Practice the September 2026 Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the third week of September 2026.
The Current Affairs Quiz of 15 to 21 September features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.
3rd Week of September 2026: Current Affairs Quiz
Q1. With reference to India’s jute sector, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) India is the world’s largest producer of raw jute and accounts for around 75% of global jute-goods production
(B) India accounts for less than 10% of global jute-goods production
(C) West Bengal accounts for less than 20% of India’s jute production
(D) Jute cultivation in India is entirely concentrated in the Western Ghats
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) India is the world’s largest producer of raw jute and accounts for around 75% of global jute-goods production
Q2. The Jute Packaging Materials Act, 1987, provides a guaranteed domestic market for jute by mandating that:
(A) 50% of food grains be packed in jute bags
(B) 100% of food grains and 20% of sugar be packed in jute bags
(C) All cement be packed exclusively in jute bags
(D) Only export-bound food grains be packed in jute bags
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 100% of food grains and 20% of sugar be packed in jute bags
Q3. Fluorosis, a form of chronic fluoride toxicity, most commonly affects children below eight years of age in which of its forms?
(A) Skeletal fluorosis
(B) Non-skeletal fluorosis
(C) Dental fluorosis
(D) Neurological fluorosis
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Dental fluorosis
Q4. The Nalgonda Technique, used for defluoridating drinking water, primarily utilises which combination of chemicals to facilitate flocculation and sedimentation?
(A) Alum, lime and bleaching powder
(B) Chlorine, ozone and activated carbon
(C) Sodium hypochlorite and potassium permanganate
(D) Sulphuric acid and calcium carbonate
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Alum, lime and bleaching powder
Q5. As per the CGWB Annual Ground Water Quality Report 2024, fluoride concentration exceeded 1.5 mg/L at approximately what proportion of sampled locations in India, with which state recording the highest proportion?
(A) 9.04% of samples; Rajasthan recording the highest proportion
(B) 25% of samples; Gujarat recording the highest proportion
(C) 2% of samples; Punjab recording the highest proportion
(D) 50% of samples; Tamil Nadu recording the highest proportion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) 9.04% of samples; Rajasthan recording the highest proportion
Q6. The Incentive Scheme for Promotion of Domestic PNG Connections, operational from 1 September 2026, primarily provides incentives to CGD entities for:
(A) Laying new pipeline infrastructure in unconnected regions
(B) Converting unbilled/inactive connections into active, billed connections
(C) Reducing the retail price of LPG cylinders
(D) Exporting surplus natural gas to neighbouring countries
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Converting unbilled/inactive connections into active, billed connections
Q7. Under the incentive scheme, for every eligible incremental PNG connection, the CGD entity receives an additional allocation of how much domestically produced APM gas, intended to substitute costlier LNG used in the CNG segment?
(A) 50 SCM
(B) 100 SCM
(C) 200 SCM
(D) 500 SCM
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 200 SCM
Q8. The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB), the statutory body authorising City Gas Distribution entities, was established under legislation enacted in which year?
(A) 2000
(B) 2003
(C) 2006
(D) 2010
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2006
Q9. With reference to ‘Processing Dominance’ as a channel of weaponisation of critical minerals, China’s concentrated position in processing more than 90% of which resource used in permanent magnets is frequently cited as an example?
(A) Lithium
(B) Rare earths
(C) Cobalt
(D) Copper
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Rare earths
Q10. The US ‘Foreign Direct Product Rule’, cited as an example of extraterritorial controls in the weaponisation of technology, primarily operates by:
(A) Extending domestic regulations to foreign-made products incorporating controlled US technology or software
(B) Imposing tariffs on all imported semiconductors
(C) Banning the export of raw materials from the United States
(D) Requiring foreign governments to adopt US environmental standards
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Extending domestic regulations to foreign-made products incorporating controlled US technology or software
Q11. India’s National Critical Mineral Mission seeks to reduce import dependence and supply vulnerabilities through measures including all of the following EXCEPT:
(A) Domestic mineral production and processing
(B) Acquisition of overseas mineral assets
(C) Strategic stockpiling and recycling
(D) Complete prohibition on all mineral imports
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Complete prohibition on all mineral imports
Q12. India became the 14th member of which US-led initiative aimed at diversifying critical-mineral supply chains, joining in June 2023?
(A) Pax Silica
(B) Minerals Security Partnership (MSP)
(C) IPEF Supply Chain Agreement
(D) Quad Critical Minerals Initiative
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Minerals Security Partnership (MSP)
Q13. With reference to the BRICS New Delhi Declaration 2026, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) China and Russia reiterated support for India and Brazil to play a greater role in the UN Security Council
(B) The declaration explicitly endorsed the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM)
(C) India retained the BRICS Chairmanship for 2027 as well
(D) The declaration rejected any reform of the IMF and World Bank
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) China and Russia reiterated support for India and Brazil to play a greater role in the UN Security Council
Q14. The BRICS New Delhi Declaration 2026 opposed which of the following as a trade barrier presented in the guise of an environmental measure?
(A) The Paris Agreement
(B) The Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM)
(C) The WTO Dispute Settlement Mechanism
(D) The UN Comprehensive Convention on International Terrorism
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM)
Q15. Following the conclusion of the 18th BRICS Summit in New Delhi, the BRICS Chairmanship for 2027 was handed over by India to:
(A) Brazil
(B) Russia
(C) China
(D) South Africa
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) China
Q16. With reference to the New Delhi Declaration’s stance on regional conflicts, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) BRICS called for an immediate ceasefire in Gaza and supported UNRWA while opposing the displacement of Palestinians
(B) BRICS unanimously endorsed the displacement of Palestinians as a security necessity
(C) BRICS members unanimously withdrew support for UNRWA
(D) BRICS declined to comment on any regional conflicts
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) BRICS called for an immediate ceasefire in Gaza and supported UNRWA while opposing the displacement of Palestinians
Q17. The recently reported Badri calf, born using Ovum Pick-Up and In Vitro Fertilisation (OPU-IVF) technology, was produced by transferring a Badri embryo into which recipient breed of cattle?
(A) Gir cow
(B) Sahiwal cow
(C) Tharparkar cow
(D) Red Sindhi cow
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Sahiwal cow
Q18. Badri cattle, an indigenous hill breed reared in the Kumaon and Garhwal regions of Uttarakhand, are particularly noted for:
(A) Very high milk productivity comparable to crossbred cattle
(B) Sure-footedness on steep mountainous terrain and milk rich in A2 beta-casein
(C) Being primarily used as draught animals in coastal plains
(D) Producing milk with negligible fat and protein content
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Sure-footedness on steep mountainous terrain and milk rich in A2 beta-casein
Q19. In the OPU-IVF process, the genetic parentage of the resulting calf is determined by:
(A) The recipient/surrogate cow that carries the pregnancy
(B) The egg donor and sperm donor, with the surrogate contributing no genetic material
(C) A combination of the surrogate cow’s and donor’s genetic material in equal proportion
(D) Random genetic recombination independent of either donor
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The egg donor and sperm donor, with the surrogate contributing no genetic material
Q20. Mokha (Mocha) Port and Perim (Mayun) Island, recently seized by Houthi forces, derive their strategic importance from their proximity to which maritime chokepoint?
(A) Strait of Hormuz
(B) Strait of Malacca
(C) Bab el-Mandeb Strait
(D) Strait of Gibraltar
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Bab el-Mandeb Strait
Q21. The Bab el-Mandeb Strait, meaning ‘Gate of Tears’, connects the Red Sea with which water body, and separates Yemen from which African countries?
(A) The Gulf of Aden; separating Yemen from Djibouti and Eritrea
(B) The Persian Gulf; separating Yemen from Oman
(C) The Arabian Sea directly; separating Yemen from Somalia only
(D) The Mediterranean Sea; separating Yemen from Egypt
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) The Gulf of Aden; separating Yemen from Djibouti and Eritrea
Q22. Approximately what share of global seaborne oil and petroleum-product trade passes through the Bab el-Mandeb Strait?
(A) 2%
(B) 12%
(C) 25%
(D) 40%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 12%
Q23. The Colombo Security Conclave (CSC), which conducted a Table Top Exercise at the Eastern Naval Command, Visakhapatnam, originated in 2011 as a trilateral NSA-level dialogue involving India, Sri Lanka and:
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Mauritius
(C) Maldives
(D) Seychelles
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Maldives
Q24. The Permanent Secretariat of the Colombo Security Conclave is located in:
(A) New Delhi, India
(B) Colombo, Sri Lanka
(C) Malé, Maldives
(D) Port Louis, Mauritius
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Colombo, Sri Lanka
Q25. Which of the following is NOT one of the five core pillars of cooperation under the Colombo Security Conclave?
(A) Maritime Safety and Security
(B) Counter-Terrorism and Radicalisation
(C) Trade Tariff Harmonisation
(D) Cybersecurity and Technology
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Trade Tariff Harmonisation
Q26. The tiny plasma vortices recently observed by the Daniel K. Inouye Solar Telescope at the boundaries of solar granules are primarily attributed to which fluid instability, arising from velocity shear between adjacent plasma flows?
(A) Rayleigh-Taylor Instability
(B) Kelvin-Helmholtz Instability
(C) Jeans Instability
(D) Parker Instability
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Kelvin-Helmholtz Instability
Q27. As the plasma vortices on the Sun’s surface rotate, they twist and braid magnetic field lines, storing magnetic energy that can later be released through magnetic reconnection, potentially triggering:
(A) Solar flares and Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs)
(B) Lunar eclipses
(C) Auroral displays on Venus
(D) Sunspot cycle reversal
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Solar flares and Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs)
Q28. As per the classification of rainfed cultivation systems, ‘Dry Farming’ refers to crop cultivation in areas receiving annual rainfall of:
(A) More than 1,150 mm
(B) More than 750 mm but less than 1,150 mm
(C) Less than 750 mm
(D) Exactly 1,000 mm
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Less than 750 mm
Q29. As per the UNEP-CCAC assessment ‘Hidden Assets’, globally, every US$1 invested in integrated climate and clean-air measures could generate approximately how much in economic benefits?
(A) US$2
(B) US$5
(C) US$15
(D) US$50
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) US$15
Q30. Luxembourg, whose Deputy Prime Minister Xavier Bettel recently visited India, is described as the world’s only sovereign entity of which type?
(A) Grand Duchy
(B) Principality
(C) Sultanate
(D) Emirate
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Grand Duchy
Q31. The New Development Bank (NDB), initially known as the BRICS Development Bank, was established through an agreement signed at which BRICS Summit?
(A) 4th BRICS Summit, New Delhi (2012)
(B) 6th BRICS Summit, Fortaleza (2014)
(C) 8th BRICS Summit, Goa (2016)
(D) 9th BRICS Summit, Xiamen (2017)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 6th BRICS Summit, Fortaleza (2014)
Q32. With reference to the New Development Bank’s voting structure and headquarters, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) China holds veto power over all financing decisions
(B) Founding members have equal voting rights, with no single country holding veto power, and the Bank is headquartered in Shanghai
(C) The Bank’s headquarters are located in New Delhi, India
(D) Voting rights are proportional strictly to each country’s GDP
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Founding members have equal voting rights, with no single country holding veto power, and the Bank is headquartered in Shanghai
Q33. Under the NDB’s General Strategy 2022-2026, the Bank aims to allocate what proportion of its total approvals to projects supporting climate-change mitigation and adaptation?
(A) 20%
(B) 30%
(C) 40%
(D) 60%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 40%
Q34. The Munshi-Ayyangar Formula, adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 14 September 1949 and commemorated as Hindi Diwas, primarily provided for:
(A) Immediate and exclusive adoption of Hindi as the sole official language
(B) A 15-year transitional period during which the use of Hindi by the Union could gradually expand, alongside continued use of English
(C) Permanent retention of English as the only official language
(D) Abolition of all regional languages from official use
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A 15-year transitional period during which the use of Hindi by the Union could gradually expand, alongside continued use of English
Q35. Under Article 344 of the Constitution, the President is required to constitute a Commission after five years, and subsequently after ten years, from the commencement of the Constitution, primarily to make recommendations on:
(A) Delimitation of parliamentary constituencies
(B) The progressive use of Hindi and related language matters
(C) Reorganisation of states on linguistic lines
(D) Judicial appointments to High Courts
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The progressive use of Hindi and related language matters
Q36. Article 350A of the Constitution places a responsibility on States and local authorities to:
(A) Conduct all judicial proceedings in Hindi
(B) Provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage for children of linguistic minorities
(C) Appoint a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
(D) Ban the use of English in school curricula
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage for children of linguistic minorities
Q37. With reference to the changing nature of terrorism in India, the period between initial radicalisation and potential attack activity has reportedly:
(A) Lengthened from weeks in 2005 to more than a year by 2026
(B) Shortened considerably, from more than a year in 2005 to weeks by 2026
(C) Remained largely unchanged over the past two decades
(D) Become entirely unpredictable and unmeasurable
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Shortened considerably, from more than a year in 2005 to weeks by 2026
Q38. PRAHAAR, referenced as a strategic development in India’s counter-terrorism approach for 2026, is best described as:
(A) A joint military exercise between India and neighbouring countries
(B) India’s first comprehensive National Counter-Terrorism Policy and Strategy, adopting a whole-of-government approach
(C) A UN-led international counter-terrorism financing mechanism
(D) A bilateral extradition treaty
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) India’s first comprehensive National Counter-Terrorism Policy and Strategy, adopting a whole-of-government approach
Q39. The South Asia Wildlife Enforcement Network (SAWEN), which adopted the Kathmandu Declaration at its first General Assembly, was formally established in which year and country?
(A) 2005 in India
(B) 2011 in Bhutan
(C) 2015 in Nepal
(D) 2019 in Bangladesh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 2011 in Bhutan
Q40. The permanent Secretariat of the South Asia Wildlife Enforcement Network (SAWEN) is located in:
(A) New Delhi, India
(B) Dhaka, Bangladesh
(C) Kathmandu, Nepal
(D) Colombo, Sri Lanka
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Kathmandu, Nepal
Q41. The BRICS Photovoltaic Industry Action Plan, welcomed at the 18th BRICS Summit in New Delhi, functions under which specialised working group of the Partnership on New Industrial Revolution (PartNIR)?
(A) BRICS Photovoltaic Industry Working Group
(B) BRICS Digital Economy Working Group
(C) BRICS Critical Minerals Task Force
(D) BRICS Renewable Energy Council
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) BRICS Photovoltaic Industry Working Group
Q42. As per data cited in the context of India’s photovoltaic industry, India’s solar PV module manufacturing capacity expanded from approximately 2.3 GW in 2014 to approximately how much by March 2026?
(A) 50 GW
(B) 100 GW
(C) 172 GW
(D) 250 GW
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 172 GW
Q43. When the RBI conducts Open Market Operations (OMOs) by selling Government Securities in the market, the immediate effect on rupee liquidity in the financial system is to:
(A) Inject additional liquidity into the system
(B) Absorb or suck out excess liquidity from the system
(C) Have no effect on liquidity
(D) Only affect foreign currency liquidity, not rupee liquidity
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Absorb or suck out excess liquidity from the system
Q44. With reference to Government Securities (G-Secs) in India, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) State Governments can issue both Treasury Bills and dated securities
(B) Only the Central Government issues Treasury Bills, while State Governments issue only bonds/dated securities known as State Development Loans
(C) Treasury Bills have an original maturity of more than one year
(D) G-Secs are considered high-risk instruments due to significant default risk
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Only the Central Government issues Treasury Bills, while State Governments issue only bonds/dated securities known as State Development Loans
Q45. India recently became the world’s fourth-largest holder of foreign exchange reserves, overtaking which country?
(A) Switzerland
(B) Japan
(C) Russia
(D) South Korea
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Russia
Q46. India’s foreign exchange reserves, managed by the RBI, broadly consist of all of the following EXCEPT:
(A) Foreign Currency Assets
(B) Gold
(C) Special Drawing Rights and Reserve Position in the IMF
(D) Domestic government tax revenue
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Domestic government tax revenue
Q47. The India-MERCOSUR Preferential Trade Agreement (PTA), under which the First Additional Protocol was recently signed, was signed in 2004 and entered into force in which year?
(A) 2004
(B) 2006
(C) 2009
(D) 2012
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2009
Q48. The First Additional Protocol to the India-MERCOSUR PTA primarily provides for:
(A) Complete elimination of tariffs on all traded goods
(B) Legal recognition of electronically signed Certificates of Origin, with the same validity as paper certificates
(C) Formation of a customs union between India and MERCOSUR
(D) Withdrawal of India from the PTA
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Legal recognition of electronically signed Certificates of Origin, with the same validity as paper certificates
Q49. Copper, referred to as ‘Dr. Copper’ because its price movements are regarded as an indicator of global economic activity, has the chemical symbol and atomic number respectively:
(A) Co; 27
(B) Cu; 29
(C) Cp; 20
(D) Cu; 19
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Cu; 29
Q50. Among Indian states, which of the following is a major copper-producing state, as highlighted in recent reporting?
(A) Kerala
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) West Bengal
(D) Punjab
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Madhya Pradesh
Q51. The Ramanathaswamy Temple, showcased at Bharat Mandapam during the 18th BRICS Summit, is regarded as which of the 12 Jyotirlingas, and is also one of the four Char Dham sites?
(A) The northernmost Jyotirlinga
(B) The southernmost Jyotirlinga
(C) The easternmost Jyotirlinga
(D) The westernmost Jyotirlinga
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The southernmost Jyotirlinga
Q52. The Ramanathaswamy Temple’s grand corridors and monumental gopurams, largely developed between the 15th and 18th centuries, are particularly associated with the patronage of:
(A) Nayak rulers and Sethupathi rulers of Ramanathapuram
(B) Chola and Pandya rulers exclusively
(C) The Vijayanagara Empire alone
(D) Mughal governors of the Deccan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Nayak rulers and Sethupathi rulers of Ramanathapuram
Q53. Sir M. Visvesvaraya, whose birth anniversary is commemorated as National Engineers’ Day, served as the Dewan of which princely state from 1912 to 1918?
(A) Travancore
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Mysore
(D) Baroda
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Mysore
Q54. Sir M. Visvesvaraya designed and patented automatic weir floodgates, first installed in 1903 at which reservoir near Pune?
(A) Panshet Reservoir
(B) Khadakwasla Reservoir
(C) Ujani Reservoir
(D) Mulshi Reservoir
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Khadakwasla Reservoir
Q55. Operation Deep Manifest, under which the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) seized more than 362 MT of Pakistan-origin dry dates, primarily targets:
(A) Domestic tax evasion by Indian corporates
(B) Smuggling of Pakistan-origin goods into India through third-country routing
(C) Cyber-fraud involving cryptocurrency exchanges
(D) Illegal wildlife trafficking within India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Smuggling of Pakistan-origin goods into India through third-country routing
Q56. The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI), India’s apex anti-smuggling agency, functions under which body?
(A) Ministry of Home Affairs
(B) Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC), Ministry of Finance
(C) National Investigation Agency (NIA)
(D) Enforcement Directorate (ED)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC), Ministry of Finance
Q57. The Thirukkural, a Russian translation of which was gifted by the Indian Prime Minister to the Russian President, comprises how many couplets, organised into how many chapters?
(A) 1,000 couplets in 100 chapters
(B) 1,330 couplets in 133 chapters
(C) 700 couplets in 70 chapters
(D) 1,500 couplets in 150 chapters
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 1,330 couplets in 133 chapters
Q58. The Thirukkural is structured around three major divisions dealing with ethics and human values. Which of the following correctly identifies these divisions?
(A) Dharma, Artha, Kama
(B) Aram (Virtue), Porul (Polity), Inbam (Love)
(C) Gyan, Karma, Bhakti
(D) Satya, Ahimsa, Tapas
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Aram (Virtue), Porul (Polity), Inbam (Love)
Q59. The Rajbhasha Kirti Puraskar, the highest award for implementation of official language policy, is conferred annually on Hindi Diwas by which body?
(A) Ministry of Culture
(B) Department of Official Language, Ministry of Home Affairs
(C) University Grants Commission
(D) Sahitya Akademi
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Department of Official Language, Ministry of Home Affairs
Q60. Paraguay, which recently commemorated 65 years of diplomatic relations with India, is a landlocked country in South America bordered by Argentina, Brazil and:
(A) Chile
(B) Bolivia
(C) Peru
(D) Uruguay
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Bolivia
Q61. The 1951 Convention Relating to the Status of Refugees, which recently marked its 75th anniversary, designates which organisation as its guardian?
(A) International Organization for Migration (IOM)
(B) United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR)
(C) United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC)
(D) International Committee of the Red Cross (ICRC)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR)
Q62. The principle of ‘non-refoulement’, a core principle of the 1951 Refugee Convention, holds that:
(A) A refugee must be granted citizenship within five years of arrival
(B) A refugee should not be returned to a country where they face serious threats to their life or freedom
(C) Refugees have an unrestricted right to choose their country of asylum
(D) States must provide refugees with the right to vote in national elections
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A refugee should not be returned to a country where they face serious threats to their life or freedom
Q63. The 1967 Protocol to the Refugee Convention primarily served to:
(A) Restrict the Convention’s application only to European refugees
(B) Remove the Convention’s original geographical and temporal restrictions, extending its applicability beyond the post-WWII European context
(C) Abolish the principle of non-refoulement
(D) Transfer guardianship of the Convention from UNHCR to the UN Secretary-General
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Remove the Convention’s original geographical and temporal restrictions, extending its applicability beyond the post-WWII European context
Q64. With reference to India’s position on international refugee instruments, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) India is a party to both the 1951 Convention and the 1967 Protocol
(B) India is a party to the 1967 Protocol but not the original 1951 Convention
(C) India is not a party to either the 1951 Convention or its 1967 Protocol
(D) India ratified the 1951 Convention with reservations
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) India is not a party to either the 1951 Convention or its 1967 Protocol
Q65. The Merchant Discount Rate (MDR), a fee associated with digital payment transactions, is best described as:
(A) A government-levied tax on digital transactions
(B) A fee paid by merchants for payment-processing services, generally calculated as a percentage of the transaction value
(C) A fee charged exclusively to consumers for using digital wallets
(D) An interest rate charged on delayed merchant settlements
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A fee paid by merchants for payment-processing services, generally calculated as a percentage of the transaction value
Q66. The Zero-MDR policy for specified UPI and RuPay transactions was introduced through which legislative provision?
(A) Section 269SU of the Income-tax Act, 1961, alone
(B) Section 10A of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, inserted by the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2019
(C) Section 45ZA of the RBI Act, 1934
(D) Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Section 10A of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, inserted by the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2019
Q67. Under the Revised UPI MDR Framework announced in 2026, which of the following categories remains MDR-free irrespective of the transaction value?
(A) Person-to-Person (P2P) transfers
(B) Person-to-Merchant (P2M) payments above ₹2,000
(C) Capital-market payments above ₹1 lakh
(D) All merchant payments through third-party apps
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Person-to-Person (P2P) transfers
Q68. Under the 2026 UPI MDR framework, Person-to-Merchant (P2M) transactions exceeding ₹2,000 attract a standard MDR of:
(A) 0.1%
(B) 0.4%
(C) 1%
(D) 2%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 0.4%
Q69. With reference to the distinction between MDR and interchange fee, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Interchange fee is charged directly to the merchant, while MDR is paid between banks
(B) MDR is paid by merchants for payment processing, while interchange fee is paid by the acquiring bank to the issuing bank and is not charged directly to the merchant
(C) Both terms refer to the same fee structure
(D) Interchange fee applies only to UPI, while MDR applies only to credit cards
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) MDR is paid by merchants for payment processing, while interchange fee is paid by the acquiring bank to the issuing bank and is not charged directly to the merchant
Q70. Under Section 128 of the Indian Contract Act, referenced in the context of personal guarantors under the IBC, the liability of a guarantor is generally:
(A) Limited to 50% of the principal debtor’s liability
(B) Co-extensive with that of the principal debtor, unless the contract provides otherwise
(C) Extinguished automatically once the principal debtor’s resolution plan is approved
(D) Applicable only after a five-year waiting period
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Co-extensive with that of the principal debtor, unless the contract provides otherwise
Q71. In Lalit Kumar Jain v. Union of India (2021), the Supreme Court held that:
(A) Approval of a corporate debtor’s resolution plan automatically discharges the personal guarantor from liability
(B) Approval of a corporate debtor’s resolution plan does NOT automatically discharge the personal guarantor from liability
(C) Personal guarantors cannot be proceeded against under the IBC at all
(D) Only the NCLAT, not the NCLT, can adjudicate personal guarantor insolvency
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Approval of a corporate debtor’s resolution plan does NOT automatically discharge the personal guarantor from liability
Q72. Which authority adjudicates insolvency and bankruptcy proceedings involving personal guarantors of corporate debtors under the IBC?
(A) National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT)
(B) National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)
(C) Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT)
(D) Supreme Court of India directly
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)
Q73. Among the challenges identified in the resolution of personal guarantor insolvency, which of the following relates to potential conflicts of interest in creditor decision-making?
(A) Lack of digital infrastructure at the NCLT
(B) Creditors connected to the guarantor, but falling outside the narrow statutory definition of ‘associate’ under Section 79(2), participating in voting
(C) Excessive judicial delay in appointing resolution professionals
(D) Absence of any statutory timeline for resolution
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Creditors connected to the guarantor, but falling outside the narrow statutory definition of ‘associate’ under Section 79(2), participating in voting
Q74. Among the amendments proposed by the IBBI for personal guarantor insolvency resolution, which of the following is included?
(A) Complete removal of creditor voting on repayment plans
(B) Mandatory asset valuation by a registered valuer, covering both fair value and realisable value, before creditors vote
(C) Automatic conversion of all personal guarantor cases into corporate insolvency proceedings
(D) Abolition of the resolution professional’s role in the process
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Mandatory asset valuation by a registered valuer, covering both fair value and realisable value, before creditors vote
Q75. The Indian Cybercrime Coordination Centre (I4C), with which Meta has agreed to directly report child-safety matters, functions under which ministry and is headquartered where?
(A) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology; Bengaluru
(B) Ministry of Home Affairs; New Delhi
(C) Ministry of Women and Child Development; Mumbai
(D) Ministry of Law and Justice; Hyderabad
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Ministry of Home Affairs; New Delhi
Q76. Which of the following is a key objective of the Indian Cybercrime Coordination Centre (I4C)?
(A) Regulating cryptocurrency exchanges
(B) Functioning as an early-warning mechanism and facilitator for cybercrime complaint reporting
(C) Issuing digital signature certificates
(D) Administering the Income Tax e-filing portal
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Functioning as an early-warning mechanism and facilitator for cybercrime complaint reporting
Q77. The national cybercrime reporting mechanism coordinated by I4C particularly aims to strengthen protection for which vulnerable groups?
(A) Senior citizens and pensioners exclusively
(B) Women and children
(C) Foreign nationals residing in India
(D) Government employees only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Women and children
Q78. India recently entered the Guinness World Records for building the world’s longest road using processed steel-slag aggregates. This 1.85-km road is located in:
(A) Bhilai, Chhattisgarh
(B) Raigarh, Chhattisgarh
(C) Rourkela, Odisha
(D) Jamshedpur, Jharkhand
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Raigarh, Chhattisgarh
Q79. With reference to the benefits of using processed steel slag in road construction, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) It has increased road construction costs by nearly 40%
(B) It has reduced road construction costs by nearly 40% and lowered pavement thickness by around 35%
(C) It has no measurable impact on construction cost or durability
(D) It requires significantly more natural stone aggregate than conventional roads
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) It has reduced road construction costs by nearly 40% and lowered pavement thickness by around 35%
Q80. Steel slag, the primary material used in the Raigarh road project, is best described as:
(A) A rare earth mineral extracted from mining
(B) A solid industrial by-product generated during the steel-making process, containing complex silicates and oxides
(C) A synthetic polymer used in plastic recycling
(D) A naturally occurring volcanic rock
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A solid industrial by-product generated during the steel-making process, containing complex silicates and oxides
Q81. World Ozone Day 2026, observed on 16 September, commemorated the Montreal Protocol and marked 10 years since the adoption of which amendment?
(A) Doha Amendment
(B) Kigali Amendment
(C) Beijing Amendment
(D) Kampala Amendment
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Kigali Amendment
Q82. The Kigali Amendment (2016) to the Montreal Protocol primarily mandates the phase-down of which class of chemicals?
(A) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
(B) Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs)
(C) Sulphur hexafluoride (SF₆)
(D) Nitrous oxide (Nâ‚‚O)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs)
Q83. Full implementation of the Kigali Amendment is projected to prevent global warming of approximately how much by 2100?
(A) 0.1°C
(B) 0.5°C
(C) 1.5°C
(D) 2°C
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 0.5°C
Q84. As per the 2022 UNEP-WMO assessment on ozone layer recovery, the ozone layer over Antarctica is expected to return to 1980 levels by approximately:
(A) 2040
(B) 2045
(C) 2066
(D) 2100
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2066
Q85. Samvatsari, regarded as the holiest day in the Jain calendar, falls on the final day of which festival and is also known as ‘Kshama Yachna Divas’?
(A) Mahavir Jayanti
(B) Paryushana Parva
(C) Diwali (Jain)
(D) Akshaya Tritiya
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Paryushana Parva
Q86. Paryushana Parva, the most sacred annual festival in Jainism, is primarily dedicated to:
(A) Agricultural harvest celebrations
(B) Spiritual introspection, purification and the practice of universal forgiveness
(C) Commemoration of royal victories
(D) Seasonal changes in the lunar calendar
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Spiritual introspection, purification and the practice of universal forgiveness
Q87. Nuakhai, primarily celebrated in Western Odisha, southern Chhattisgarh and adjoining Jharkhand, is traditionally associated with which practice?
(A) Worship of the new harvest, linked to the Vedic Pralambana Yajna
(B) Commemoration of a naval victory
(C) The founding of a Buddhist monastery
(D) The coronation of a Mughal emperor
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Worship of the new harvest, linked to the Vedic Pralambana Yajna
Q88. Nuakhai is traditionally credited with being institutionalised in the 14th century by which ruler?
(A) Raja Ramai Deo of Patnagarh
(B) Raja Man Singh of Amber
(C) Rana Kumbha of Mewar
(D) Raja Ganga of Odisha
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Raja Ramai Deo of Patnagarh
Q89. The S-71K Kovyor, recently unveiled by Russia, is best described as:
(A) A submarine-launched ballistic missile
(B) A turbojet-powered, air-launched stealth cruise missile intended for the Su-57E fighter aircraft
(C) An unmanned reconnaissance drone
(D) A hypersonic glide vehicle for intercontinental use
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A turbojet-powered, air-launched stealth cruise missile intended for the Su-57E fighter aircraft
Q90. Matryoshka dolls, associated with Russian culture and referenced at the 18th BRICS Summit, are traditionally:
(A) Ceramic figurines representing Russian folk heroes
(B) Wooden nesting dolls consisting of progressively smaller hollow figures placed inside one another
(C) Painted metal ornaments used during Orthodox Christmas
(D) Woven textile dolls used in traditional Russian weddings
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Wooden nesting dolls consisting of progressively smaller hollow figures placed inside one another
Q91. The 1991 India-Pakistan Advance Notice Agreement, invoked following the collision involving PNS Hunain in the North Arabian Sea, was signed against the background of which 1987 event?
(A) The Siachen conflict
(B) Exercise Brass Tacks IV, a large-scale Indian military mobilisation near the Pakistan border
(C) The Kargil conflict
(D) Operation Meghdoot
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Exercise Brass Tacks IV, a large-scale Indian military mobilisation near the Pakistan border
Q92. Under Article 10 of the 1991 India-Pakistan Advance Notice Agreement, naval vessels and submarines of the two countries operating in international waters are required to maintain a minimum separation of:
(A) 1 nautical mile
(B) 3 nautical miles
(C) 10 nautical miles
(D) 12 nautical miles
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 3 nautical miles
Q93. Under the advance notice requirements of the 1991 Agreement, which of the following military activities requires the LONGEST advance notice period?
(A) Air exercises (15 days)
(B) Divisional and major naval exercises (30 days)
(C) Corps-level exercises (60 days)
(D) Army-level exercises (90 days)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Army-level exercises (90 days)
Q94. The India Electric Mobility Index (IEMI), released by NITI Aayog in collaboration with WRI India, assigns the highest weightage to which theme?
(A) Charging Infrastructure Readiness (30%)
(B) Transport Electrification Progress (50%)
(C) EV Research and Innovation Status (20%)
(D) All three themes are weighted equally
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Transport Electrification Progress (50%)
Q95. The IEMI comprises 16 indicators broadly divided into which two categories?
(A) Fiscal and Non-Fiscal Indicators
(B) Outcome Indicators and Enabler Indicators
(C) Urban and Rural Indicators
(D) Public and Private Sector Indicators
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Outcome Indicators and Enabler Indicators
Q96. As per data cited in the IEMI report, electric vehicles’ share of total vehicle sales in India increased from approximately 0.5% in 2018 to approximately what figure in 2025-26?
(A) 2%
(B) 5%
(C) 8.25%
(D) 15%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 8.25%
Q97. Space weaponisation involving the physical destruction or damage of satellites and other space assets, such as Anti-Satellite (ASAT) weapons, is classified as:
(A) Non-kinetic weaponisation
(B) Kinetic weaponisation
(C) Cyber weaponisation
(D) Electromagnetic weaponisation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Kinetic weaponisation
Q98. ‘Kessler Syndrome’, a key challenge associated with space weaponisation, refers to:
(A) The gradual decay of satellite orbits due to atmospheric drag
(B) A possible cascading chain of collisions between objects in orbit, generating increasing amounts of space debris
(C) The jamming of satellite communication signals
(D) The loss of satellite power due to solar flares
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A possible cascading chain of collisions between objects in orbit, generating increasing amounts of space debris
Q99. With reference to the Outer Space Treaty, 1967, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) It comprehensively prohibits all conventional weapons and anti-satellite warfare in Earth orbit
(B) It prohibits placing nuclear weapons or weapons of mass destruction in orbit, but does not comprehensively prohibit conventional weapons in Earth orbit
(C) It permits the placement of nuclear weapons on celestial bodies for defensive purposes
(D) It has been superseded entirely by the Artemis Accords
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) It prohibits placing nuclear weapons or weapons of mass destruction in orbit, but does not comprehensively prohibit conventional weapons in Earth orbit
Q100. The Artemis Accords, an international initiative led by NASA and the US Department of State, are best described as:
(A) A legally binding arms-control treaty prohibiting space-based weapons
(B) A set of voluntary principles for cooperation in the peaceful exploration and use of outer space
(C) A UN Security Council resolution on space debris
(D) A bilateral agreement exclusively between the US and Russia
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A set of voluntary principles for cooperation in the peaceful exploration and use of outer space
Q101. India’s Net Zero Portal, launched by the MoEFCC, encourages Indian entities to report which categories of greenhouse gas emissions on a mandatory basis, while keeping another category voluntary?
(A) Scope 1 and Scope 2 mandatory; Scope 3 voluntary
(B) Scope 1 mandatory; Scope 2 and Scope 3 voluntary
(C) All three scopes are mandatory
(D) All three scopes are entirely voluntary
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Scope 1 and Scope 2 mandatory; Scope 3 voluntary
Q102. The NAPCC Dashboard, launched alongside the Net Zero Portal, primarily serves to:
(A) Regulate carbon credit trading among private companies
(B) Track the implementation and progress of the National Missions under the National Action Plan on Climate Change
(C) Certify Indian products for carbon-neutral labelling
(D) Replace the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Track the implementation and progress of the National Missions under the National Action Plan on Climate Change
Q103. The Union Cabinet’s recent decision on the EPFO wage ceiling raises the threshold for mandatory coverage from ₹15,000 to:
(A) ₹18,000
(B) ₹20,000
(C) ₹25,000
(D) ₹30,000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) ₹25,000
Q104. The EPFO wage ceiling, previously raised to ₹15,000 in September 2014, had remained unchanged since which year prior to that revision?
(A) 1996
(B) 2000
(C) 2004
(D) 2008
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2004
Q105. Which of the following is NOT one of the three major schemes administered by the EPFO?
(A) Employees’ Provident Funds Scheme, 1952
(B) Employees’ Pension Scheme, 1995
(C) Employees’ Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme, 1976
(D) Employees’ State Insurance Scheme, 1948
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Employees’ State Insurance Scheme, 1948
Q106. The Kishau Multipurpose Project, for which a Memorandum of Agreement was recently signed, involves the construction of a 232.6-metre-high concrete gravity dam across which river?
(A) Beas River
(B) Ravi River
(C) Tons River
(D) Sutlej River
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Tons River
Q107. The Kishau Multipurpose Project is being implemented through which Special Purpose Vehicle, incorporated in 2017 as a joint venture between Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh?
(A) Tons Valley Corporation
(B) Kishau Corporation Limited
(C) Yamuna Basin Development Authority
(D) Upper Himalaya Power Corporation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Kishau Corporation Limited
Q108. Under the funding pattern for the Kishau Project, which has been accorded the status of a National Project, the Central Government bears what proportion of the water component cost?
(A) 50%
(B) 70%
(C) 90%
(D) 100%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 90%
Q109. As per the criteria used to define a Census Town in India, which of the following combinations is correct?
(A) Population of at least 3,000; at least 50% of male working population in non-agricultural activities; density of at least 300 persons/sq. km
(B) Population of at least 5,000; at least 75% of male working population in non-agricultural activities; density of at least 400 persons/sq. km
(C) Population of at least 10,000; at least 90% of male working population in non-agricultural activities; density of at least 500 persons/sq. km
(D) Population of at least 5,000; at least 60% of male working population in non-agricultural activities; density of at least 200 persons/sq. km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Population of at least 5,000; at least 75% of male working population in non-agricultural activities; density of at least 400 persons/sq. km
Q110. As per the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM), satellite-based estimates suggest India’s urbanisation rate could have been as high as what figure in 2015, compared with the 2011 Census figure of around 31.2%?
(A) 35%
(B) 45%
(C) 63%
(D) 80%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 63%
Q111. The Indian Council of World Affairs (ICWA), India’s oldest non-official foreign policy think tank, was established in 1943 under the leadership of:
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru
(C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(D) C. Rajagopalachari
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru
Q112. ICWA was accorded the status of an Institution of National Importance under legislation enacted in which year?
(A) 1943
(B) 1972
(C) 2001
(D) 2010
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2001
Q113. Under the governance structure of ICWA, who serves as its ex officio President?
(A) The Prime Minister of India
(B) The Vice-President of India
(C) The Minister of External Affairs
(D) The Cabinet Secretary
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The Vice-President of India
Q114. Anant Nag, recently named the recipient of the Dadasaheb Phalke Award for 2024, becomes the second Kannada actor to receive this honour, after:
(A) Puneeth Rajkumar
(B) Dr. Rajkumar
(C) Vishnuvardhan
(D) Shivarajkumar
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Dr. Rajkumar
Q115. With reference to the Dadasaheb Phalke Award, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) It was instituted in 1969, with Devika Rani as its first recipient
(B) It was instituted in 1952, with D.G. Phalke as its first recipient
(C) It is administered by the Central Board of Film Certification
(D) The cash prize has remained fixed at ₹10 lakh since inception
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) It was instituted in 1969, with Devika Rani as its first recipient
Q116. Sanjukta Parashar, recently appointed Inspector General of CoBRA, has become the first woman officer to head this force. CoBRA, established in 2008, is a specialised component of which force?
(A) Border Security Force (BSF)
(B) Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)
(C) Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)
(D) Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)
Q117. CoBRA personnel are primarily trained for jungle warfare and counter-insurgency operations, particularly in the context of countering:
(A) Cross-border terrorism in Jammu and Kashmir
(B) Left Wing Extremism (LWE)
(C) Maritime piracy
(D) Cyberterrorism
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Left Wing Extremism (LWE)
Q118. Sohar Port, which Oman has invited greater Indian investment into, derives strategic significance primarily because:
(A) It lies entirely within the Strait of Hormuz
(B) Ships accessing it do not need to pass through the narrow Strait of Hormuz, offering an alternative access point to Gulf energy resources
(C) It is Oman’s only port connected to the Arabian Sea
(D) It functions exclusively as a naval base with no commercial activity
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Ships accessing it do not need to pass through the narrow Strait of Hormuz, offering an alternative access point to Gulf energy resources
Q119. Oman, a unitary hereditary monarchy (Sultanate) on the Arabian Peninsula, shares land borders with which of the following countries?
(A) Saudi Arabia, UAE and Yemen
(B) Qatar, Bahrain and Kuwait
(C) Iran, Iraq and Jordan
(D) Egypt, Sudan and Libya
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Saudi Arabia, UAE and Yemen
Q120. The Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC), recently reconstituted by the Government of India, was established under which legislation and is headquartered where?
(A) Cinematograph Act, 1952; headquartered in Mumbai
(B) Information Technology Act, 2000; headquartered in New Delhi
(C) Press and Registration of Books Act, 1867; headquartered in Chennai
(D) Cable Television Networks Act, 1995; headquartered in Kolkata
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Cinematograph Act, 1952; headquartered in Mumbai
Q121. Section 299 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, criminalises acts intended to outrage religious feelings, provided that such acts involve:
(A) Mere unintentional offence to religious sentiments
(B) A deliberate and malicious intention to outrage the religious feelings of any class of citizens
(C) Any criticism of religious institutions, regardless of intent
(D) Only physical acts, excluding spoken or written words
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A deliberate and malicious intention to outrage the religious feelings of any class of citizens
Q122. Under Section 217 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, a court cannot take cognisance of an offence under BNS Section 299 without:
(A) A unanimous jury verdict
(B) Prior sanction from the Central or State Government
(C) Approval from the Supreme Court
(D) A public referendum on the matter
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Prior sanction from the Central or State Government
Q123. In Amish Devgan v. Union of India (2020), the Supreme Court addressed the problem of multiple FIRs arising from the same incident, holding that:
(A) Each FIR must be investigated separately by a different state
(B) Such FIRs should ordinarily be consolidated, with the first FIR forming the basis of a single investigation
(C) Multiple FIRs automatically invalidate the underlying complaint
(D) Only the Supreme Court can register FIRs relating to religious offence
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Such FIRs should ordinarily be consolidated, with the first FIR forming the basis of a single investigation
Q124. India rejected the newly operationalised Pakistan-China Boundary Joint Commission primarily on the ground that:
(A) It violates WTO trade norms
(B) It has no legal basis to make arrangements concerning territories India considers under illegal occupation
(C) China is not a party to the UN Charter
(D) It infringes upon SAARC’s regional mandate
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) It has no legal basis to make arrangements concerning territories India considers under illegal occupation
Q125. Under the 1963 China-Pakistan Boundary Agreement, Pakistan agreed to transfer which territory to China?
(A) Aksai Chin
(B) Shaksgam Valley (Trans-Karakoram Tract)
(C) Gilgit-Baltistan in its entirety
(D) The Siachen Glacier
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Shaksgam Valley (Trans-Karakoram Tract)
Q126. The China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC), which connects Kashgar in Xinjiang with Gwadar Port in Pakistan, is opposed by India primarily because:
(A) It threatens India’s maritime trade routes in the Indian Ocean
(B) A portion of it passes through Pakistan-occupied Kashmir, raising sovereignty concerns
(C) It competes directly with India’s Sagarmala programme
(D) It is not part of China’s Belt and Road Initiative
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A portion of it passes through Pakistan-occupied Kashmir, raising sovereignty concerns
Q127. Article 44 of the Constitution, which directs the State to endeavour to secure a Uniform Civil Code, is:
(A) A Fundamental Right enforceable in courts
(B) A Directive Principle of State Policy, non-justiciable under Article 37
(C) A Fundamental Duty under Article 51A
(D) An entry in the Union List
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A Directive Principle of State Policy, non-justiciable under Article 37
Q128. Family-law matters such as marriage, divorce and succession fall under which legislative list of the Seventh Schedule, allowing both Parliament and State Legislatures to legislate on them?
(A) Union List
(B) State List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) Residuary List
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Concurrent List
Q129. The 21st Law Commission’s 2018 consultation paper on ‘Reform of Family Law’ primarily recommended:
(A) Immediate nationwide implementation of a Uniform Civil Code
(B) Reforming discriminatory practices within personal laws, rather than treating a UCC as necessary or desirable at that stage
(C) Abolition of the Special Marriage Act, 1954
(D) Transferring family-law matters exclusively to the Union List
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Reforming discriminatory practices within personal laws, rather than treating a UCC as necessary or desirable at that stage
Q130. India’s Authorised Economic Operator (AEO) Programme, implemented by the CBIC, operates in accordance with which international framework?
(A) WTO Trade Facilitation Agreement exclusively
(B) The World Customs Organization’s SAFE Framework of Standards
(C) The Basel Convention
(D) The International Maritime Organization’s SOLAS Convention
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The World Customs Organization’s SAFE Framework of Standards
Q131. Under India’s AEO certification framework, which category represents the highest tier within the principal business certification structure?
(A) AEO-T1
(B) AEO-T2
(C) AEO-T3
(D) AEO-LO
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) AEO-T3
Q132. The AEO Programme supports India’s commitments under which provision of the WTO Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA)?
(A) Article 5.2
(B) Article 7.7
(C) Article 10.1
(D) Article 12.4
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Article 7.7
Q133. A Doppler Weather Radar (DWR) determines the speed and direction of movement of precipitation by measuring:
(A) The colour of the returned radar signal
(B) The Doppler shift — a change in frequency or phase of the returned signal compared with the transmitted signal
(C) The temperature of the atmosphere directly above the radar
(D) The humidity level at ground stations
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The Doppler shift — a change in frequency or phase of the returned signal compared with the transmitted signal
Q134. India’s 51st Doppler Weather Radar, recently inaugurated in Odisha, was commissioned under which mission of the Ministry of Earth Sciences?
(A) National Monsoon Mission
(B) Mission Mausam
(C) Climate Smart India Mission
(D) Mission LiFE
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Mission Mausam
Q135. Mission Mausam, launched in 2024, primarily aims to strengthen India’s capabilities in which of the following areas?
(A) Weather and climate observation, numerical modelling, forecasting, and early-warning systems
(B) Deep-sea mineral exploration
(C) Space-based missile defence
(D) Urban public transportation planning
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Weather and climate observation, numerical modelling, forecasting, and early-warning systems
Q136. As per the Global Gender Gap Report 2026, published by the World Economic Forum, India retained which rank among 145 economies, with a gender parity score of 64.5%?
(A) 101st
(B) 115th
(C) 131st
(D) 142nd
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 131st
Q137. Which country retained the top position in the Global Gender Gap Index 2026, being the only economy to have crossed the 90% gender-parity threshold?
(A) Finland
(B) Norway
(C) Iceland
(D) Sweden
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Iceland
Q138. Among the four subindices of the Global Gender Gap Index, India recorded its LOWEST parity score in:
(A) Educational Attainment
(B) Health and Survival
(C) Economic Participation and Opportunity
(D) Political Empowerment
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Political Empowerment
Q139. E.V. Ramasamy Periyar, whose birth anniversary is commemorated as Social Justice Day, led the Vaikom Satyagraha (1924-25), which primarily sought to:
(A) Secure voting rights for women
(B) Secure access to roads surrounding the Vaikom temple for oppressed castes
(C) Abolish the zamindari system in Travancore
(D) Promote Tamil as the sole official language of Madras Presidency
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Secure access to roads surrounding the Vaikom temple for oppressed castes
Q140. The Self-Respect Movement, launched by Periyar in 1925 after leaving the Indian National Congress, primarily promoted:
(A) Restoration of monarchical rule in South India
(B) Social equality, rationalism and a distinct Dravidian social identity, including Self-Respect Marriages
(C) Expansion of caste-based reservations exclusively in government jobs
(D) Reunification of the Madras Presidency with princely states
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Social equality, rationalism and a distinct Dravidian social identity, including Self-Respect Marriages
Q141. In 1944, Periyar reorganised the Justice Party into which organisation, which functioned primarily as a social reform body rather than an electoral party?
(A) Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK)
(B) Dravidar Kazhagam (DK)
(C) All India Anna Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (AIADMK)
(D) Tamil Nadu Congress Committee
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Dravidar Kazhagam (DK)
Q142. Hyderabad Liberation Day, notified in 2024 and observed on 17 September, commemorates which event of 1948?
(A) The signing of the Standstill Agreement
(B) The Nizam’s ceasefire announcement, marking the end of his independent rule following Operation Polo
(C) The formal creation of Andhra Pradesh
(D) The appointment of the first Rajpramukh of Hyderabad
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The Nizam’s ceasefire announcement, marking the end of his independent rule following Operation Polo
Q143. Operation Polo, India’s 1948 military action to integrate Hyderabad into the Indian Union, was officially described as:
(A) A full-scale war
(B) A Police Action
(C) A humanitarian mission
(D) A United Nations peacekeeping operation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A Police Action
Q144. Following the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, the territories of the former Hyderabad State were redistributed. Which of the following pairings is correct?
(A) Telugu-speaking region merged with Andhra State to form Andhra Pradesh
(B) Marathi-speaking regions joined Madhya Pradesh
(C) Kannada-speaking regions joined Kerala
(D) The entire state was retained as a single Union Territory
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Telugu-speaking region merged with Andhra State to form Andhra Pradesh
Q145. DRDO’s indigenously developed Gallium Nitride (GaN)-on-Silicon Carbide MMICs and HEMTs are primarily intended for use in next-generation radars and electronic warfare systems operating up to which frequency band?
(A) L-band
(B) S-band
(C) X-band
(D) Ku-band
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) X-band
Q146. Active Electronically Scanned Array (AESA) radars, which can integrate GaN-based MMICs, differ from conventional radar systems in that they:
(A) Rely on a single mechanically rotating antenna dish
(B) Steer the radar beam electronically rather than by physically rotating the antenna
(C) Cannot track more than one target at a time
(D) Operate exclusively using visible light rather than radio waves
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Steer the radar beam electronically rather than by physically rotating the antenna
Q147. Compared with conventional silicon, Gallium Nitride (GaN) semiconductor technology offers which of the following advantages?
(A) Lower breakdown voltage and poorer high-frequency performance
(B) Higher energy efficiency, higher breakdown voltage and better high-frequency performance
(C) Significantly lower thermal tolerance
(D) Suitability only for low-power civilian electronics
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Higher energy efficiency, higher breakdown voltage and better high-frequency performance
Q148. As per the Drugs Rules, 1945, medicines that generally cannot be sold without a prescription issued by a Registered Medical Practitioner fall under:
(A) Schedule G
(B) Schedule H
(C) Schedule M
(D) Schedule Y
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Schedule H
Q149. The proposed amendments to the Drugs Rules, 1945, strengthening oversight of Schedule H, H1 and X drugs, are primarily aimed at:
(A) Reducing the retail price of essential medicines
(B) Curbing unauthorised sale of prescription medicines and reducing their misuse, including concerns relating to antimicrobial resistance
(C) Promoting the export of Indian generic drugs
(D) Eliminating the need for pharmacist licensing
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Curbing unauthorised sale of prescription medicines and reducing their misuse, including concerns relating to antimicrobial resistance
Q150. India’s indigenous Life Cycle Assessment (LCA) framework for solid waste management, integrated with a digital GHG calculator, was jointly developed by IISc Bengaluru along with:
(A) IIT Madras and IIT-BHU Varanasi
(B) IIT Delhi and IIT Kanpur
(C) NEERI and CPCB exclusively
(D) IIT Bombay and TERI
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) IIT Madras and IIT-BHU Varanasi
Q151. The LCA framework for waste management primarily aims to help Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) by:
(A) Eliminating the need for Detailed Project Reports
(B) Providing scientific, environmental-impact-based inputs to select suitable waste-management technologies rather than relying primarily on lowest-cost procurement
(C) Mandating a single nationwide waste-treatment technology
(D) Replacing municipal solid waste rules with new central legislation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Providing scientific, environmental-impact-based inputs to select suitable waste-management technologies rather than relying primarily on lowest-cost procurement
Q152. As per the Copernicus Atmosphere Monitoring Service (CAMS), the 2026 Antarctic ozone hole expanded to approximately how large an area, around 5 million sq. km above the seasonal average?
(A) 10 million sq. km
(B) 15 million sq. km
(C) 25 million sq. km
(D) 35 million sq. km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 25 million sq. km
Q153. Polar Stratospheric Clouds (PSCs), which provide surfaces for ozone-destroying chemical reactions involving chlorine and bromine, form under conditions of:
(A) High stratospheric temperatures during summer
(B) Exceptionally low stratospheric temperatures during Antarctic winter
(C) High humidity in the troposphere
(D) Intense solar radiation during the Antarctic winter
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Exceptionally low stratospheric temperatures during Antarctic winter
Q154. CAMS identifies ozone-hole areas using a threshold of total column ozone below:
(A) 100 Dobson Units
(B) 220 Dobson Units
(C) 350 Dobson Units
(D) 500 Dobson Units
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 220 Dobson Units
Q155. CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species) was signed in 1973 in Washington, D.C., and entered into force in which year, with India becoming a Party in which year respectively?
(A) Entered into force 1975; India became a Party in 1976
(B) Entered into force 1980; India became a Party in 1985
(C) Entered into force 1973; India became a Party in 1973
(D) Entered into force 1992; India became a Party in 2002
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Entered into force 1975; India became a Party in 1976
Q156. Under the CITES Appendix system, species for which international commercial trade is generally prohibited, subject to limited exceptions, fall under:
(A) Appendix I
(B) Appendix II
(C) Appendix III
(D) Appendix IV
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Appendix I
Q157. India’s Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, was amended in 2022 to strengthen alignment with CITES obligations, primarily through:
(A) Abolishing all restrictions on wildlife trade
(B) Introducing a dedicated Schedule for CITES-listed specimens
(C) Transferring wildlife regulation entirely to State Governments
(D) Banning international wildlife research collaborations
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Introducing a dedicated Schedule for CITES-listed specimens
Q158. The recently discovered Diplodocus fossils in Teruel, Spain, are significant primarily because they represent:
(A) The first Diplodocus fossils ever discovered anywhere in the world
(B) The first known record of the Diplodocus genus outside North America
(C) The largest sauropod fossil ever found
(D) The only fossil evidence of Diplodocus feeding behaviour
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The first known record of the Diplodocus genus outside North America
Q159. Tharosaurus indicus, a diplodocoid fossil discovered in the Thar Desert region of Rajasthan in 2023 and dated to around 167 million years, is significant because it:
(A) Is the youngest known diplodocoid
(B) Has been described as the oldest known diplodocoid, supporting the idea that the superfamily may have originated in Gondwanan India
(C) Belongs to the same genus as Diplodocus
(D) Was discovered alongside intact soft tissue
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Has been described as the oldest known diplodocoid, supporting the idea that the superfamily may have originated in Gondwanan India
Q160. Under Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Urban (PMAY-U), houses are generally required to be registered:
(A) Exclusively in the name of the male head of household
(B) In the name of an adult female member, or under joint ownership of spouses
(C) In the name of the local municipal corporation
(D) In the name of the financing bank until the loan is repaid
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) In the name of an adult female member, or under joint ownership of spouses
Q161. Under PMAY-U 2.0’s Interest Subsidy Scheme (ISS), eligible households can receive a 4% interest subsidy on home loans of up to what amount, provided the property value does not exceed ₹35 lakh?
(A) ₹15 lakh
(B) ₹25 lakh
(C) ₹40 lakh
(D) ₹50 lakh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) ₹25 lakh
Q162. As per the concurrent evaluation conducted by IIM Mumbai on the PM Vishwakarma scheme, what proportion of surveyed beneficiaries reported a moderate to significant increase in income after training?
(A) 65%
(B) 75%
(C) 93%
(D) 50%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 93%
Q163. The PM Vishwakarma scheme is built around three pillars — Samman, Samarthya and Samriddh — which respectively refer to:
(A) Recognition/dignity, skill enhancement, and income generation/economic prosperity
(B) Digital access, credit support, and market linkage
(C) Registration, certification, and export promotion
(D) Training, toolkit distribution, and loan disbursement
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Recognition/dignity, skill enhancement, and income generation/economic prosperity
Q164. Under PM Vishwakarma’s credit-support component, the collateral-free enterprise development loan is disbursed in two tranches. What is the maximum amount available in the second tranche, at a concessional interest rate?
(A) ₹1 lakh
(B) ₹2 lakh
(C) ₹3 lakh
(D) ₹5 lakh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) ₹2 lakh
Q165. The 10th World Circular Economy Forum (WCEF) 2026, hosted in Gandhinagar, Gujarat, marks a significant milestone because it is:
(A) The first WCEF held anywhere in Asia
(B) The first WCEF held in South Asia
(C) The final edition of the WCEF series
(D) The first WCEF organised entirely by the private sector
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The first WCEF held in South Asia
Q166. The World Circular Economy Forum was originally launched in 2017 by:
(A) The United Nations Environment Programme
(B) Sitra, the Finnish Innovation Fund
(C) The World Economic Forum
(D) The OECD
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Sitra, the Finnish Innovation Fund
Q167. Djibouti’s recent signing of the Artemis Accords made it the 72nd country and the 8th African nation to join. The Artemis Accords are best described as:
(A) A legally binding international space-arms-control treaty
(B) A set of non-binding principles for responsible cooperation in lunar and deep-space exploration, complementing the Outer Space Treaty
(C) A UN Security Council resolution
(D) A bilateral agreement exclusively between the US and India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A set of non-binding principles for responsible cooperation in lunar and deep-space exploration, complementing the Outer Space Treaty
Q168. India signed the Artemis Accords in which year?
(A) 2020
(B) 2021
(C) 2023
(D) 2024
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2023
Q169. The Kosovo Specialist Chambers (KSC), which recently convicted former Kosovo President Hashim Thaçi of war crimes, is based in:
(A) Pristina, Kosovo
(B) The Hague, Netherlands
(C) Geneva, Switzerland
(D) Brussels, Belgium
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The Hague, Netherlands
Q170. Kosovo declared independence from Serbia in which year, and India’s position on this declaration is:
(A) Declared independence in 2008; India recognises Kosovo as independent
(B) Declared independence in 2008; India does not recognise Kosovo and supports Serbia’s territorial integrity
(C) Declared independence in 1999; India recognises Kosovo as independent
(D) Declared independence in 2011; India has taken no position
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Declared independence in 2008; India does not recognise Kosovo and supports Serbia’s territorial integrity
Q171. Kosovo, a landlocked territory in the Balkans, shares borders with Serbia, North Macedonia, Albania and:
(A) Bulgaria
(B) Montenegro
(C) Greece
(D) Bosnia and Herzegovina
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Montenegro
Q172. Acharya Vinoba Bhave, selected by Mahatma Gandhi as the first Individual Satyagrahi in 1940, launched the Bhoodan Movement in 1951 at:
(A) Sevagram, Maharashtra
(B) Pochampally, Telangana
(C) Champaran, Bihar
(D) Wardha, Maharashtra
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Pochampally, Telangana
Q173. The Bhoodan Movement, initiated by Vinoba Bhave, primarily sought to address rural landlessness through:
(A) Government acquisition and forced redistribution of agricultural land
(B) Voluntary donation of land by landowners, to be redistributed among the landless
(C) Nationalisation of all agricultural land
(D) Establishment of cooperative farming societies exclusively
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Voluntary donation of land by landowners, to be redistributed among the landless
Q174. Vinoba Bhave was posthumously conferred the Bharat Ratna in which year, having earlier received the Ramon Magsaysay Award for Community Leadership in 1958?
(A) 1975
(B) 1980
(C) 1983
(D) 1990
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 1983
Q175. SARAL AI, used by CSIR-NIScPR to convert research papers into accessible video summaries, is associated with which national initiative?
(A) Digital India Mission
(B) Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF)
(C) National Education Policy Implementation Cell
(D) Start-up India Initiative
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF)
Q176. The G20 Energy Abundance Ministerial Meeting, held in Houston, USA, and convened under the US G20 Presidency, was structured around three pillars including Energy Security and Affordable Baseload, Permitting and Regulatory Efficiency, and:
(A) Renewable Energy Subsidies
(B) Critical Minerals and Resilient Supply Chains
(C) Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanisms
(D) Nuclear Non-Proliferation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Critical Minerals and Resilient Supply Chains
Q177. Under the India-New Zealand Free Trade Agreement, signed in New Delhi in April 2026, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Around 95% of New Zealand’s exports to India will see tariff elimination or significant reduction, while all Indian goods obtain duty-free access to New Zealand
(B) Only agricultural goods are covered under the agreement
(C) The agreement excludes any tariff concessions from New Zealand
(D) The agreement primarily concerns services trade, excluding goods
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Around 95% of New Zealand’s exports to India will see tariff elimination or significant reduction, while all Indian goods obtain duty-free access to New Zealand
Q178. India’s first soil-carbon payments were recently released under the Aadi programme, benefiting farmers in Punjab and Haryana who adopted sustainable practices such as Direct Seeded Rice (DSR), reduced tillage and:
(A) Exclusive use of chemical fertilisers
(B) Crop-residue management to support emission reduction and soil-carbon improvement
(C) Complete cessation of rice cultivation
(D) Large-scale mechanised deep ploughing
Show Answer
Correct Answer:(B) Crop-residue management to support emission reduction and soil-carbon improvement
Download Free PDF
Download the September 2026 3rd Week Current Affairs Quiz PDF to easily access all questions and answers.
Study Current Affairs of September 3rd Week
For a detailed understanding of the major events from the 3rd week of September 2026, visit our comprehensive current affairs page. It covers all significant news and developments, providing essential insights to help you stay informed and well-prepared for exams or discussions.
15 September to 21 September (Weekly Current Affairs)
Try Current Affairs Quiz of Other Weeks
| 8 September to 14 September (Weekly Current Affairs Quiz) | 1 September to 7 September (Weekly Current Affairs Quiz) |