Find the current affairs quiz 23 September 2026 by Exam Charcha.
Staying updated with current events is crucial, and this quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the latest happenings. The 23 September 2026 current affairs quiz covers the key events, news, and developments from this day.
Each question comes with multiple choices, and the correct answer is provided to help you learn. Whether you’re preparing for competitive exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz is a great way to assess your awareness of current affairs.
Current Affairs Quiz – 23 September 2026 (Test Now)
Q1. The Partners for Multilateralism, International Law, Peace and Prosperity (P4M) initiative, launched at the 81st UN General Assembly, was conceptualised by leaders from the European Union, Brazil, Canada and:
(A) South Africa
(B) Kenya
(C) Indonesia
(D) Mexico
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Kenya
Q2. Among the initial co-sponsors of the P4M initiative were India, Barbados and:
(A) Japan
(B) Australia
(C) Germany
(D) South Korea
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Australia
Q3. The ‘Carney Doctrine’, reflected in P4M’s strategic approach, primarily seeks to:
(A) Intensify competition among major powers such as the US, China and Russia
(B) Provide an alternative to intense great-power rivalry through coordinated middle-power action
(C) Establish a new military alliance to counter major powers
(D) Replace the United Nations with a new global body
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Provide an alternative to intense great-power rivalry through coordinated middle-power action
Q4. In Jaskaran Jeet Singh Deol v. State of Punjab (2026), the Supreme Court held that a violation of Article 22(1), involving failure to furnish written grounds of arrest, can be retrospectively cured by:
(A) Filing of a chargesheet or the court taking cognisance
(B) Nothing — such violation cannot be retrospectively validated by subsequent proceedings
(C) Payment of compensation to the accused
(D) A formal apology from the investigating officer
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Nothing — such violation cannot be retrospectively validated by subsequent proceedings
Q5. As per the Supreme Court’s ruling, the grounds of arrest under Article 22(1) must be furnished:
(A) Orally, at the discretion of the arresting officer
(B) In writing, in a language understood by the accused, with a copy furnished at the earliest
(C) Only if specifically requested by the accused’s lawyer
(D) Within 30 days of the arrest
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) In writing, in a language understood by the accused, with a copy furnished at the earliest
Q6. As per the Court’s prescribed procedure for re-arrest following an unconstitutional arrest, which of the following is required before custodial interrogation can proceed?
(A) Approval from the arresting officer’s immediate superior alone, without judicial scrutiny
(B) A fresh application before a Magistrate, carrying superior-officer endorsement, followed by independent judicial scrutiny
(C) Consent of the accused’s family members
(D) A public hearing before the State Human Rights Commission
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A fresh application before a Magistrate, carrying superior-officer endorsement, followed by independent judicial scrutiny
Q7. Where re-arrest is sought after an Article 22(1) violation, the Supreme Court directed that:
(A) The same investigating officer must continue the investigation for continuity
(B) The investigation be transferred to another officer, with a departmental inquiry initiated against those responsible for the original violation
(C) The case be automatically dismissed
(D) The accused be granted permanent immunity from any future arrest
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The investigation be transferred to another officer, with a departmental inquiry initiated against those responsible for the original violation
Q8. India’s rural sanitation coverage increased from around 39% in 2014 to 100% by 2019, with rural India declared Open Defecation Free (ODF) under which mission?
(A) Namami Gange Programme
(B) Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin)
(C) Jal Jeevan Mission
(D) National Rural Livelihoods Mission
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin)
Q9. Under the three-tier ODF Plus village categorisation, a ‘Model’ village is characterised by:
(A) Managing only solid waste
(B) Managing only liquid waste
(C) Managing both solid and liquid waste, maintaining visual cleanliness, and displaying ODF Plus messaging
(D) Managing neither solid nor liquid waste but achieving 100% toilet coverage
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Managing both solid and liquid waste, maintaining visual cleanliness, and displaying ODF Plus messaging
Q10. The GOBARdhan initiative, an umbrella programme under SBM-G Phase II, primarily converts cattle dung and organic waste into:
(A) Drinking water and desalinated brine
(B) Biogas/Compressed Biogas and organic manure/bio-slurry
(C) Synthetic fertilisers and industrial chemicals
(D) Construction-grade cement
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Biogas/Compressed Biogas and organic manure/bio-slurry
Q11. NdFeB (Neodymium-Iron-Boron) magnets, rare-earth permanent magnets known for the highest magnetic strength among commercially available permanent magnets, are primarily composed of neodymium, iron and boron, forming which crystal structure?
(A) Nd₂Fe₁₄B tetragonal structure
(B) NdFe₂B₃ cubic structure
(C) Nd₃FeB₂ hexagonal structure
(D) NdFeB₄ orthorhombic structure
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Nd₂Fe₁₄B tetragonal structure
Q12. Standard NdFeB magnets can undergo irreversible demagnetisation above approximately what temperature, with dysprosium or terbium added to improve high-temperature performance?
(A) 30°C
(B) 80°C
(C) 150°C
(D) 300°C
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 80°C
Q13. China’s global dominance in rare-earth magnet supply is reflected in it accounting for around what share of global rare-earth magnet refining and sintered permanent-magnet production in 2024, respectively?
(A) 50% refining; 60% production
(B) 70% refining; 80% production
(C) 91% refining; 94% production
(D) 99% refining; 99% production
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 91% refining; 94% production
Q14. India’s Rare Earth Permanent Magnet (REPM) Scheme, approved by the Union Cabinet in 2025 with an outlay of ₹7,280 crore, functions under which ministry and targets what capacity?
(A) Ministry of Mines; 3,000 MTPA
(B) Ministry of Heavy Industries; 6,000 MTPA
(C) Ministry of Commerce and Industry; 10,000 MTPA
(D) Ministry of Science and Technology; 1,000 MTPA
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Ministry of Heavy Industries; 6,000 MTPA
Q15. Agentic AI is best distinguished from conventional Generative AI by its ability to:
(A) Only generate new text, images or audio content
(B) Autonomously plan, make decisions, use digital tools and execute multi-step actions towards a specified goal
(C) Only respond to a single predefined instruction at a time
(D) Function exclusively without any access to external tools or APIs
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Autonomously plan, make decisions, use digital tools and execute multi-step actions towards a specified goal
Q16. ‘Agentic misalignment’ refers to a situation in which:
(A) An AI system fails to load correctly due to a software bug
(B) An AI agent autonomously takes actions that conflict with the objectives, instructions or interests of its human operator
(C) Two AI systems produce identical outputs
(D) An AI system requires excessive computational resources
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) An AI agent autonomously takes actions that conflict with the objectives, instructions or interests of its human operator
Q17. Among the key concerns associated with Agentic AI, which relates to determining who bears responsibility when an autonomous system makes a consequential decision?
(A) Privacy
(B) Accountability
(C) Tool utilisation
(D) Multi-step execution
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Accountability
Q18. Under Section 113 of the Lindsey O. Graham Sanctioning Russia and Iran Act, 2026, the United States is authorised to impose tariffs of up to what rate on goods from designated countries linked to Russian energy purchases or sanctions evasion?
(A) 25%
(B) 50%
(C) 100%
(D) 500%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 100%
Q19. Under Section 112 of the Act, tariffs of up to what rate may be imposed directly on goods imported from Russia?
(A) 100%
(B) 250%
(C) 500%
(D) 1,000%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 500%
Q20. With reference to India’s potential exposure under the Act, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) India is entirely exempt since it does not import Russian crude oil
(B) India, as the world’s second-largest buyer of Russian crude after China, could face exposure under Section 113, potentially affecting a broad range of exports beyond energy
(C) The Act applies only to European countries
(D) The Act specifically excludes any tariff exposure for goods beyond crude oil
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) India, as the world’s second-largest buyer of Russian crude after China, could face exposure under Section 113, potentially affecting a broad range of exports beyond energy
Q21. The India Deep Tech Alliance (IDTA), which announced investments of around ₹2,170 crore in 56 deep-tech companies at SEMICON India 2026, was originally launched at:
(A) SEMICON India 2023
(B) SEMICON India 2024
(C) SEMICON India 2025
(D) SEMICON India 2026 itself
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) SEMICON India 2025
Q22. The India Semiconductor Academy (ISA), established through a partnership between IDTA and SEMI, primarily aims to:
(A) Provide venture capital funding to semiconductor start-ups
(B) Develop a skilled, fab-ready workforce for India’s semiconductor manufacturing ecosystem
(C) Regulate semiconductor import tariffs
(D) Certify semiconductor chip designs for export
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Develop a skilled, fab-ready workforce for India’s semiconductor manufacturing ecosystem
Q23. SEMICON India, the annual semiconductor conference at which IDTA announcements were made, is organised by the India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) under which ministry?
(A) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
(B) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
(C) Ministry of Science and Technology
(D) NITI Aayog
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
Q24. The National Statistical Office (NSO), which recently released district-level labour market indicators for the first time, was established in 2019 by merging the Central Statistical Organisation with:
(A) The Registrar General of India
(B) The National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO)
(C) The Directorate General of Commercial Intelligence and Statistics
(D) The Reserve Bank of India’s statistical wing
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO)
Q25. As per the NSO’s district-level labour market data on the 100 most populous districts, which district recorded the highest LFPR and WPR, and which recorded the lowest?
(A) Surat (highest); Darbhanga (lowest)
(B) Mumbai (highest); Patna (lowest)
(C) Bengaluru (highest); Gaya (lowest)
(D) Ahmedabad (highest); Muzaffarpur (lowest)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Surat (highest); Darbhanga (lowest)
Q26. The Worker Population Ratio (WPR), one of the key labour market indicators, is defined as:
(A) The percentage of unemployed persons among those in the labour force
(B) The percentage of the population that is employed or engaged in an economic activity
(C) The percentage of the population not in employment, education or training
(D) The ratio of male to female workers in a district
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The percentage of the population that is employed or engaged in an economic activity
Q27. Elias 2-24 b, recently confirmed as the youngest known exoplanet at less than 1 million years old, orbits which type of star?
(A) A red giant nearing the end of its life
(B) Elias 2-24, a young T Tauri star in the pre-main-sequence stage
(C) A white dwarf remnant
(D) A neutron star
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Elias 2-24, a young T Tauri star in the pre-main-sequence stage
Q28. Elias 2-24 b, a Jupiter-like gas giant, is located within a narrow gap in its protoplanetary disk, approximately how far from its host star, in a system lying within the Ophiuchus molecular cloud?
(A) 5 astronomical units (AU)
(B) 55 astronomical units (AU)
(C) 150 astronomical units (AU)
(D) 500 astronomical units (AU)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 55 astronomical units (AU)
Q29. The Core Accretion Model of planet formation, relevant to understanding Elias 2-24 b’s development, proposes that:
(A) A giant planet forms directly through gravitational instability in a gas cloud, without a solid core
(B) A solid planetary core first forms through accumulation of dust and planetesimals, later capturing surrounding gas to form a giant planet
(C) Planets form entirely from stellar material ejected during a supernova
(D) Gas giants form only around binary star systems
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A solid planetary core first forms through accumulation of dust and planetesimals, later capturing surrounding gas to form a giant planet
Q30. SLINEX-26, the 13th edition of the India-Sri Lanka bilateral maritime exercise conducted at Visakhapatnam, involved which Indian Navy ships?
(A) INS Vikrant and INS Kolkata
(B) INS Kavaratti and INS Jyoti
(C) INS Chennai and INS Delhi
(D) INS Sahyadri and INS Tarkash
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) INS Kavaratti and INS Jyoti
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23 September 2026 Current Affairs