, India’s growth momentum is expected to moderate towards late 2026 primarily due to risks including persistent inflation and:
(A) A sharp decline in domestic consumption
(B) Weather-related agricultural risks
(C) Complete cessation of government price-support measures
(D) A collapse in India’s export markets
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Weather-related agricultural risks
Q21. With reference to India’s relationship with the OECD, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) India is a full member of the OECD
(B) India is not an OECD member but is one of its five Key Partners
(C) India chairs the OECD’s Development Assistance Committee
(D) India withdrew from OECD partner status in 2020
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) India is not an OECD member but is one of its five Key Partners
Q22. Pandit Deendayal Upadhyaya’s principal philosophical contribution, ‘Integral Humanism’ (Ekatma Manavavad), emphasised the balanced development of which four dimensions of human existence?
(A) Body, Mind, Intellect and Soul
(B) Economy, Society, Polity and Culture
(C) Village, District, State and Nation
(D) Agriculture, Industry, Trade and Services
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Body, Mind, Intellect and Soul
Q23. Antyodaya Diwas, observed on 25 September to mark Deendayal Upadhyaya’s birth anniversary, embodies the idea that:
(A) Industrial growth should take precedence over social welfare
(B) Development should ultimately benefit the last and most marginalised person in society
(C) Foreign investment should be prioritised over domestic enterprise
(D) Urbanisation should be actively promoted over rural development
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Development should ultimately benefit the last and most marginalised person in society
Q24. Deendayal Upadhyaya’s economic thought, which criticised highly centralised and capital-intensive industrialisation, favoured greater emphasis on:
(A) Large-scale, capital-intensive public sector enterprises
(B) Labour-intensive, small-scale and cottage industries
(C) Complete reliance on foreign direct investment
(D) State-controlled collective farming on the Soviet model
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Labour-intensive, small-scale and cottage industries
Q25. ‘Analogue paneer’, addressed by FSSAI’s proposed draft regulations, refers to a paneer-like product in which milk fat or milk protein is substituted with:
(A) Additional milk solids from a different source
(B) Non-milk ingredients such as starches and vegetable fats
(C) Only additional water, without any substitution
(D) Synthetic vitamins and minerals
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Non-milk ingredients such as starches and vegetable fats
Q26. Under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, food marketed or sold under the name of another food (such as analogue paneer sold as paneer) is treated as:
(A) Adulterated food, attracting imprisonment only
(B) Misbranded food, attracting a penalty of up to ₹3 lakh
(C) Substandard food, requiring only a warning notice
(D) Unsafe food, requiring immediate recall without penalty
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Misbranded food, attracting a penalty of up to ₹3 lakh
Q27. As per the External Affairs Minister’s remarks at the High-Level Meeting of Like-Minded Global South Countries, developing countries collectively account for over 40% of global output and merchandise trade but only around what share of global financial markets?
(A) 10%
(B) 25%
(C) 50%
(D) 70%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 25%
Q28. Among the challenges in empowering the Global South, ‘fragmentation of cooperation’ refers to the difficulty in formulating a common agenda despite platforms such as:
(A) NATO, EU and ASEAN
(B) G20, BRICS, G77 and NAM
(C) IMF, World Bank and WTO alone
(D) UNSC, ICJ and ICC
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) G20, BRICS, G77 and NAM
Q29. PB-SHABD, whose adoption by more than 3,600 media organisations was recently highlighted, is a centralised news-feed service developed by which organisation?
(A) Press Trust of India (PTI)
(B) Prasar Bharati
(C) Press Information Bureau (PIB)
(D) Doordarshan News exclusively
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Prasar Bharati
Q30. The DURGA Scheme, approved by the Delhi Cabinet to provide ‘Pink’ electric auto-rickshaws to women and transgender individuals, primarily aims to promote dignified self-employment, asset ownership and:
(A) Reduced fuel subsidies
(B) Sustainable urban mobility
(C) Increased vehicle import duties
(D) Privatisation of public transport
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Sustainable urban mobility
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26 September 2026 Current Affairs