Practice the May 2025 1st Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the First week of May 2025.
The Current Affairs Quiz of 1 to 7 May features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.
1st Week of May 2025: Current Affairs Quiz
1. Under which act was the CAPEX survey conducted by MOSPI?
A) Collection of Statistics Act, 2006
B) Collection of Statistics Act, 2008
C) Statistical Services Act, 2008
D) National Statistical Commission Act, 2004
Show Answer
Answer: B) Collection of Statistics Act, 2008
2. By what percentage did private sector capital investment expand from FY2022 to FY2025 according to the CAPEX survey?
A) 46%
B) 56%
C) 66%
D) 76%
Show Answer
Answer: C) 66%
3. Which sector contributed nearly 48% of the capital investment during FY2024-25?
A) Service companies
B) Manufacturing companies
C) Infrastructure companies
D) Technology companies
Show Answer
Answer: B) Manufacturing companies
4. Which municipal body issued India’s first certified Green Municipal Bond?
A) Lucknow Nagar Nigam
B) Ghaziabad Nagar Nigam
C) Delhi Municipal Corporation
D) Mumbai Municipal Corporation
Show Answer
Answer: B) Ghaziabad Nagar Nigam
5. How much was raised through India’s first certified Green Municipal Bond?
A) ₹100 crore
B) ₹150 crore
C) ₹200 crore
D) ₹250 crore
Show Answer
Answer: B) ₹150 crore
6. Under which constitutional article are municipal bodies empowered to issue municipal bonds?
A) Article 243W
B) Article 245W
C) Article 243V
D) Article 245V
Show Answer
Answer: A) Article 243W
7. What percentage of funding for the Tertiary Sewage Treatment Plant came from municipal sources under the Hybrid Annuity Model?
A) 30%
B) 40%
C) 50%
D) 60%
Show Answer
Answer: B) 40%
8. Which report placed India on the ‘Priority Watch List’ for intellectual property concerns?
A) Global IP Index
B) Special 301 Report
C) Intellectual Property Rights Report
D) Annual Copyright Report
Show Answer
Answer: B) Special 301 Report
9. Which section of the Patents Act, 1970 is often criticized for its restrictive stance on incremental innovations?
A) Section 3(a)
B) Section 3(b)
C) Section 3(c)
D) Section 3(d)
Show Answer
Answer: D) Section 3(d)
10. Which treaty related to trademarks has India not adopted according to the document?
A) Paris Convention
B) Madrid Protocol
C) Singapore Treaty on the Law of Trademarks
D) Nice Agreement
Show Answer
Answer: C) Singapore Treaty on the Law of Trademarks
11. Which ministry has implemented the Green Hydrogen Certification Scheme (GHCI)?
A) Ministry of Power
B) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
C) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
D) Ministry of Science and Technology
Show Answer
Answer: B) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
12. What is the nodal body for the Green Hydrogen Certification Scheme?
A) Bureau of Energy Efficiency
B) Bureau of Indian Standards
C) National Green Tribunal
D) Central Pollution Control Board
Show Answer
Answer: A) Bureau of Energy Efficiency
13. What is the carbon intensity standard for certified green hydrogen under GHCI?
A) 1 kg CO₂ equivalent per kg of hydrogen or less
B) 2 kg CO₂ equivalent per kg of hydrogen or less
C) 3 kg CO₂ equivalent per kg of hydrogen or less
D) 4 kg CO₂ equivalent per kg of hydrogen or less
Show Answer
Answer: B) 2 kg CO₂ equivalent per kg of hydrogen or less
14. What was India’s Gross Expenditure on Research and Development (GERD) in 2020-21?
A) ₹60,200 crore
B) ₹1,00,000 crore
C) ₹1,27,400 crore
D) ₹1,50,000 crore
Show Answer
Answer: C) ₹1,27,400 crore
15. Which entity accounted for the largest share in R&D funding according to the report?
A) Private sector
B) Central Government
C) Universities
D) State governments
Show Answer
Answer: B) Central Government
16. What percentage of public R&D institutions offer support for startups according to the report?
A) 15%
B) 25%
C) 35%
D) 45%
Show Answer
Answer: B) 25%
17. What percentage of its GDP did India spend on research in 2020-21?
A) 0.34%
B) 0.64%
C) 1.04%
D) 1.34%
Show Answer
Answer: B) 0.64%
18. What was India’s global ranking in terms of resident patent filings according to the WIPO 2022 report?
A) 5th
B) 6th
C) 7th
D) 8th
Show Answer
Answer: C) 7th
19. How many satellites were launched in the first batch of Amazon’s Project Kuiper?
A) 17
B) 27
C) 37
D) 47
Show Answer
Answer: B) 27
20. What is the total planned number of satellites in Amazon’s Project Kuiper constellation?
A) Approximately 1,232 satellites
B) Approximately 2,232 satellites
C) Approximately 3,232 satellites
D) Approximately 4,232 satellites
Show Answer
Answer: C) Approximately 3,232 satellites
21. According to the recent study on the Bay of Bengal, what percentage decline in marine food availability has been observed due to intensified monsoon fluctuations?
A) 25%
B) 35%
C) 50%
D) 75%
Show Answer
Answer: C) 50%
22. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an impact of climate change on marine ecosystems in the Bay of Bengal?
A) Disruption in plankton production
B) Declining biodiversity
C) Increased coral bleaching
D) Weakened nutrient circulation
Show Answer
Answer: C) Increased coral bleaching
23. Which international convention establishes legal norms for the responsible use and conservation of ocean resources?
A) MARPOL
B) UNCLOS
C) Kyoto Protocol
D) Paris Agreement
Show Answer
Answer: B) UNCLOS
24. Which of the following is a primary effect of increased ocean acidification?
A) Increased fish migration
B) Enhanced coral growth
C) Reduced availability of calcium carbonate
D) Increased plankton production
Show Answer
Answer: C) Reduced availability of calcium carbonate
25. Which Indian legislation provides legal safeguards to marine species?
A) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
B) Environment Protection Act, 1986
C) Biological Diversity Act, 2002
D) Water Prevention and Control of Pollution Act, 1974
Show Answer
Answer: A) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
26. In the case of Amar Jain vs Union of India and Others, the Supreme Court ruled that digital access is a fundamental right under which Article of the Indian Constitution?
A) Article 14
B) Article 19
C) Article 21
D) Article 32
Show Answer
Answer: C) Article 21
27. Which of the following was NOT mentioned as a directive issued by the Supreme Court regarding digital accessibility?
A) Modifying e-KYC procedures
B) Making digital verification user-friendly for people with disabilities
C) Free internet access for all citizens
D) Inclusive digital infrastructure for marginalized communities
Show Answer
Answer: C) Free internet access for all citizens
28. In which case did the Supreme Court recognize that access to the Internet is integral to the freedom of speech and expression?
A) Sabu Mathew George vs Union of India
B) Anuradha Bhasin vs Union of India
C) Amar Jain vs Union of India
D) Indra Sawhney vs Union of India
Show Answer
Answer: B) Anuradha Bhasin vs Union of India
29. According to the Supreme Court’s ruling on digital access, the State has a constitutional duty to create inclusive digital infrastructure under which of the following Articles?
A) Articles 14, 15, 21, and 38
B) Articles 19, 21, 32, and 44
C) Articles 12, 13, 21, and 51
D) Articles 15, 16, 19, and 21
Show Answer
Answer: A) Articles 14, 15, 21, and 38
30. Which principle was emphasized by the Supreme Court in ensuring that digital initiatives must be both inclusive and equitable?
A) Principle of non-discrimination
B) Principle of natural justice
C) Substantive equality principle
D) Principle of reasonableness
Show Answer
Answer: C) Substantive equality principle
31. In which country is the International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER) located?
A) Japan
B) United States
C) Southern France
D) India
Show Answer
Answer: C) Southern France
32. What is the primary purpose of the Tokamak reactor?
A) To split heavy atoms for energy production
B) To replicate nuclear fusion for clean energy
C) To store radioactive waste safely
D) To enhance nuclear fission efficiency
Show Answer
Answer: B) To replicate nuclear fusion for clean energy
33. What percentage of the ITER project’s funding is covered by the European Union?
A) 33%
B) 45%
C) 51%
D) 60%
Show Answer
Answer: B) 45%
34. Which of the following is NOT a core component of a Brain-Computer Interface (BCI) system?
A) Signal acquisition
B) Feature extraction
C) Neural implantation
D) Feature translation algorithm
Show Answer
Answer: C) Neural implantation
35. What does a Brain-Computer Interface (BCI) primarily do?
A) Read people’s thoughts and memories
B) Enhance brain function and intelligence
C) Capture and process brain activity to control external devices
D) Transfer information between two human brains
Show Answer
Answer: C) Capture and process brain activity to control external devices
36. In the case of Gayatri Balasamy vs ISG Novasoft Technologies Ltd., what Latin maxim did the Supreme Court invoke regarding the modification of arbitral awards?
A) Ex turpi causa non oritur actio
B) Res ipsa loquitur
C) Omne majus continet in se minus
D) Volenti non fit injuria
Show Answer
Answer: C) Omne majus continet in se minus
37. Under which section of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, can parties challenge an arbitral award in court?
A) Section 12(1)
B) Section 20(1)
C) Section 34(1)
D) Section 37(1)
Show Answer
Answer: C) Section 34(1)
38. From which international model law does India’s Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 draw its framework?
A) UNCITRAL Model Law
B) Hague Convention
C) Geneva Protocol
D) New York Convention
Show Answer
Answer: A) UNCITRAL Model Law
39. In which exceptional case can courts exercise powers under Article 142 of the Constitution regarding arbitral awards?
A) When both parties mutually agree to court intervention
B) When the arbitrator is found to be biased
C) To ensure complete justice, while aligning with core principles of the Arbitration Act
D) When the award is against public policy
Show Answer
Answer: C) To ensure complete justice, while aligning with core principles of the Arbitration Act
40. According to the Supreme Court ruling, under which circumstance can an arbitral award be modified?
A) When the award is unreasonable
B) When the disputed award contains separable valid and invalid parts
C) When one party is not satisfied with the outcome
D) When the arbitrator lacks jurisdiction
Show Answer
Answer: B) When the disputed award contains separable valid and invalid parts
41. Under which Act is the Census conducted in India?
A) Census Act of 1948
B) Census Act of 1951
C) Census Act of 1961
D) Census Act of 1971
Show Answer
Answer: A) Census Act of 1948
42. In which list of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution does the Census fall?
A) Union List
B) State List
C) Concurrent List
D) Residuary List
Show Answer
Answer: A) Union List
43. Which entry of Schedule VII of the Indian Constitution places Census under the jurisdiction of the central government?
A) Entry 45
B) Entry 52
C) Entry 69
D) Entry 97
Show Answer
Answer: C) Entry 69
44. In which landmark case did the Supreme Court emphasize that determining the “backwardness” of communities requires objective evaluation?
A) Indra Sawhney vs Union of India
B) M. Nagaraj vs Union of India
C) Ashoka Kumar Thakur vs Union of India
D) Jarnail Singh vs Lachhmi Narain Gupta
Show Answer
Answer: A) Indra Sawhney vs Union of India
45. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason for caste enumeration in the Census?
A) Promoting social equity
B) Refining reservation systems
C) Evidence-based governance
D) Eliminating the caste system
Show Answer
Answer: D) Eliminating the caste system
46. When was the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) adopted?
A) 1995
B) 2001
C) 2004
D) 2010
Show Answer
Answer: B) 2001
47. Which toxic insecticide has India objected to including in the global phase-out list under the Stockholm Convention?
A) DDT
B) Endosulfan
C) Chlorpyrifos
D) Lindane
Show Answer
Answer: C) Chlorpyrifos
28. Which of the following annexes under the Stockholm Convention categorizes substances for total elimination?
A) Annex A
B) Annex B
C) Annex C
D) Annex D
Show Answer
Answer: A) Annex A
49. Under which legal framework is the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) for sugarcane established?
A) Essential Commodities Act, 1955
B) Agricultural Produce Market Committee Act
C) Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966
D) National Food Security Act, 2013
Show Answer
Answer: C) Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966
50. Which body makes suggestions for determining the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) for sugarcane?
A) Agricultural Prices Commission
B) Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)
C) National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation
D) Food Corporation of India
Show Answer
Answer: B) Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)
51. The World Audio Visual and Entertainment Summit (WAVES) 2025 was held in which city?
A) New Delhi
B) Mumbai
C) Hyderabad
D) Bengaluru
Show Answer
Answer: B) Mumbai
52. What target did the WAVES 2025 summit set for India’s creative economy market by 2029?
A) $25 billion
B) $40 billion
C) $50 billion
D) $75 billion
Show Answer
Answer: C) $50 billion
53. Which new institution was announced at WAVES 2025 to support the creative sector?
A) Indian Institute of Media and Entertainment
B) National Academy of Creative Arts
C) Indian Institute of Creative Technology
D) Creative Industries Development Center
Show Answer
Answer: C) Indian Institute of Creative Technology
54. What term is often used to refer to the creative economy?
A) Green economy
B) Blue economy
C) Orange economy
D) Purple economy
Show Answer
Answer: C) Orange economy
55. Approximately what percentage of India’s workforce is employed in the creative sector?
A) 5%
B) 8%
C) 12%
D) 15%
Show Answer
Answer: B) 8%
56. What is the current estimated contribution of the creative sector to India’s GDP?
A) $20 billion
B) $30 billion
C) $40 billion
D) $50 billion
Show Answer
Answer: B) $30 billion
57. Which state government has introduced the Sahajog program to support urban poor households?
A) Karnataka
B) Odisha
C) Maharashtra
D) Tamil Nadu
Show Answer
Answer: B) Odisha
58. According to the World Bank report mentioned in the document, what percentage of urban India lives in extreme poverty?
A) 7.2%
B) 12.8%
C) 17.2%
D) 22.5%
Show Answer
Answer: C) 17.2%
59. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a factor making urban poverty more complex and severe?
A) Inadequate living conditions
B) Lack of income support
C) High cost of services
D) Higher literacy rates
Show Answer
Answer: D) Higher literacy rates
60. Which program aims to provide affordable homes to the urban poor through credit-linked subsidies?
A) AMRUT 2.0
B) DAY-NULM
C) PMAY-U
D) PM SVANidhi
Show Answer
Answer: C) PMAY-U
61. Which initiative enables portability of ration cards across states for migrant populations?
A) One Nation One Ration Card
B) Ayushman Bharat
C) PM Ujjwala Yojana
D) DAY-NULM
Show Answer
Answer: A) One Nation One Ration Card
62. What does AMRUT 2.0 primarily focus on improving?
A) Education facilities
B) Access to clean water supply and sewerage systems
C) Employment opportunities
D) Healthcare services
Show Answer
Answer: B) Access to clean water supply and sewerage systems
63. Satwiksairaj Rankireddy and Chirag Shetty were honored with the Khel Ratna award for which sport?
A) Table Tennis
B) Badminton
C) Tennis
D) Squash
Show Answer
Answer: B) Badminton
64. Before being renamed, what was the original title of the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award?
A) Arjuna Award
B) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna
C) Dronacharya Award
D) Padma Shri Sports Award
Show Answer
Answer: B) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna
65. In which year was the Khel Ratna award instituted?
A) 1985-86
B) 1991-92
C) 2000-01
D) 2010-11
Show Answer
Answer: B) 1991-92
66. What is the cash prize component of the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award?
A) ₹10 lakh
B) ₹15 lakh
C) ₹25 lakh
D) ₹50 lakh
Show Answer
Answer: C) ₹25 lakh
67. Lakkundi temples are located in which district of Karnataka?
A) Mysore
B) Belgaum
C) Gadag
D) Bijapur
Show Answer
Answer: C) Gadag
68. Under which dynasty did Lakkundi thrive as per the document?
A) Hoysalas
B) Western Chalukyas
C) Rashtrakutas
D) Vijayanagara Empire
Show Answer
Answer: B) Western Chalukyas
69. How many stepwells (Kalyanis) does Lakkundi have according to the document?
A) 50
B) 75
C) 101
D) 150
Show Answer
Answer: C) 101
70. Which temple is specifically mentioned as standing out for its intricate design and elaborate craftsmanship in Lakkundi?
A) Kasi Vishwanatha Temple
B) Mahadeva Temple
C) Brahma Temple
D) Virupaksha Temple
Show Answer
Answer: A) Kasi Vishwanatha Temple
71. When was the National Security Advisory Board (NSAB) established?
A) December 1990
B) December 1995
C) December 1998
D) December 2005
Show Answer
Answer: C) December 1998
72. What is the primary role of the National Security Advisory Board?
A) Conducting covert operations
B) Providing independent insights on security matters
C) Managing defense forces
D) Implementing security policies
Show Answer
Answer: B) Providing independent insights on security matters
73. Which body supports and coordinates the functioning of NSAB?
A) Ministry of Defense
B) Intelligence Bureau
C) National Security Council Secretariat
D) Research and Analysis Wing
Show Answer
Answer: C) National Security Council Secretariat
74. When was the Indo-Pacific Partnership for Maritime Domain Awareness (IPMDA) launched?
A) Paris Summit 2021
B) Tokyo Summit 2022
C) Washington Summit 2023
D) Sydney Summit 2024
Show Answer
Answer: B) Tokyo Summit 2022
75. Which group of nations launched the IPMDA initiative?
A) BRICS
B) G7
C) QUAD
D) ASEAN
Show Answer
Answer: C) QUAD
76. Which ministry has partnered with UNDP under the NAMASTE scheme?
A) Ministry of Rural Development
B) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
C) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
D) Ministry of Labour and Employment
Show Answer
Answer: B) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
77. What does NAMASTE stand for?
A) National Authority for Mechanised And Sustainable Treatment of Effluents
B) National Action for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem
C) National Alliance for Municipal Area Sanitation and Technical Education
D) National Association for Management of Sanitation Technologies and Equipment
Show Answer
Answer: B) National Action for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem
78. How many wastepickers are targeted for digital registration under the NAMASTE scheme?
A) 1 lakh
B) 1.5 lakh
C) 2 lakh
D) 2.5 lakh
Show Answer
Answer: D) 2.5 lakh
79. What health benefit is offered to wastepickers under the NAMASTE scheme?
A) Free medical check-ups
B) Health insurance under Ayushman Bharat – PM-JAY
C) Special sanitation worker hospitals
D) Subsidized medicine
Show Answer
Answer: B) Health insurance under Ayushman Bharat – PM-JAY
80. How many of the US Department of the Interior’s classified critical minerals are found in Ukraine?
A) 12
B) 22
C) 32
D) 42
Show Answer
Answer: B) 22
81. The immunotherapy drug recently made available as a single injection in the UK is:
A) Pembrolizumab
B) Nivolumab
C) Atezolizumab
D) Durvalumab
Show Answer
Answer: B) Nivolumab
82. Which of the following best describes immunotherapy?
A) A treatment that directly targets cancer cells with chemicals
B) A form of radiation therapy that uses targeted beams
C) A biological treatment that harnesses the body’s immune system to fight illnesses
D) A surgical procedure to remove tumors
Show Answer
Answer: C) A biological treatment that harnesses the body’s immune system to fight illnesses
83. What is a key difference between immunotherapy and chemotherapy?
A) Immunotherapy is less expensive than chemotherapy
B) Immunotherapy works faster than chemotherapy
C) Immunotherapy affects only cancer cells while chemotherapy affects all cells
D) Immunotherapy supports the immune system to target cancer cells more selectively
Show Answer
Answer: D) Immunotherapy supports the immune system to target cancer cells more selectively
84. Which of the following is NOT listed as a benefit of immunotherapy?
A) Targeted action primarily on cancer cells
B) Adaptive response against evolving tumors
C) Lower cost compared to traditional treatments
D) Long-term immune memory against recurring cancer cells
Show Answer
Answer: C) Lower cost compared to traditional treatments
85. The Vizhinjam International Deepwater Port is located in which Indian state?
A) Tamil Nadu
B) Gujarat
C) Kerala
D) Maharashtra
Show Answer
Answer: C) Kerala
86. What makes Vizhinjam Port unique in India’s maritime infrastructure?
A) It is India’s oldest port
B) It is India’s first container transshipment hub
C) It has the largest capacity in South Asia
D) It is privately owned and operated
Show Answer
Answer: B) It is India’s first container transshipment hub
87. Under which model is the Vizhinjam Port operated?
A) BOOT (Build, Own, Operate, Transfer)
B) DBFOT (Design, Build, Finance, Operate, and Transfer)
C) BOO (Build, Own, Operate)
D) EPC (Engineering, Procurement, Construction)
Show Answer
Answer: B) DBFOT (Design, Build, Finance, Operate, and Transfer)
88. What natural advantage does Vizhinjam Port have that reduces operational costs?
A) Proximity to international shipping lanes
B) Natural depth of around 20 meters
C) Protected bay area
D) Abundant local workforce
Show Answer
Answer: B) Natural depth of around 20 meters
89. The recently inaugurated infrastructure projects in Amaravati are valued at approximately:
A) ₹40,000 crore
B) ₹50,000 crore
C) ₹58,000 crore
D) ₹65,000 crore
Show Answer
Answer: C) ₹58,000 crore
90. In which district of Andhra Pradesh is Amaravati located?
A) Krishna district
B) Guntur district
C) West Godavari district
D) Nellore district
Show Answer
Answer: B) Guntur district
91. Which Chinese Buddhist monk visited Amaravati in the 7th century CE?
A) Xuanzang
B) Faxian
C) Yijing
D) Bodhidharma
Show Answer
Answer: A) Xuanzang
92. Which ancient dynasty had Amaravati as its capital from the mid-1st to early 3rd century CE?
A) Chola Dynasty
B) Satavahana Dynasty
C) Pallava Dynasty
D) Chalukya Dynasty
Show Answer
Answer: B) Satavahana Dynasty
93. Under which section of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, was Hesaraghatta Grassland declared a Conservation Reserve?
A) Section 18A
B) Section 24B
C) Section 36A
D) Section 42C
Show Answer
Answer: C) Section 36A
94. What percentage of India’s geographical area is covered by grasslands?
A) 10-15%
B) 24%
C) 30-35%
D) 40-50%
Show Answer
Answer: B) 24%
95. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as wildlife found in the Hesaraghatta Grasslande cosystem?
A) Leopards
B) Indian foxes
C) Tigers
D) Smooth-coated otters
Show Answer
Answer: C) Tigers
96. The Hesaraghatta Grassland is part of which river basin?
A) Cauvery River Basin
B) Krishna River Basin
C) Arkavathy River Basin
D) Tungabhadra River Basin
Show Answer
Answer: C) Arkavathy River Basin
97. The Ramman Festival is celebrated in which Indian state?
A) Himachal Pradesh
B) Uttarakhand
C) Sikkim
D) Arunachal Pradesh
Show Answer
Answer: B) Uttarakhand
98. To which deity is the Ramman Festival dedicated?
A) Lord Vishnu
B) Goddess Durga
C) Bhumiyal Devta
D) Lord Shiva
Show Answer
Answer: C) Bhumiyal Devta
99. Who first proposed the theoretical concept of the “black hole bomb”?
A) Stephen Hawking
B) Yakov Zel’dovich
C) Kip Thorne
D) Roger Penrose
Show Answer
Answer: B) Yakov Zel’dovich
100. How many steps are included in the ‘Triple Test’ mandated by the Supreme Court for OBC reservations in local bodies?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
Show Answer
Answer: B) Three
101. What specific Buddhist philosophy is believed to have been first taught by Gautama Buddha in Amaravati?
A) Vajrayana
B) Kalachakra (Wheel of Time)
C) Zen Buddhism
D) Pure Land Buddhism
Show Answer
Answer: B) Kalachakra (Wheel of Time)
102. Which prominent Buddhist philosopher is associated with Amaravati and laid the foundation of Madhyamika philosophy?
A) Acharya Nagarjuna
B) Padmasambhava
C) Asanga
D) Vasubandhu
Show Answer
Answer: A) Acharya Nagarjuna
103. In which of the following villages is the Ramman Festival exclusively celebrated?
A) Joshimath and Badrinath
B) Kedarnath and Gangotri
C) Saloor and Dungra
D) Yamunotri and Haridwar
Show Answer
Answer: C) Saloor and Dungra
104. When is the Ramman Festival observed annually?
A) During winter solstice
B) During spring equinox
C) Late April, after harvest season
D) Mid-June, before monsoon
Show Answer
Answer: C) Late April, after harvest season
105. What defense facility was launched in Nagayalanka, Andhra Pradesh?
A) Naval Training Academy
B) Navdurga Missile Testing Range
C) Aerospace Research Center
D) Military Intelligence Headquarters
Show Answer
Answer: B) Navdurga Missile Testing Range
106. According to the first step of the ‘Triple Test’, what must states establish to justify OBC reservations?
A) A dedicated commission for empirical investigation
B) A special court for OBC grievances
C) A training center for OBC youth
D) A documentation center for OBC history
Show Answer
Answer: A) A dedicated commission for empirical investigation
107. What is the maximum combined reservation limit for SCs, STs, and OBCs in local bodies as per the ‘Triple Test’?
A) 40%
B) 50%
C) 60%
D) 70%
Show Answer
Answer: B) 50%
108. In the context of the “Black Hole Bomb” experiment, what is the Zel’dovich Effect related to?
A) Gravitational lensing around black holes
B) Frequency shift from rotational motion outpacing incoming waves
C) Matter disintegration at the event horizon
D) Hawking radiation from quantum effects
Show Answer
Answer: B) Frequency shift from rotational motion outpacing incoming waves
109. The recently signed UK-India program of Cultural Cooperation primarily aims to:
a) Increase tourism between the UK and India.
b) Facilitate trade agreements in the creative industries.
c) Enhance bilateral cultural exchanges and long-term partnerships in arts and heritage.
d) Promote the study of British and Indian languages in each other’s countries
Show Answer
Answer: c) Enhance bilateral cultural exchanges and long-term partnerships in arts and heritage.
110. Which of the following UK institutions is not explicitly mentioned as a participant in the implementation of the UK-India Cultural Cooperation Agreement?
a) Arts Council England
b) The National Gallery
c) The British Library
d) The British Museum
Show Answer
Answer: b) The National Gallery
111. Based on the information provided, a potential outcome of the UK-India Cultural Cooperation Agreement could be:
a) An increase in the price of South Asian artifacts in international markets.
b) The establishment of new branches of British museums in India
c) Joint exhibitions featuring Indian diaspora experiences held in UK museums.
d) The mandatory repatriation of all South Asian artifacts currently held in UK museums.
Show Answer
Answer: c) Joint exhibitions featuring Indian diaspora experiences held in UK museums.
112. The signing of the cultural cooperation agreement between the UK and India took place in:
a) London
b) Mumbai
c) New Delhi
d) Jaipur
Show Answer
Answer: c) New Delhi
113. The official visit of the UK’s Secretary of State for Culture, Media and Sport, Lisa Nandy, to India coincided with:
a) The announcement of the UK’s new cultural policy.
b) India’s Republic Day celebrations.
c) The World Audio Visual and Entertainment Summit (WAVES) 2025 in Mumbai.
d) The opening of a new British Council center in India.
Show Answer
Answer: c) The World Audio Visual and Entertainment Summit (WAVES) 2025 in Mumbai.
114. The primary objective of establishing the inter-state cheetah conservation corridor between Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh is to:
a) Promote eco-tourism in both states.
b) Increase the tiger population in the Mukundara Hills Tiger Reserve.
c) Improve genetic diversity and facilitate the movement of cheetahs.
d) Establish new national parks in Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh.
Show Answer
Answer: c) Improve genetic diversity and facilitate the movement of cheetahs.
115. Which of the following protected areas in Rajasthan will be linked to the cheetah conservation corridor?
a) Ranthambore National Park
b) Sariska Tiger Reserve
c) Mukundara Hills Tiger Reserve
d) Keoladeo National Park
Show Answer
Answer: c) Mukundara Hills Tiger Reserve
116. According to the information provided, the total area of the inter-state cheetah conservation corridor is:
a) 6,500 square kilometers
b) 10,500 square kilometers
c) 17,000 square kilometers
d) 27,500 square kilometers
Show Answer
Answer: c) 17,000 square kilometers
117. The action plan designating the Kuno-Gandhi Sagar landscape as a suitable cheetah habitat was released by which of the following organizations?
a) The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) and the Central Zoo Authority (CZA)
b) The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) and the Wildlife Institute of India (WII)
c) The World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) and the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
d) The Ministry of Culture (MoC) and the Ministry of Tourism (MoT)
Show Answer
Answer: b) The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) and the Wildlife Institute of India (WII)
118. The inter-state cheetah conservation corridor will span across a total of how many districts in Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh combined?
a) 12
b) 13
c) 20
d) 25
Show Answer
Answer: d) 25
119. The primary purpose of the DRDO’s development and flight-trials of the Stratospheric Airship Platform is to:
a) Enhance India’s weather forecasting capabilities.
b) Boost India’s Intelligence, Surveillance & Reconnaissance (ISR) capabilities.
c) Improve civilian air traffic management.
d) Facilitate high-altitude tourism.
Show Answer
Answer: b) Boost India’s Intelligence, Surveillance & Reconnaissance (ISR) capabilities.
120. The Stratospheric Airship Platform operates as a High-Altitude Pseudo-Satellite (HAPS) in which approximate altitude range above the Earth?
a) Between 5 km and 10 km
b) Between 10 km and 15 km
c) Between 17 km and 22 km
d) Above 36,000 km
Show Answer
Answer: c) Between 17 km and 22 km
121. Which of the following is a key advantage of the Stratospheric Airship Platform over traditional satellites for surveillance and monitoring?
a) Higher operational altitude providing a broader coverage area.
b) Immunity to weather conditions due to its stratospheric operation.
c) Faster deployment, lower costs, and greater operational flexibility.
d) Ability to travel at hypersonic speeds for rapid response.
Show Answer
Answer: c) Faster deployment, lower costs, and greater operational flexibility.
122. The maiden flight-trials of the Stratospheric Airship Platform were conducted at which location?
a) Wheeler Island, Odisha
b) Pokhran Test Range, Rajasthan
c) Sheopur Trial Site, Madhya Pradesh
d) Agra, Uttar Pradesh
Show Answer
Answer: c) Sheopur Trial Site, Madhya Pradesh
123. The Stratospheric Airship Platform utilizes which primary source of energy for its long duration operation?
a) Jet fuel
b) Nuclear power
c) Solar energy with onboard batteries
d) High-capacity chemical batteries
Show Answer
Answer: c) Solar energy with onboard batteries
124. The establishment of IIFT’s off-campus centre at GIFT City is primarily intended to:
a) Promote tourism in Gandhinagar.
b) Enhance research in financial technologies.
c) Train talent and conduct research in international trade.
d) Offer undergraduate degrees in business administration.
Show Answer
Answer: c) Train talent and conduct research in international trade.
125. The establishment of IIFT’s GIFT City campus aligns with the goals of which national policy?
a) The National Policy on Skill Development and Entrepreneurship, 2015
b) The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020
c) The Foreign Trade Policy of India
d) The Digital India initiative
Show Answer
Answer: b) The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020
126. The approval for the establishment of the Indian Institute of Foreign Trade (IIFT)’s off campus centre at GIFT City was granted by which of the following authorities?
a) The Ministry of Commerce & Industry
b) The Government of Gujarat
c) The University Grants Commission (UGC) and the Ministry of Education
d) The All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)
Show Answer
Answer: c) The University Grants Commission (UGC) and the Ministry of Education
127. When will the mock drill be conducted throughout India?
a) 2 may 2025
b) 2025
c) 6 May 2025
d) 7 may 2025
Show Answer
Answer: d) 7 may 2025
128. The civil defence mock drill scheduled for May 7 will reportedly cover:?
a) All districts within the mentioned states.
b) A select number of districts in major metropolitan cities.
c) 244 districts across the nation.
d) Only the border districts of the participating states.
Show Answer
Answer: c) 244 districts across the nation.
129. Which of the following entities is primarily responsible for the assembly of the Igla-S man-portable air defence systems in India, as per the information provided?
(a) Ministry of Defence (MoD)
(b) Rosoboronexport
(c) Adani Defence Systems And Technologies Limited (ADSTL)
(d) Indian Army (IA)
Show Answer
Answer: (c) Adani Defence Systems And Technologies Limited (ADSTL)
130. The procurement and assembly of the Igla-S missiles in India are primarily aimed at enhancing the Indian Army’s capability to counter which type of aerial threats, particularly in forward areas and mountainous terrain?
(a) High-altitude, long-range strategic bombers
(b) Low-flying helicopters, Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), and low-speed aircraft
(c) Intercontinental Ballistic Missiles (ICBMs)
(d) High-speed fighter jets operating at high altitudes
Show Answer
Answer: (b) Low-flying helicopters, Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), and low-speed aircraft
131. The agreement between ADSTL and Rosoboron export for the assembly of Igla-S missiles is based on which of the following principles?
(a) Outright purchase of fully assembled units
(b) Joint venture for indigenous development
(c) Technology Transfer (ToT) allowing domestic assembly
(d) Licensing for export to third countries
Show Answer
Answer: (c) Technology Transfer (ToT) allowing domestic assembly
132. The Igla-S missile system, also known as SA-24 ‘Grinch’ by NATO, represents an upgrade over which earlier missile system used by the Indian defence forces?
(a) Prithvi missile
(b) Agni missile
(c) Akash missile
(d) Igla missile
Show Answer
Answer: (d) Igla missile
133. Based on the information provided, what is a key advantage of the Igla-S missile system that makes it suitable for rapid deployment by infantry units?
(a) Its very long range engagement capability
(b) Its extremely high altitude reach
(c) Its lightweight and portable design
(d) Its ability to engage multiple targets simultaneously
Show Answer
Answer: (c) Its lightweight and portable design
134. In May 2025, which organization launched the ‘Submarine Cable Project’ to enhance ocean monitoring in the Indian Ocean?
(a) National Institute of Oceanography (NIO)
(b) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
(c) Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS)
(d) Geological Survey of India (GSI)
Show Answer
Answer: (c) Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS)
135. The ‘Submarine Cable Project’ by INCOIS is primarily focused on improving the understanding of which of the following?
(a) Marine biodiversity and fishing patterns
(b) Oceanographic patterns, seismic movements, and tsunami risks
(c) Deep-sea mining potential and resource mapping
(d) Coastal erosion and sediment transport
Show Answer
Answer: (b) Oceanographic patterns, seismic movements, and tsunami risks
136. Where will the 150-kilometer submarine cable for the INCOIS project be installed?
(a) Off the coast of Chennai, Tamil Nadu
(b) In the Arabian Sea, near Mumbai
(c) Off the coast of Wandoor in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(d) In the Bay of Bengal, near Kolkata
Show Answer
Answer: (c) Off the coast of Wandoor in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands
137. The science nodes along the submarine cable will be equipped with which type of sensors?
(a) Meteorological and atmospheric sensors
(b) Oceanographic and geophysical sensors
(c) Biological and chemical sensors
(d) Navigation and communication sensors
Show Answer
Answer: (b) Oceanographic and geophysical sensors
138. Under which ministry does the Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) operate?
(a) Ministry of Defence
(b) Ministry of Science and Technology
(c) Ministry of Earth Sciences
(d) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
Show Answer
Answer: (c) Ministry of Earth Sciences
139. The primary purpose of the DRDO’s development and flight-trials of the Stratospheric Airship Platform is to:
a) Enhance India’s weather forecasting capabilities.
b) Boost India’s Intelligence, Surveillance & Reconnaissance (ISR) capabilities.
c) Improve civilian air traffic management.
d) Facilitate high-altitude tourism.
Show Answer
Answer: b) Boost India’s Intelligence, Surveillance & Reconnaissance (ISR) capabilities.
140. What is the full form of the MAHASAGAR initiative, unveiled by the Indian Prime Minister?
(a) Maritime Alliance for Holistic Assistance, Security, and Growth in All Regions
(b) Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions
(c) Major Asian Hub for Security and Growth in Regional Seas
(d) Multilateral Approach for Stability and Growth Across Oceanic Realm
Show Answer
Answer: (b) Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions
141. Which of the following is a key advantage of the Stratospheric Airship Platform over traditional satellites for surveillance and monitoring?
a) Higher operational altitude providing a broader coverage area.
b) Immunity to weather conditions due to its stratospheric operation.
c) Faster deployment, lower costs, and greater operational flexibility.
d) Ability to travel at hypersonic speeds for rapid response.
Show Answer
Answer: c) Faster deployment, lower costs, and greater operational flexibility.
142. Which country is the primary training partner for the Maldives National Defence Force (MNDF), having trained over 1,500 personnel in the last decade?
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) India
(c) China
(d) Pakistan
Show Answer
Answer: (b) India
143. What type of support has India provided to the Maldives National Defence Force (MNDF) since 2019, with over 630 instances?
(a) Financial aid for military modernization
(b) Supply of advanced weaponry and equipment
(c) Medical evacuations (MEDEVACs), Search and Rescue (SAR) operations, and air surveillance missions
(d) Deployment of Indian military personnel for joint patrols
Show Answer
Answer: (c) Medical evacuations (MEDEVACs), Search and Rescue (SAR) operations, and air surveillance missions
144. What is the capital city of Maldives?
(a) Colombo
(b) Male
(c) Hulhumalé
(d) Addu City
Show Answer
Answer: (b) Male
145. What was the primary reason cited by the Nicaraguan government for its withdrawal from UNESCO?
(a) Disagreements over funding contributions
(b) UNESCO’s criticism of Nicaragua’s education policies
(c) UNESCO’s decision to award the 2025 Guillermo Cano World Press Freedom Prize to the exiled Nicaraguan newspaper La Prensa
(d) Concerns about UNESCO’s focus on cultural heritage over scientific advancement
Show Answer
Answer: (c) UNESCO’s decision to award the 2025 Guillermo Cano World Press Freedom Prize to the exiled Nicaraguan newspaper La Prensa
146. The UNESCO/Guillermo Cano World Press Freedom Prize is named in honor of a journalist from which country who was assassinated for his work?
(a) Nicaragua
(b) Colombia
(c) France
(d) United States of America
Show Answer
Answer: (b) Colombia
147. According to UNESCO’s constitution, when will Nicaragua’s withdrawal from the organization officially take effect?
(a) Immediately upon the announcement in May 2025
(b) At the end of the current fiscal year, June 30, 2025
(c) On December 31, 2026
(d) One year after the official notification of withdrawal
Show Answer
Answer: (c) On December 31, 2026
148. Which of the following is the capital city of Nicaragua?
(a) San José
(b) Tegucigalpa
(c) Managua
(d) Panama City
Show Answer
Answer: (c) Managua
149. Which two major terrorist organizations were the primary targets of Operation Sindoor?
(a) Al-Qaeda and Taliban
(b) Hizbul Mujahideen (HM) and Indian Mujahideen (IM)
(c) Jaish-e-Mohammed (JeM) and Lashkar-e-Taiba (LeT)
(d) Harkat-ul-Mujahideen (HuM) and Jamaat-ud-Dawa (JuD)
Show Answer
Answer: (c) Jaish-e-Mohammed (JeM) and Lashkar-e-Taiba (LeT)
150. Which type of missile, known for its long range and use in deep strikes, was reportedly used by India in Operation Sindoor?
(a) BrahMos Missile
(b) Agni Missile
(c) SCALP Missile (Storm Shadow)
(d) Prithvi Missile
Show Answer
Answer: (c) SCALP Missile (Storm Shadow)
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