Find the current affairs quiz 12 September 2026 by Exam Charcha.
Staying updated with current events is crucial, and this quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the latest happenings. The 12 September 2026 current affairs quiz covers the key events, news, and developments from this day.
Each question comes with multiple choices, and the correct answer is provided to help you learn. Whether you’re preparing for competitive exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz is a great way to assess your awareness of current affairs.
Current Affairs Quiz – 12 September 2026 (Test Now)
Q1. A Registered Unrecognised Political Party (RUPP) is a party that is registered with the Election Commission of India under which provision, but has not fulfilled the conditions for recognition as a State or National Party?
(A) Article 324 of the Constitution
(B) Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951
(C) Section 123 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951
(D) The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, directly
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951
Q2. As per the Supreme Court’s ruling in Indian National Congress v. Institute of Social Welfare (2002), the Election Commission:
(A) Possesses unrestricted general power to deregister any political party at will
(B) Does not possess a general power to deregister parties, except in limited circumstances such as fraudulent registration or disavowal of allegiance to the Constitution
(C) Can deregister a party solely for not contesting any election
(D) Has no role whatsoever in matters of political party registration
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Does not possess a general power to deregister parties, except in limited circumstances such as fraudulent registration or disavowal of allegiance to the Constitution
Q3. Under the compliance requirements applicable to registered political parties, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) A registered party must contest at least one election within six years to demonstrate continued political activity
(B) Donations of any amount can be received in cash without disclosure
(C) Registration with the ECI is compulsory for contesting any election
(D) Star campaigners nominated by an RUPP are capped at five
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) A registered party must contest at least one election within six years to demonstrate continued political activity
Q4. As per the Consumer Protection (E-Commerce) (Amendment) Rules, 2026, which of the following requirements has been introduced regarding pricing and discounts?
(A) Platforms need only display the discounted price without reference to any previous price
(B) Platforms must display the discounted price along with the previous price, determined as the lowest price offered during the preceding 30 days
(C) Discounts on e-commerce platforms have been banned entirely
(D) Only government-run e-commerce platforms need to disclose pricing information
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Platforms must display the discounted price along with the previous price, determined as the lowest price offered during the preceding 30 days
Q5. Under the amended e-commerce rules, e-commerce entities are required to comply with which framework concerning manipulative design practices aimed at influencing consumer decisions?
(A) Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines) Rules, 2021
(B) Guidelines for Prevention and Regulation of Dark Patterns, 2023
(C) Competition (Amendment) Act, 2023
(D) Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, exclusively
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Guidelines for Prevention and Regulation of Dark Patterns, 2023
Q6. With reference to the UK’s recent restrictions on imports from Israeli settlements, the West Bank area that remains under full Israeli civil and military control as per the Oslo II Accord, constituting around 60% of the territory, is known as:
(A) Area A
(B) Area B
(C) Area C
(D) Area D
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Area C
Q7. The Oslo Accords, concluded between Israel and the Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO) during the 1990s, primarily sought to:
(A) Establish full Palestinian sovereignty immediately over the entire West Bank
(B) Create a framework for limited Palestinian self-government and conditions for a negotiated settlement
(C) Formally annex the West Bank to Jordan
(D) Dissolve the United Nations mandate over Palestine
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Create a framework for limited Palestinian self-government and conditions for a negotiated settlement
Q8. The Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002, was enacted by Parliament under which constitutional provision empowering legislation to implement international agreements?
(A) Article 245
(B) Article 253
(C) Article 356
(D) Article 368
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Article 253
Q9. Under the PMLA, the underlying criminal activity that must be established for an offence of money laundering to arise is referred to as a:
(A) Cognizable offence
(B) Predicate or scheduled offence
(C) Compoundable offence
(D) Non-bailable offence
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Predicate or scheduled offence
Q10. Which agency functions as India’s national repository for receiving, processing, analysing and disseminating financial intelligence relating to suspicious transactions under the PMLA framework?
(A) Directorate of Enforcement (ED)
(B) Financial Intelligence Unit-India (FIU-IND)
(C) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(D) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Financial Intelligence Unit-India (FIU-IND)
Q11. The Dryland Congress 2026, jointly organised by ICAR and ICRISAT in New Delhi, is being held under the theme:
(A) Water for All, Drylands for None
(B) Transforming Dryland Agriculture through South-South Cooperation
(C) Green Revolution 2.0 for Arid India
(D) Zero Hunger through Dryland Innovation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Transforming Dryland Agriculture through South-South Cooperation
Q12. As per the UN Environment Programme (UNEP), drylands are defined as regions with an Aridity Index below which threshold?
(A) 0.20
(B) 0.65
(C) 1.0
(D) 1.5
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 0.65
Q13. With reference to drylands in India, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Drylands account for around 68% of India’s cultivated area and support more than 40% of the population
(B) Drylands cover less than 10% of India’s cultivated area
(C) Drylands in India support negligible livestock population
(D) India has no dedicated policy framework for dryland rehabilitation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Drylands account for around 68% of India’s cultivated area and support more than 40% of the population
Q14. The Ministry of Home Affairs’ proposal to introduce a new ‘Chapter K’ under Article 371 for Ladakh primarily seeks to:
(A) Grant Ladakh full statehood immediately
(B) Provide constitutional safeguards and an elected institutional framework for protecting land, culture, language and natural resources
(C) Merge Ladakh administratively with Jammu and Kashmir
(D) Abolish the Union Territory status of Ladakh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Provide constitutional safeguards and an elected institutional framework for protecting land, culture, language and natural resources
Q15. Articles 371 to 371-J, contained in Part XXI of the Constitution, provide special provisions for various states. Which of the following correctly matches an article with its corresponding state?
(A) Article 371-A — Sikkim
(B) Article 371-F — Sikkim
(C) Article 371-H — Goa
(D) Article 371-J — Manipur
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Article 371-F — Sikkim
Q16. Govind Ballabh Pant, whose 139th birth anniversary was recently observed, served as the first Chief Minister of which state?
(A) Uttarakhand
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Bihar
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Uttar Pradesh
Q17. Govind Ballabh Pant is particularly associated with overseeing which major land-reform legislation as head of the Uttar Pradesh government?
(A) Land Acquisition Act, 1894
(B) Zamindari Abolition and Land Reforms Act, 1950
(C) Land Ceiling Act, 1972
(D) Tenancy Reforms Act, 1961
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Zamindari Abolition and Land Reforms Act, 1950
Q18. As Union Home Minister, Govind Ballabh Pant played a key role in implementing which reorganisation of Indian states?
(A) States Reorganisation Act, 1956, based substantially on linguistic lines
(B) Delimitation of parliamentary constituencies in 1971
(C) Creation of Union Territories under the Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act
(D) Formation of NITI Aayog replacing the Planning Commission
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) States Reorganisation Act, 1956, based substantially on linguistic lines
Q19. Orangutans, whose juveniles were recently rescued in Balasore, Odisha, are naturally distributed in which region?
(A) Amazon rainforest of South America
(B) Congo Basin of Central Africa
(C) The Southeast Asian islands of Borneo and Sumatra
(D) The Western Ghats of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) The Southeast Asian islands of Borneo and Sumatra
Q20. Which of the three extant orangutan species is considered the rarest of all great apes, restricted to the Batang Toru ecosystem of North Sumatra?
(A) Bornean Orangutan (Pongo pygmaeus)
(B) Sumatran Orangutan (Pongo abelii)
(C) Tapanuli Orangutan (Pongo tapanuliensis)
(D) Sunda Orangutan (Pongo sundaicus)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Tapanuli Orangutan (Pongo tapanuliensis)
Q21. With reference to the conservation status of orangutans, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) All three orangutan species are listed as ‘Least Concern’ on the IUCN Red List
(B) All three orangutan species are classified as Critically Endangered and listed under CITES Appendix I
(C) Orangutans are not covered under CITES since they are not traded internationally
(D) Only the Bornean orangutan is currently considered endangered
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) All three orangutan species are classified as Critically Endangered and listed under CITES Appendix I
Q22. The 27th World Knowledge Forum, held in Seoul, South Korea, was organised around the theme:
(A) Building a Sustainable Green Economy
(B) The Promethean Moment: Architecting the Co-Intelligence Order
(C) Reimagining Global Trade in a Multipolar World
(D) The Future of Work in the Digital Age
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The Promethean Moment: Architecting the Co-Intelligence Order
Q23. Eravikulam National Park, recently surveyed as a favourable habitat for the Resplendent Shrub Frog, is notable for being:
(A) India’s largest national park by area
(B) Kerala’s first national park, declared in 1978
(C) The only national park located entirely in the Eastern Ghats
(D) A designated Ramsar wetland site
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Kerala’s first national park, declared in 1978
Q24. Anamudi, the highest peak in South India, is located within which national park?
(A) Silent Valley National Park
(B) Periyar National Park
(C) Eravikulam National Park
(D) Mudumalai National Park
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Eravikulam National Park
Q25. The Navier-Stokes equations, whose existence-and-smoothness problem is one of the Millennium Prize Problems, are a set of partial differential equations primarily used to describe:
(A) The motion and behaviour of fluids
(B) The propagation of electromagnetic waves
(C) Quantum entanglement between particles
(D) The gravitational interaction between celestial bodies
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) The motion and behaviour of fluids
Q26. The Clay Mathematics Institute’s Millennium Prize Problems include the Navier-Stokes existence-and-smoothness question, which specifically asks whether:
(A) A polynomial-time algorithm exists for all NP problems
(B) Smooth, physically meaningful solutions exist for all time in three-dimensional fluid flow
(C) The Riemann Hypothesis can be proven using classical number theory
(D) A general algorithm exists for solving all Diophantine equations
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Smooth, physically meaningful solutions exist for all time in three-dimensional fluid flow
Q27. ORV Sagar Manthan, India’s first indigenously built Ocean Research Vessel, was built by which entity and functions under which nodal ministry?
(A) Cochin Shipyard Limited; Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways
(B) Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE); Ministry of Earth Sciences
(C) Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited; Ministry of Defence
(D) Hindustan Shipyard Limited; Ministry of Science and Technology
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE); Ministry of Earth Sciences
Q28. ORV Sagar Manthan forms part of which broader national initiative aimed at deep-sea exploration and the development of India’s Blue Economy?
(A) National Mission on Himalayan Studies
(B) Deep Ocean Mission (DOM)
(C) National Coastal Mission
(D) PM MITRA Scheme
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Deep Ocean Mission (DOM)
Q29. The ‘Early Warnings for All’ (EW4All) initiative, referenced in relation to the Addis Ababa Call to Action on Early Warnings in Africa, was launched by the UN Secretary-General in which year, with a target of ensuring universal coverage by which year?
(A) Launched in 2015; target 2025
(B) Launched in 2019; target 2030
(C) Launched in 2022; target 2027
(D) Launched in 2020; target 2028
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Launched in 2022; target 2027
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12 September 2026 Current Affairs