Practice the May 2025 2nd Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the Second week of May 2025.
The Current Affairs Quiz of 8 to 14 May features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.
2nd Week of May 2025: Current Affairs Quiz
1. Where was India’s first World Audio Visual and Entertainment Summit, WAVES 2025, inaugurated?
(a) New Delhi
(b) Chennai
(c) Mumbai
(d) Kolkata
Show Answer
Answer: (c) Mumbai
2. What was the tagline for the WAVES 2025 event?
(a) Connecting India to the World
(b) Entertainment for All
(c) Connecting Creators, Connecting Countries
(d) The Future of Audio Visuals
Show Answer
Answer: (c) Connecting Creators, Connecting Countries
3. Which of the following personalities was NOT honoured with a special postage stamp release during WAVES 2025?
(a) Guru Dutt
(b) Satyajit Ray
(c) P. Bhanumathi
(d) Salil Chowdhury
Show Answer
Answer: (b) Satyajit Ray
4. The Global Media Dialogue (GMD) held during WAVES 2025 was supported by which of the following ministries in addition to the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting?
(a) Ministry of Culture
(b) Ministry of External Affairs
(c) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
(d) Ministry of Home Affairs
Show Answer
Answer: (b) Ministry of External Affairs
5. What was the primary focus of the ‘WAVES Declaration’ adopted by 77 countries during the Global Media Dialogue?
(a) Promoting international film collaborations
(b) Enhancing media literacy among citizens
(c) Promoting responsible use of emerging technologies like Artificial Intelligence (AI)
(d) Supporting the growth of the animation and gaming industry
Show Answer
Answer: (c) Promoting responsible use of emerging technologies like Artificial Intelligence (AI)
6. Which Ministry primarily organized the World Audio Visual and Entertainment Summit s(WAVES) 2025?
(a) Ministry of Culture
(b) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
(c) Ministry of Tourism
(d) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
Show Answer
Answer: (b) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
7. During WAVES 2025, the Global Media Dialogue (GMD) saw the adoption of the ‘WAVES Declaration’ by 77 countries. What was a key focus of this declaration?
(a) Promoting cultural exchange through cinema
(b) Establishing global standards for media ethics
(c) Promoting the responsible use of emerging technologies like AI
(d) Increasing international collaboration in content creation
Show Answer
Answer: (c) Promoting the responsible use of emerging technologies like AI
8. Which of the following iconic figures of Indian cinema was honoured with a special postage stamp during WAVES 2025?
(a) Amitabh Bachchan
(b) Dilip Kumar
(c) Ritwik Ghatak
(d) Lata Mangeshkar
Show Answer
Answer: (c) Ritwik Ghatak
9. What is the Indian Institute of Creative Technology (IICT), launched at WAVES 2025, described as?
(a) A new film certification board
(b) A national archive of Indian films
(c) A National Centre of Excellence (CoE)
(d) An annual film festival
Show Answer
Answer: (c) A National Centre of Excellence (CoE)
10. What significant financial outcome was reported at the conclusion of the four-day WAVES 2025 event?
(a) ₹13.28 billion in foreign investment
(b) ₹132.8 million in charitable donations
(c) ₹1,328 crore in business transactions
(d) ₹13,280 crore in government funding for the sector
Show Answer
Answer: (c) ₹1,328 crore in business transactions
11. What is the title of the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) report released on May 6, 2025?
(a) Global Development Index 2025
(b) Human Development Report 2025 – A matter of choice: people and possibilities in the age of Artificial Intelligence
(c) The Future of Human Capital
(d) Digital Transformation and Global Progress
Show Answer
Answer: (b) Human Development Report 2025 – A matter of choice: people and possibilities in the age of Artificial Intelligence
12. What was India’s rank in the 2023 Human Development Index (HDI) according to the UNDP report?
(a) 133
(b) 130
(c) 127
(d) 136
Show Answer
Answer: (b) 130
13. Which country secured the top position in the 2023 Human Development Index (HDI) with a score of 0.972?
(a) Norway
(b) Switzerland
(c) Iceland
(d) Ireland
Show Answer
Answer: (c) Iceland
14. According to the UNDP report, what was India’s life expectancy at birth in 2023?
(a) 58.6 years
(b) 68 years
(c) 70 years
(d) 72 years
Show Answer
Answer: (d) 72 years
15. What was the approximate percentage increase in India’s Gross National Income (GNI) per capita between 1990 and 2023, as per the UNDP report?
(a) Over 30%
(b) Over 40%
(c) Over 53%
(d) Over 60%
Show Answer
Answer: (c) Over 53%
16. The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) observes its Raising Day annually on which date?
(a) June 7th
(b) July 5th
(c) May 7th
(d) April 7th
Show Answer
Answer: (c) May 7th
17. In what year was the Border Roads Organisation (BRO) established?
(a) 1950
(b) 1960
(c) 1970
(d) 1985
Show Answer
Answer: (b) 1960
18. Approximately how many kilometers of roads has the Border Roads Organisation (BRO) constructed over its years of operation?
(a) Over 16,000 kilometers
(b) Over 31,000 kilometers
(c) Over 62,000 kilometers
(d) Over 90,000 kilometers
Show Answer
Answer: (c) Over 62,000 kilometers
19. In the financial year 2023-24 (FY24), what was the approximate total value of the infrastructure projects completed by the BRO?
(a) ₹1,611 crore
(b) ₹2,611 crore
(c) ₹3,611 crore
(d) ₹4,611 crore
Show Answer
Answer: (c) ₹3,611 crore
20. What is the primary aim of the Government of India in introducing chip-based e passports across the country in May 2025?
(a) To increase the cost of international travel
(b) To ensure the security of travelers and enhance international travel.
(c) To reduce the processing time for passport applications.
(d) To collect more biometric data from citizens.
Show Answer
Answer: (b) To ensure the security of travelers and enhance international travel.
21. What key technology is embedded in the new chip-based e-passports?
(a) Global Positioning System (GPS)
(b) Near Field Communication (NFC)
(c) Radio Frequency Identification (RFID)
(d) Bluetooth
Show Answer
Answer: (c) Radio Frequency Identification (RFID)
22. According to the information, what is a key benefit of the chip-based e-passport?
(a) Faster immigration clearance at airports.
(b) Enhanced ability to maintain the integrity of the passport holder’s data.
(c) Longer validity period compared to traditional passports.
(d) Reduced application fees for passport renewals.
Show Answer
Answer: (b) Enhanced ability to maintain the integrity of the passport holder’s data.
23. When was the pilot rollout of the chip-based e-passports initiated as part of the Passport Seva Programme-Version 2.0 (PSP-V2.0)?
(a) May 1, 2024
(b) April 1, 2025
(c) April 1, 2024
(d) June 1, 2024
Show Answer
Answer: (c) April 1, 2024
24. What type of information is stored in the chip of the e-passport in an encrypted form?
(a) Travel history of the passport holder.
(b) Biometric information of the passport holder.
(c) Financial details of the passport holder.
(d) Medical records of the passport holder.
Show Answer
Answer: (b) Biometric information of the passport holder.
25. Which political party does K.C. Venugopal belong to?
(a) Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP)
(b) Aam Aadmi Party (AAP)
(c) Indian National Congress (INC)
(d) Communist Party of India (Marxist) (CPI(M))
Show Answer
Answer: (c) Indian National Congress (INC)
26. Besides being the Chairperson of the PAC, what other current position does K.C. Venugopal hold in the All India Congress Committee (AICC)?
(a) Party President
(b) Vice President
(c) General Secretary (Organisation)
(d) Treasurer
Show Answer
Answer: (c) General Secretary (Organisation)
27. The revised SHAKTI Policy approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs aims to:
A) Increase coal imports for power generation
B) Enhance transparency and efficiency in coal distribution for thermal power generation
C) Reduce thermal power generation in favor of renewable energy
D) Nationalize all coal mines in India
Show Answer
Answer: B) Enhance transparency and efficiency in coal distribution for thermal power generation
28. In the revised SHAKTI Policy, the previously complex structure of eight categories for coal linkage has been simplified into:
A) Three main channels
B) Four main channels
C) Two main channels
D) Five main channels
Show Answer
Answer: C) Two main channels
29. Under Window I of the revised SHAKTI Policy, coal is allocated to:
A) Private power plants only
B) State-owned and central government power plants
C) Only imported coal-based plants
D) Only pithead projects
Show Answer
Answer: B) State-owned and central government power plants
30. Which of the following is a significant reform in the revised SHAKTI Policy?
A) Making Power Purchase Agreements (PPAs) mandatory for all allocations
B) Eliminating Power Purchase Agreements (PPAs) as a pre-condition under Window II
C) Restricting private sector participation
D) Limiting tenure to short-term contracts only
Show Answer
Answer: B) Eliminating Power Purchase Agreements (PPAs) as a pre-condition under Window II
31. The Coal Mines (Special Provisions) Act was enacted in:
A) 2015
B) 2017
C) 2020
D) 2021
Show Answer
Answer: A) 2015
32. Operation Sindoor was launched by India in response to:
A) Border disputes with China
B) The Pahalgam terror attack
C) Maritime security threats
D) Cyber attacks on government infrastructure
Show Answer
Answer: B) The Pahalgam terror attack
33. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a precision strike capability used in Operation Sindoor?
A) SCALP (Storm Shadow)
B) HAMMER
C) BRAHMOS Missile
D) ASTRA Missile
Show Answer
Answer: D) ASTRA Missile
34. Operation Sindoor is described as the most extensive cross-border military operation since:
A) Uri surgical strikes
B) Operation Vijay
C) Balakot airstrikes
D) Operation Parakram
Show Answer
Answer: C) Balakot airstrikes
35. The new National Scheme for ITI Upgradation and Skilling has a total budget of:
A) ₹30,000 crore
B) ₹50,000 crore
C) ₹60,000 crore
D) ₹10,000 crore
Show Answer
Answer: C) ₹60,000 crore
36. What percentage of the National Scheme for ITI Upgradation’s budget will come from industry partners?
A) 50%
B) 33.33%
C) 16.67%
D) 25%
Show Answer
Answer: C) 16.67% (₹10,000 crore out of ₹60,000 crore)
37. The Central Council for Research in Ayurvedic Sciences (CCRAS) has recently revived which of the following rare Ayurvedic manuscripts?
A) Charaka Samhita and Sushruta Samhita
B) Raja Nighantu and Dhanvantari Nighantu
C) Dravyaratnākara Nighantu and Dravyanāmākara Nighantu
D) Bhava Prakasha and Ashtanga Hridaya
Show Answer
Answer: C) Dravyaratnākara Nighantu and Dravyanāmākara Nighantu
38. Dravyaratnākara Nighantu was composed around:
A) 1280 AD
B) 1380 AD
C) 1480 AD
D) 1580 AD
Show Answer
Answer: C) 1480 AD
39. In Ayurveda, the term ‘Nighantu’ refers to:
A) Surgical instruments
B) Medicinal preparation methods
C) Traditional compilations listing medicinal substances
D) Ancient medical practitioners
Show Answer
Answer: C) Traditional compilations listing medicinal substances
40. The Indo-Pacific Logistics Network (IPLN) simulation exercise was conducted in:
A) Sydney, Australia
B) New Delhi, India
C) Tokyo, Japan
D) Honolulu, Hawaii
Show Answer
Answer: D) Honolulu, Hawaii
41. The primary purpose of the Indo-Pacific Logistics Network (IPLN) is to:
A) Establish military bases across the Indo-Pacific region
B) Enhance coordination and sharing of logistics resources during civilian disaster relief operations
C) Counter China’s Belt and Road Initiative
D) Develop common military equipment standards
Show Answer
Answer: B) Enhance coordination and sharing of logistics resources during civilian disaster relief operations
42. In the 2024 Pulitzer Prizes, how many awards did The New York Times secure?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
Show Answer
Answer: C) Four
43. The Pulitzer Prize was established through a bequest by:
A) William Randolph Hearst
B) Joseph Pulitzer
C) Benjamin Franklin
D) Walter Cronkite
Show Answer
Answer: B) Joseph Pulitzer
44. When were the first Pulitzer Prizes awarded?
A) 1901
B) 1911
C) 1917
D) 1925
Show Answer
Answer: C) 1917
45. Which Indian Naval Ship represented India at IMDEX Asia 2025 in Singapore?
A) INS Vikrant
B) INS Kiltan
C) INS Vikramaditya
D) INS Shivalik
Show Answer
Answer: B) INS Kiltan
46. IMDEX Asia was established in:
A) 1987
B) 1997
C) 2007
D) 2017
Show Answer
Answer: B) 1997
47. Which air defence system was used by India to intercept long-range threats during the May 2025 Pakistan attack?
A. Akash
B. Barak-8
C. S-400 Triumf
D. Prithvi
Show Answer
Answer: C. S-400 Triumf
48. Which city in Pakistan had an air defence installation neutralised by Indian retaliatory strikes?
A. Multan
B. Lahore
C. Islamabad
D. Faisalabad
Show Answer
Answer: B. Lahore
49. What type of weapon was used by India for precision retaliatory strikes during the conflict?
A. BrahMos missiles
B. Akash SAMs
C. Harop loitering munitions
D. Laser-guided bombs
Show Answer
Answer: C. Harop loitering munitions
50. Which Indian missile system is indigenous and effective against low-altitude aerial targets?
A. S-400
B. Barak-8
C. Akash
D. Nag
Show Answer
Answer: C. Akash
51. What measure did Indian states like Punjab and Gujarat implement during the May conflict?
A. Curfew
B. Evacuation
C. Internet shutdown
D. Blackouts
Show Answer
Answer: D. Blackouts
52. Which religious order did Pope Leo XIV (Robert Prevost) belong to?
A. Jesuits
B. Augustinians
C. Franciscans
D. Benedictines
Show Answer
Answer: B. Augustinians
53. Before his papal election, which Vatican department did Robert Prevost head?
A. Secretariat of State
B. Congregation for the Doctrine of the Faith
C. Office of Bishops
D. Congregation for Divine Worship
Show Answer
Answer: C. Office of Bishops
54. Which Articles of the Indian Constitution outline the removal process of High Court and Supreme Court judges?
A. 124 and 217
B. 356 and 360
C. 74 and 75
D. 32 and 226
Show Answer
Answer: A. 124 and 217
55. What majority is required in Parliament to remove a High Court or Supreme Court judge?
A. Simple majority
B. Absolute majority
C. Two-thirds of total members
D. Special majority: Total majority + two-thirds of members present and voting
Show Answer
Answer: D. Special majority: Total majority + two-thirds of members present and voting
56. Which incident triggered the removal proceedings against Justice Yashwant Varma?
A. Land scam
B. Bribery charges
C. Found sacks of cash after fire in residence
D. Conflict of interest in a high-profile case
Show Answer
Answer: C. Found sacks of cash after fire in residence
57. Which committee investigated Justice Yashwant Varma’s case?
A. Rajya Sabha Ethics Panel
B. Lokpal Bench
C. In-house judicial committee
D. NHRC
Show Answer
Answer: C. In-house judicial committee
58. What is India’s latest Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) as per 2019–21 data?
A. 97 per 100,000 live births
B. 103 per 100,000 live births
C. 93 per 100,000 live births
D. 89 per 100,000 live births
Show Answer
Answer: C. 93 per 100,000 live births
59. Which Indian state recorded the highest MMR in 2019–21?
A. Bihar
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Assam
D. Madhya Pradesh
Show Answer
Answer: D. Madhya Pradesh
60. Which state achieved the lowest MMR during 2019–21?
A. Tamil Nadu
B. Kerala
C. Telangana
D. Maharashtra
Show Answer
Answer: B. Kerala
61. Which government scheme promotes institutional deliveries to reduce maternal deaths?
A. Ayushman Bharat
B. Janani Suraksha Yojana
C. PMSBY
D. POSHAN Abhiyaan
Show Answer
Answer: B. Janani Suraksha Yojana
62. Which Indian Test cricketer announced retirement in May 2025?
A. Virat Kohli
B. R. Ashwin
C. Rohit Sharma
D. Cheteshwar Pujara
Show Answer
Answer: C. Rohit Sharma
63. Why was IPL 2025 suspended temporarily?
A. Match-fixing scandal
B. COVID-19 surge
C. India–Pakistan conflict
D. Sponsor withdrawal
Show Answer
Answer: C. India–Pakistan conflict
64. Which bilateral trade deal allowed the U.K. to export 100,000 cars annually to the U.S. at a reduced tariff?
A. EU-U.S. Agreement
B. U.K.–U.S. Deal (May 2025)
C. CPTPP Agreement
D. NAFTA Update
Show Answer
Answer: B. U.K.–U.S. Deal (May 2025)
65. Trump had placed import taxes of 25% on cars and car parts coming into the US on top of the existing 2.5%. This has been cut to _ for a maximum of 100,000 UK cars, which matches the number of cars the UK exported last year.
A. 2.5 %
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 15%
Show Answer
Answer: C. 10%
66. Which countries has India signed major trade agreements with in the last 4 years?
A. Iran, Sri Lanka, Japan
B. UAE, Australia, U.K.
C. Brazil, Indonesia, Canada
D. Nepal, Bangladesh, Bhutan
Show Answer
Answer: B. UAE, Australia, U.K.
67. What was the reason behind the suspension of the IPL 2025 season?
A. Technical difficulties
B. Terrorist attacks in India
C. India-Pakistan military tensions
D. Weather issues
Show Answer
Answer: C. India-Pakistan military tensions
68. Which country is India abstaining from supporting in its vote for IMF funding due to concerns about terrorism?
A. Afghanistan
B. Bangladesh
C. Pakistan
D. Nepal
Show Answer
Answer: C. Pakistan
69. Which countries are mentioned as potential hosts for IPL playoffs if needed?
A. Delhi and Chennai
B. Mumbai and Ahmedabad
C. Hyderabad and Bengaluru
D. Chennai and Bengaluru
Show Answer
Answer: B. Mumbai and Ahmedabad
70. What is the primary objective of the IMF’s funding to Pakistan?
A. Humanitarian aid
B. Economic stabilization
C. Military development
D. Infrastructure projects
Show Answer
Answer: B. Economic stabilization
71. Which event will likely conclude before May 31, ensuring players have time for preparation for WTC?
A. IPL 2025
B. FIFA World Cup
C. ICC T20 World Cup
D. World Test Championship (WTC) Final
Show Answer
Answer: A. IPL 2025
72. In which city was the IPL 2025 final initially scheduled to take place?
A. Bengaluru
B. Mumbai
C. Kolkata
D. Delhi
Show Answer
Answer: C. Kolkata
73. What was the major issue with the PBKS vs DC match during IPL 2025?
A. Match timing issues
B. Match was called off midway
C. Technical failure of stadium lights
D. Player injury
Show Answer
Answer: B. Match was called off midway
74. Which war between India and Pakistan occurred in 1947-48?
A. Kargil War
B. 1971 War
C. 1947-48 War
D. 1965 War
Show Answer
Answer: C. 1947-48 War
75. What role does the IMF play in global finance?
A. Mediates peace treaties
B. Provides loans to stabilize economies
C. Organizes international sports events
D. Sets global trade policies
Show Answer
Answer: B. Provides loans to stabilize economies
76. Which of the following teams had their IPL 2025 match called off?
A. Mumbai Indians and Chennai Super Kings
B. Punjab Kings and Delhi Capitals
C. Royal Challengers Bangalore and Kolkata Knight Riders
D. Sunrisers Hyderabad and Rajasthan Royals
Show Answer
Answer: B. Punjab Kings and Delhi Capitals
77. What is the likely location for the final of the World Test Championship in 2025?
A. Sydney
B. Lord’s
C. The Oval
D. Eden Gardens
Show Answer
Answer: B. Lord’s
78. How many remaining IPL 2025 matches are scheduled after the suspension?
A. 20
B. 15
C. 17
D. 18
Show Answer
Answer: C. 17
79. The IMF approved funding for Pakistan under which two facilities?
A. Economic and Structural Adjustment Facility
B. Extended Fund Facility and Resilience and Sustainability Facility
C. Global Financial Assistance Fund and Recovery Fund
D. Emergency Stabilization and Crisis Management Facility
Show Answer
Answer: B. Extended Fund Facility and Resilience and Sustainability Facility
80. The 2025 IPL season was suspended for a week following tensions between India and Pakistan after which terrorist attack?
A. Pulwama attack
B. Pahalgam attack
C. Uri attack
D. Pathankot attack
Show Answer
Answer: B. Pahalgam attack
81. What percentage of vote share does India have in the IMF’s decision-making process?
A. 10.5%
B. 5.6%
C. 3.05%
D. 16.49%
Show Answer
Answer: C. 3.05%
82. Which country’s cricket players are expected to join the WTC final after the IPL concludes?
A. England
B. South Africa
C. Australia
D. New Zealand
Show Answer
Answer: C. Australia
83. Which year was the IPL founded?
A. 2005
B. 2008
C. 2010
D. 2003
Show Answer
Answer: B. 2008
84. What event did Telangana showcase during the opening ceremony of Miss World 2025?
A. A dance competition
B. Cultural heritage and tribal dances
C. A food festival
D. Traditional sports
Show Answer
Answer: B. Cultural heritage and tribal dances
85. The IPL Governing Council plans to conclude IPL 2025 before which global event?
A. ICC World Cup
B. T20 World Cup
C. World Test Championship Final
D. Asia Cup
Show Answer
Answer: C. World Test Championship Final
86. Which country does the IMF have its headquarters in?
A. Germany
B. France
C. United States
D. Japan
Show Answer
Answer: C. United States
87. Which of the following was one of the key factors in the IMF’s decision to approve Pakistan’s funding?
A. Strong fiscal performance
B. Military advancements
C. Political stability
D. Improvement in education sector
Show Answer
Answer: A. Strong fiscal performance
88. What tribe performed the traditional Lambadi dance during the Miss World 2025 opening ceremony?
A. Gond tribe
B. Kommu Koya
C. Banjara tribe
D. Siddi tribe
Show Answer
Answer: A. Gond tribe
89. Which of the following countries has a higher voting share than India in the IMF?
A. Germany
B. Bangladesh
C. Sri Lanka
D. Nepal
Show Answer
Answer: A. Germany
90. What is the primary function of the Resilience and Sustainability Facility under IMF?
A. Promote long-term sustainable growth
B. Provide short-term loans to countries in conflict
C. Manage trade disputes
D. Enforce tax compliance
Show Answer
Answer: A. Promote long-term sustainable growth
91. What traditional dance was performed by 250 children at the IPL 2025 event in Telangana?
A. Bharatnatyam
B. Perini Natyam
C. Kuchipudi
D. Kathak
Show Answer
Answer: B. Perini Natyam
92. The 2025 theme for the BRS Conventions CoPs was:
A) “Reduce, Reuse, Recycle: For a Sustainable Future”
B) “Make visible the invisible: Sound management of chemicals and wastes”
C) “Chemical Safety for a Healthier Planet”
D) “Towards Zero Waste: Global Cooperation”
Show Answer
Answer: B) “Make visible the invisible: Sound management of chemicals and wastes”
93. The Basel Convention, adopted in 1989, primarily focuses on:
A) Elimination of Persistent Organic Pollutants
B) Prior informed consent in global trade of hazardous chemicals
C) Control of cross-border movement and disposal of hazardous waste
D) Climate change mitigation
Show Answer
Answer: C) Control of cross-border movement and disposal of hazardous waste
94. Which of the following conventions came into force most recently?
A) Basel Convention
B) Rotterdam Convention
C) Stockholm Convention
D) Both Rotterdam and Stockholm Conventions came into force in the same year
Show Answer
Answer: D) Both Rotterdam and Stockholm Conventions came into force in the same year
95. Morningstar DBRS has upgraded India’s sovereign credit rating to:
A) ‘BBB+’
B) ‘BBB’
C) ‘BBB (low)’
D) ‘A-‘
Show Answer
Answer: B) ‘BBB’
96. Which of the following factors was NOT mentioned as a driver behind India’s credit rating upgrade?
A) Structural reforms across various sectors
B) Large-scale public infrastructure investments
C) India’s rising foreign exchange reserves
D) Commitment to fiscal consolidation
Show Answer
Answer: C) India’s rising foreign exchange reserves
97. Members of the Territorial Army are commonly known as:
A) Reservists
B) Auxiliaries
C) Terriers
D) Part-timers
Show Answer
Answer: C) Terriers
98. Under which rule has the Chief of Army Staff been empowered to call upon Territorial Army personnel?
A) Rule 25 of the Territorial Army Rules, 1948
B) Rule 33 of the Territorial Army Rules, 1948
C) Rule 45 of the Territorial Army Rules, 1950
D) Rule 29 of the Territorial Army Rules, 1952
Show Answer
Answer: B) Rule 33 of the Territorial Army Rules, 1948
99. What is a primary qualification to join the Territorial Army as mentioned in the document?
A) Physical fitness certification
B) Prior military experience
C) Graduation from a recognized university
D) Age between 18-25 years
Show Answer
Answer: C) Graduation from a recognized university
100. The first Asian rice pangenome was developed by scientists from:
A) India
B) Japan
C) China
D) Thailand
Show Answer
Answer: C) China
101. How many distinct rice varieties were integrated to develop the Asian rice pangenome?
A) 100
B) 122
C) 144
D) 166
Show Answer
Answer: C) 144
102. According to the research on Asian rice, all Asian cultivated rice varieties share an ancestral link with:
A) Or-IIIa
B) Oryza glaberrima
C) Oryza nivara
D) Oryza longistaminata
Show Answer
Answer: A) Or-IIIa
103. Which IMF facilities has India raised concerns about regarding their effectiveness for Pakistan?
A) Extended Credit Facility and Rapid Credit Facility
B) Extended Fund Facility and Resilience and Sustainability Facility
C) Flexible Credit Line and Precautionary and Liquidity Line
D) Short-Term Liquidity Line and Catastrophe Containment and Relief Trust
Show Answer
Answer: B) Extended Fund Facility and Resilience and Sustainability Facility
104. According to the Global Methane Tracker 2025, methane is responsible for approximately what percentage of global temperature rise since the Industrial Revolution?
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 30%
D) 40%
Show Answer
Answer: C) 30%
105. What percentage of methane emissions from human activities comes from the energy sector according to the Global Methane Tracker 2025?
A) Over 25%
B) Over 35%
C) Over 45%
D) Over 55%
Show Answer
Answer: B) Over 35%
106. The Schilka system, deployed by the Indian Army, is primarily:
A) A long-range missile defense system
B) A self-propelled, radar-guided mobile air defense weapon system
C) A surveillance and reconnaissance drone
D) A cyber-defense system against aerial threats
Show Answer
Answer: B) A self-propelled, radar-guided mobile air defense weapon system
107. Which of the following is a capability of the Schilka anti-aircraft system?
A) Submarine detection
B) Ballistic missile interception
C) 360-degree coverage
D) Nuclear deterrence
Show Answer
Answer: C) 360-degree coverage
108. The United Nations Forum on Forests (UNFF) was established in:
A) October 1990
B) October 2000
C) October 2010
D) October 2020
Show Answer
Answer: B) October 2000
109. The 75th anniversary of which declaration was celebrated at Europe Day in New Delhi?
A) Rome Declaration
B) Maastricht Treaty
C) Schuman Declaration
D) Lisbon Treaty
Show Answer
Answer: C) Schuman Declaration
110. The Schuman Declaration proposed the creation of:
A) European Economic Community
B) European Coal and Steel Community
C) European Atomic Energy Community
D) European Union
Show Answer
Answer: B) European Coal and Steel Community
111. How many Indian languages does the Bulbul v2 Text-to-Speech Model support?
A) 7
B) 9
C) 11
D) 15
Show Answer
Answer: C) 11
112. According to the Sample Registration System (SRS) Report 2021, the Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) in India for 2019-21 was:
A) 70 per 100,000 live births
B) 93 per 100,000 live births
C) 110 per 100,000 live births
D) 130 per 100,000 live births
Show Answer
Answer: B) 93 per 100,000 live births
113. What is the SDG 2030 target for Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR)?
A) 50 or lower per 100,000 live births
B) 60 or lower per 100,000 live births
C) 70 or lower per 100,000 live births
D) 80 or lower per 100,000 live births
Show Answer
Answer: C) 70 or lower per 100,000 live births
114. As per the SRS Report 2021, what was the Total Fertility Rate (TFR) in India?
A) 1.8 children per woman
B) 2.0 children per woman
C) 2.2 children per woman
D) 2.5 children per woman
Show Answer
Answer: B) 2.0 children per woman
115. Which state recorded the highest Total Fertility Rate (TFR) according to the SRS Report 2021?
A) Uttar Pradesh
B) Rajasthan
C) Bihar
D) Madhya Pradesh
Show Answer
Answer: C) Bihar
116. What was the sex ratio at birth in India in 2021 as per the SRS Report?
A) 899 females per 1,000 males
B) 905 females per 1,000 males
C) 913 females per 1,000 males
D) 920 females per 1,000 males
Show Answer
Answer: C) 913 females per 1,000 males
117. Which of the following correctly defines “misinformation”?
A) Deliberate creation and dissemination of falsehoods
B) Unintentional spread of inaccurate or misleading content
C) Strategic use of propaganda during military operations
D) Information released by official government sources
Show Answer
Answer: B) Unintentional spread of inaccurate or misleading content
118. What is “disinformation”?
A) Official information released by the government
B) Unintentional spread of misleading content
C) Deliberate creation and dissemination of falsehoods with intent to manipulate
D) Technical military information shared during operations
Show Answer
Answer: C) Deliberate creation and dissemination of falsehoods with intent to manipulate
119. Which type of propaganda is described as “transparent and fact-based, though it may reflect a particular viewpoint”?
A) White Propaganda
B) Grey Propaganda
C) Black Propaganda
D) Transparent Propaganda
Show Answer
Answer: A) White Propaganda
120. What agency in India significantly ramped up efforts to combat misinformation after Operation Sindoor?
A) Ministry of Defence
B) Intelligence Bureau
C) Press Information Bureau (PIB)
D) Central Bureau of Investigation
Show Answer
Answer: C) Press Information Bureau (PIB)
121. The BrahMos Aerospace Testing Facility was recently inaugurated in which city?
A) Agra
B) Kanpur
C) Lucknow
D) Jhansi
Show Answer
Answer: C) Lucknow
122. BrahMos is a collaborative project between India and which country?
A) France
B) Israel
C) United States
D) Russia
Show Answer
Answer: D) Russia
123. The name “BrahMos” is derived from:
A) The names of the scientists who developed it
B) The Brahmaputra and Moskva rivers
C) A Sanskrit term meaning “supreme power”
D) The names of testing locations
Show Answer
Answer: B) The Brahmaputra and Moskva rivers
124. What is the approximate range of the BrahMos missile system?
A) 150 km
B) 200 km
C) 290 km
D) 350 km
Show Answer
Answer: C) 290 km
125. How many Defence Industrial Corridors (DICs) have been established in India?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
Show Answer
Answer: B) Two
126. Which of the following states does NOT have a Defence Industrial Corridor?
A) Uttar Pradesh
B) Tamil Nadu
C) Gujarat
D) Both A and B have Defence Industrial Corridors
Show Answer
Answer: C) Gujarat
127. What legal provision in India provides “safe harbour” protection to social media platforms?
A) Section 66A of the Information Technology Act
B) Section 79 of the Information Technology Act
C) Article 19 of the Indian Constitution
D) Section 45 of the Information Technology Act
Show Answer
Answer: B) Section 79 of the Information Technology Act
128. National Technology Day in India is observed annually on:
A) May 9
B) May 10
C) May 11
D) May 12
Show Answer
Answer: C) May 11
129. National Technology Day commemorates which of the following events?
A) The first satellite launch by India
B) The Pokhran-II nuclear tests
C) The establishment of ISRO
D) India’s first mission to the Moon
Show Answer
Answer: B) The Pokhran-II nuclear tests
130. What was the codename for the Pokhran-II nuclear tests conducted in 1998?
A) Operation Shakti
B) Operation Vijay
C) Operation Safed Sagar
D) Operation Smiling Buddha
Show Answer
Answer: A) Operation Shakti
131. Which indigenously developed aircraft’s maiden flight is also commemorated on National Technology Day?
A) NAL Saras
B) HAL Tejas
C) Hansa-3
D) DRDO Rustom
Show Answer
Answer: C) Hansa-3
132. How much additional rice has the government allocated from FCI buffer stock for ethanol production?
A) 1.8 million tonnes
B) 2.5 million tonnes
C) 2.8 million tonnes
D) 3.2 million tonnes
Show Answer
Answer: C) 2.8 million tonnes
133. What is the projected economic cost of rice by FCI for the 2025-26 period?
A) Rs 3,173 per quintal
B) Rs 4,173 per quintal
C) Rs 5,173 per quintal
D) Rs 6,173 per quintal
Show Answer
Answer: B) Rs 4,173 per quintal
134. What is the current rice stock held by FCI?
A) 41 million tonnes
B) 51 million tonnes
C) 61 million tonnes
D) 71 million tonnes
Show Answer
Answer: C) 61 million tonnes
135. What is the required buffer stock of rice for FCI?
A) 12.58 MT
B) 13.58 MT
C) 14.58 MT
D) 15.58 MT
Show Answer
Answer: B) 13.58 MT
136. What is the target for ethanol blending in petrol by 2025-2026 under the EBP programme?
A) 10%
B) 15%
C) 20%
D) 25%
Show Answer
Answer: C) 20%
137. What was India’s role at the World Bank Land Conference 2025?
A) Guest of Honor
B) Country Champion
C) Special Observer
D) Technical Partner
Show Answer
Answer: B) Country Champion
138. How much land area has been surveyed under the SVAMITVA scheme?
A) 48,000 sq. km
B) 58,000 sq. km
C) 68,000 sq. km
D) 78,000 sq. km
Show Answer
Answer: C) 68,000 sq. km
139. What is the worth of land monetized under the SVAMITVA scheme?
A) Rs. 0.96 trillion
B) Rs. 1.06 trillion
C) Rs. 1.16 trillion
D) Rs. 1.26 trillion
Show Answer
Answer: C) Rs. 1.16 trillion
140. Which of the following is a geospatial planning platform for Gram Panchayats?
A) SVAMITVA
B) Gram Manchitra
C) Rural GIS
D) Bhumi Adhikar
Show Answer
Answer: B) Gram Manchitra
141. By how much could agricultural output increase with women’s access to land?
A) 2%
B) 3%
C) 4%
D) 5%
Show Answer
Answer: C) 4%
142. Which U.S. President signed the executive order for Most-Favoured Nation (MFN) prescription drug pricing?
A) Joe Biden
B) Donald Trump
C) Kamala Harris
D) Mike Pence
Show Answer
Answer: B) Donald Trump
143. How much more does the U.S. currently pay for prescription drugs compared to other high income countries?
A) Two times more
B) Three times more
C) Four times more
D) Five times more
Show Answer
Answer: B) Three times more
144. Approximately what percentage of India’s pharmaceutical exports go to the U.S.?
A) One-fourth
B) One-third
C) Half
D) Two-thirds
Show Answer
Answer: B) One-third
145. What is the annual value of India’s pharmaceutical exports to the U.S.?
A) $5 billion
B) $8 billion
C) $10 billion
D) $12 billion
Show Answer
Answer: C) $10 billion
146. Which of the following is a Chinese-origin air-to-air missile intercepted by Indian Armed Forces?
A) PL-15
B) AIM-120
C) R-77
D) MICA
Show Answer
Answer: A) PL-15
147. The Byker YIHA III Kamikaze drones intercepted by Indian Armed Forces are of which origin?
A) Chinese
B) Russian
C) Turkish
D) American
Show Answer
Answer: C) Turkish
148. In which year was the National Defence Fund (NDF) established?
A) 1947
B) 1952
C) 1962
D) 1972
Show Answer
Answer: C) 1962
149. Who heads the Executive Committee that administers the National Defence Fund?
A) President of India
B) Prime Minister of India
C) Defence Minister
D) Finance Minister
Show Answer
Answer: B) Prime Minister of India
150. Under which section of the Income Tax Act are donations to the National Defence Fund eligible for exemption?
A) Section 70(G)
B) Section 75(G)
C) Section 80(G)
D) Section 85(G)
Show Answer
Answer: C) Section 80(G)
151. What was the ethanol blending percentage in petrol in 2014?
A) 0.53%
B) 1.53%
C) 2.53%
D) 3.53%
Show Answer
Answer: B) 1.53%
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