Practice the May 2025 3rd Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the Third week of May 2025.
The Current Affairs Quiz of 15 to 21 May features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.
3rd Week of May 2025: Current Affairs Quiz
1. Which country has launched the world’s first commercial-scale e-methanol production facility?
A) Sweden
B) Norway
C) Denmark
D) Finland
Show Answer
Answer: C) Denmark
2. E-methanol is produced by synthesizing which two main components?
A) Green hydrogen and natural gas
B) Green hydrogen and captured carbon dioxide
C) Water and methane
D) Biomass and natural gas
Show Answer
Answer: B) Green hydrogen and captured carbon dioxide
3. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a benefit of e-methanol?
A) Drop-in compatibility with existing fuel infrastructure
B) Easy storage at ambient temperature and pressure
C) Lower production cost compared to conventional fuels
D) Versatility as a precursor for various fuels and chemicals
Show Answer
Answer: C) Lower production cost compared to conventional fuels
4. According to NITI Aayog’s ‘Methanol Economy’, how many new jobs could potentially be created through methanol production and related activities?
A) 2 million
B) 3.5 million
C) 5 million
D) 7 million
Show Answer
Answer: C) 5 million
5. How much could India save annually by blending 20% DME with LPG?
A) ₹3,000 crore
B) ₹4,500 crore
C) ₹6,000 crore
D) ₹7,500 crore
Show Answer
Answer: C) ₹6,000 crore
6. Which Article of the Indian Constitution establishes the Supreme Court of India?
A) Article 123(1)
B) Article 124(1)
C) Article 125(1)
D) Article 126(1)
Show Answer
Answer: B) Article 124(1)
7. Who was the first Chief Justice of India?
A) Justice B.N. Rau
B) Justice H.J. Kania
C) Justice M. Patanjali Sastri
D) Justice K.N. Wanchoo
Show Answer
Answer: B) Justice H.J. Kania
8. Until what age does the Chief Justice of India serve?
A) 62 years
B) 63 years
C) 64 years
D) 65 years
Show Answer
Answer: D) 65 years
9. Who administers the oath of office to the Chief Justice of India?
A) The outgoing Chief Justice
B) The President of India
C) The Prime Minister of India
D) The senior-most judge of the Supreme Court
Show Answer
Answer: B) The President of India
10. What was India’s headline retail inflation rate in April 2025?
A) 2.88%
B) 3.16%
C) 3.34%
D) 4.12%
Show Answer
Answer: B) 3.16%
11. When was the last time India’s inflation was as low as April 2025 levels?
A) January 2018
B) March 2019
C) July 2019
D) October 2020
Show Answer
Answer: C) July 2019
12. What was the rural inflation rate in April 2025?
A) 2.72%
B) 2.92%
C) 3.15%
D) 3.25%
Show Answer
Answer: B) 2.92%
13. What is the RBI’s inflation target range under the Monetary Policy Framework?
A) 2-4%
B) 2-6%
C) 3-5%
D) 4-8%
Show Answer
Answer: B) 2-6%
14. What percentage of India’s EXIM cargo by volume is handled by ports?
A) ~70%
B) ~80%
C) ~90%
D) ~95%
Show Answer
Answer: C) ~90%
15. By how much has the turnaround time (TRT) at India’s major ports improved from FY 2014-15 to FY 2024-25?
A) 28%
B) 38%
C) 48%
D) 58%
Show Answer
Answer: C) 48%
16. Which two ports handled more than 150 MT cargo for the first time?
A) Mumbai and Chennai
B) Paradip and Deendayal
C) Visakhapatnam and Kolkata
D) Cochin and New Mangalore
Show Answer
Answer: B) Paradip and Deendayal
17. When was the Sagarmala Programme launched?
A) 2013
B) 2014
C) 2015
D) 2016
Show Answer
Answer: C) 2015
18. Where is the headquarters of the Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) located?
A) Mumbai
B) Kolkata
C) New Delhi
D) Noida
Show Answer
Answer: D) Noida
19. In which year was the Inland Waterways Authority of India established?
A) 1982
B) 1986
C) 1990
D) 1994
Show Answer
Answer: B) 1986
20. Which of the following rivers is NOT mentioned as a National Waterway in Jammu & Kashmir?
A) River Chenab
B) River Jhelum
C) River Ravi
D) River Sutlej
Show Answer
Answer: D) River Sutlej
21. India’s 6th semiconductor unit will be established in which location?
A) Near Delhi Airport
B) Near Jewar Airport in YEIDA region
C) Near Lucknow Airport
D) Near Varanasi Airport
Show Answer
Answer: B) Near Jewar Airport in YEIDA region
22. The 6th semiconductor unit in India is a joint venture between which companies?
A) Tata and Samsung
B) Reliance and Intel
C) HCL and Foxconn
D) Adani and TSMC
Show Answer
Answer: C) HCL and Foxconn
23. What is the projected growth of India’s semiconductor market from 2019 to 2030?
A) $22 billion to $80 billion
B) $22 billion to $110 billion
C) $30 billion to $110 billion
D) $22 billion to $150 billion
Show Answer
Answer: B) $22 billion to $110 billion
24. What percentage of the world’s semiconductor design engineers does India have?
A) ~10%
B) ~15%
C) ~20%
D) ~25%
Show Answer
Answer: C) ~20%
25. What was the value of India’s semiconductor imports in 2024?
A) ₹1.51 lakh crore
B) ₹1.61 lakh crore
C) ₹1.71 lakh crore
D) ₹1.81 lakh crore
Show Answer
Answer: C) ₹1.71 lakh crore
26. What is the employment multiplier effect in the semiconductor?
A) 1 semiconductor job supports 8 others
B) 1 semiconductor job supports 12 others
C) 1 semiconductor job supports 16 others
D) 1 semiconductor job supports 20 others
Show Answer
Answer: C) 1 semiconductor job supports 16 others
27. Which department is backing the CCU Testbed Cluster for the cement sector?
A) Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion
B) Department of Science and Technology
C) Department of Heavy Industries
D) Department of Environment
Show Answer
Answer: B) Department of Science and Technology
28. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a technology showcased in the CCU Testbed Cluster?
A) Oxygen-Enhanced Calcination
B) Carbon-Negative Mineralization
C) Vacuum Swing Adsorption
D) Pressure Swing Absorption
Show Answer
Answer: D) Pressure Swing Absorption
29. By which date is the goal to make India Naxal-free?
A) December 31, 2025
B) March 31, 2026
C) December 31, 2026
D) March 31, 2027
Show Answer
Answer: B) March 31, 2026
30. Where did Left-Wing Extremism (LWE) or Naxalism begin in India?
A) Bastar, Chhattisgarh
B) Naxalbari, West Bengal
C) Wayanad, Kerala
D) Gadchiroli, Maharashtra
Show Answer
Answer: B) Naxalbari, West Bengal
31. How many districts are currently affected by Left-Wing Extremism in India as of 2025?
A) 12
B) 18
C) 24
D) 35
Show Answer
Answer: B) 18
32. In the recent anti-Naxal operation, how many Naxalites were reportedly neutralized?
A) 21
B) 26
C) 31
D) 36
Show Answer
Answer: C) 31
33. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a security force involved in the anti-Naxal operation?
A) CoBRA
B) Special Task Force (STF)
C) District Reserve Guards (DRG)
D) National Security Guard (NSG)
Show Answer
Answer: D) National Security Guard (NSG)
34. When was the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) launched?
A) 2015
B) 2016
C) 2017
D) 2018
Show Answer
Answer: C) 2017
35. By how many times has the sample size of PLFS been increased as per the reforms?
A) 1.65 times
B) 2.15 times
C) 2.65 times
D) 3.15 times
Show Answer
Answer: C) 2.65 times
36. In which year was the UNSC 1267 Sanctions Committee established?
A) 1997
B) 1998
C) 1999
D) 2000
Show Answer
Answer: C) 1999
37. What is the name of the AI-driven air defence system developed by Bharat Electronics Limited?
A) Akashdeep
B) Akashteer
C) Akashvani
D) Akashmitra
Show Answer
Answer: B) Akashteer
38. What is the drone detection range of the Bhargavastra anti-drone system?
A) Up to 1.5 km
B) Up to 2.5 km
C) Up to 3.5 km
D) Up to 4.5 km
Show Answer
Answer: B) Up to 2.5 km
39. Which company has developed the Bhargavastra anti-drone system?
A) Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL)
B) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)
C) Solar Defence and Aerospace Limited (SDAL)
D) Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
Show Answer
Answer: C) Solar Defence and Aerospace Limited (SDAL)
40. What is the radar detection range of Bhargavastra for aerial threats?
A) 2-5 km
B) 4-8 km
C) 6-10 km
D) 8-12 km
Show Answer
Answer: C) 6-10 km
41. Which Article has been invoked by President Droupadi Murmu to seek clarity on whether the Supreme Court can set timelines for Governors and the President to act on Bills?
A) Article 131
B) Article 142
C) Article 143
D) Article 145(3)
Show Answer
Answer: C) Article 143
42. In the context of the Presidential Reference on Assent Timelines, which case led the Supreme Court to set time limits for Governors under Article 200?
A) State of Tamil Nadu vs Governor of Tamil Nadu
B) State of Kerala vs Union of India
C) Governor of West Bengal vs State Legislature
D) President of India vs Supreme Court of India
Show Answer
Answer: A) State of Tamil Nadu vs Governor of Tamil Nadu
43. Which Article of the Constitution provides immunity to the President and Governors from legal proceedings for their official acts?
A) Article 200
B) Article 201
C) Article 143
D) Article 361
Show Answer
Answer: D) Article 361
44. When did Sikkim become a full-fledged state of India?
A) 16 May 1974
B) 16 May 1975
C) 26 January 1975
D) 15 August 1975
Show Answer
Answer: B) 16 May 1975
45. Which constitutional amendment made Sikkim an “Associate State” of India?
A) 35th Amendment Act, 1974
B) 36th Amendment Act, 1975
C) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
D) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
Show Answer
Answer: A) 35th Amendment Act, 1974
46. India’s first biological space experiments aboard the ISS are being conducted in collaboration with:
A) NASA and ISRO
B) ISRO and DBT
C) ISRO and DRDO
D) DBT and NASA
Show Answer
Answer: B) ISRO and DBT
47. The mission platform for India’s first biological experiments in space is:
A) Axiom-3
B) Axiom-4
C) Gaganyaan
D) SpaceX Dragon
Show Answer
Answer: B) Axiom-4
48. What is the tentative launch timeframe for the LUPEX (Lunar Polar Exploration) mission?
A) Late 2020s
B) Early 2030s
C) Mid-2030s
D) By 2040
Show Answer
Answer: B) Early 2030s
49. In the LUPEX mission collaboration between India and Japan, which component will be contributed by ISRO?
A) Rover system
B) Lander module
C) Scientific instruments
D) Propulsion system
Show Answer
Answer: B) Lander module
50. NASA’s GRAIL mission launched in 2011 consisted of two spacecraft named:
A) Ebb and Flow
B) Vikram and Pragyan
C) Luna and Sol
D) Explorer and Voyager
Show Answer
Answer: A) Ebb and Flow
51. India’s Defence Minister has called for which organization’s monitoring of Pakistan’s nuclear weapons?
A) CTBT
B) NPT
C) IAEA
D) UN Security Council
Show Answer
Answer: C) IAEA
52. Which of the following countries is NOT a recognized nuclear state under the Non Proliferation Treaty (NPT)?
A) United States
B) China
C) Russia
D) India
Show Answer
Answer: D) India
53. The headquarters of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) is located in:
A) Geneva, Switzerland
B) Vienna, Austria
C) New York, USA
D) Paris, France
Show Answer
Answer: B) Vienna, Austria
54. Which country withdrew from the IAEA in 1994?
A) Iran
B) North Korea
C) Pakistan
D) Israel
Show Answer
Answer: B) North Korea
55. Which nuclear non-proliferation treaty has India signed and ratified?
A) Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty (CTBT)
B) Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons (TPNW)
C) Partial Test Ban Treaty (PTBT)
D) Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)
Show Answer
Answer: C) Partial Test Ban Treaty (PTBT)
56. The Samudrayaan Mission is part of which larger initiative?
A) Blue Economy Vision
B) Deep Ocean Mission
C) Maritime India Vision
D) Sagarmala Project
Show Answer
Answer: B) Deep Ocean Mission
57. What is the depth capacity of MATSYA 6000, India’s first crewed deep-sea submersible vehicle?
A) 3,000 meters
B) 4,500 meters
C) 6,000 meters
D) 8,000 meters
Show Answer
Answer: C) 6,000 meters
58. Which glacier in Nepal was recently declared “dead” after shrinking by 66% since the 1970s?
A) Khumbu Glacier
B) Yala Glacier
C) Gangotri Glacier
D) Siachen Glacier
Show Answer
Answer: B) Yala Glacier
59. Which year has been declared as the “International Year of Glacier Preservation” by the UN?
A) 2024
B) 2025
C) 2026
D) 2030
Show Answer
Answer: B) 2025
60. India’s glacier research station “Himansh” is located in which region?
A) Sikkim
B) Ladakh
C) Lahaul-Spiti
D) Uttarakhand
Show Answer
Answer: C) Lahaul-Spiti
61. What is the primary objective of the Gyan Bharatam Mission?
A) To digitize ancient artifacts
B) To survey, document, and conserve over one crore manuscripts
C) To promote Indian literature globally
D) To establish new libraries across the country
Show Answer
Answer: B) To survey, document, and conserve over one crore manuscripts
62. Which ministry is responsible for implementing the Gyan Bharatam Mission?
A) Ministry of Education
B) Ministry of Culture
C) Ministry of Tourism
D) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
Show Answer
Answer: B) Ministry of Culture
63. The Gyan Bharatam Mission is executed under which existing initiative?
A) National Digital Library Mission
B) National Manuscripts Mission (NMM)
C) National Archives Initiative
D) Bharat Heritage Project
Show Answer
Answer: B) National Manuscripts Mission (NMM)
64. What is the budget allocation for the Gyan Bharatam Mission as per the Union Budget 2025-26?
A) ₹3.5 crore
B) ₹30 crore
C) ₹60 crore
D) ₹100 crore
Show Answer
Answer: C) ₹60 crore
65. When was the first United Nations peacekeeping mission established?
A) 1945
B) 1948
C) 1956
D) 1960
Show Answer
Answer: B) 1948
66. Which UN body is primarily responsible for establishing peacekeeping missions?
A) UN General Assembly
B) UN Security Council
C) UN Secretariat
D) UN Peacebuilding Commission
Show Answer
Answer: B) UN Security Council
67. What are the three basic principles that guide UN peacekeeping operations?
A) Consent of the parties, impartiality, and non-use of force except in self-defense
B) Sovereignty, neutrality, and economic development
C) Military intervention, political negotiation, and humanitarian aid
D) None of the above
Show Answer
Answer: A) Consent of the parties, impartiality, and non-use of force except in self-defense
68. When is the International Day of United Nations Peacekeepers observed?
A) May 24
B) May 29
C) June 1
D) April 30
Show Answer
Answer: B) May 29
69. What is the primary objective of the Amrit Bharat Station Scheme?
A) To develop high-speed rail corridors
B) To modernize and redevelop railway stations across India
C) To privatize railway operations
D) To introduce bullet trains nationwide
Show Answer
Answer: B) To modernize and redevelop railway stations across India
70. How many railway stations are targeted for redevelopment under the ABSS?
A) 500
B) 1000
C) 1309
D) 1500
Show Answer
Answer: C) 1309
71. What is the estimated cost allocated for the Amrit Bharat Station Scheme?
A) ₹10,000 crore
B) ₹20,000 crore
C) ₹25,000 crore
D) ₹30,000 crore
Show Answer
Answer: C) ₹25,000 crore
72. Which previous scheme is being replaced by the Amrit Bharat Station Scheme?
A) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
B) Adarsh Station Scheme
C) Digital India
D) Make in India
Show Answer
Answer: B) Adarsh Station Scheme
73. Under which ministry was the Amrit Bharat Station Scheme launched?
A) Ministry of Urban Development
B) Ministry of Transport
C) Ministry of Railways
D) Ministry of Infrastructure
Show Answer
Answer: C) Ministry of Railways
74. What is the total allocation for India’s Defence Budget in FY 2025-26?
A) ₹5.94 lakh crore
B) ₹6.22 lakh crore
C) ₹6.81 lakh crore
D) ₹7.10 lakh crore
Show Answer
Answer: C) ₹6.81 lakh crore
75. What percentage of India’s GDP does the Defence Budget 2025-26 represent?
A) 1.5%
B) 1.9%
C) 2.5%
D) 3.0%
Show Answer
Answer: B) 1.9%
76. How much has been allocated for capital expenditure in the Defence Budget 2025-26?
A) ₹1.72 lakh crore
B) ₹1.80 lakh crore
C) ₹1.92 lakh crore
D) ₹2.00 lakh crore
Show Answer
Answer: C) ₹1.92 lakh crore
77. What is the government’s stance on the fiscal impact of increased defence spending?
A) It will significantly strain the economy
B) It is manageable within the current fiscal framework
C) It necessitates foreign loans
D) It requires cuts in other sectors
Show Answer
Answer: B) It is manageable within the current fiscal framework
78. How does India’s defence budget compare globally in terms of absolute spending?
A) Third largest globally
B) Second largest globally
C) Fourth largest globally
D) Fifth largest globally
Show Answer
Answer: D) Fifth largest globally
79. Who launched the inaugural edition of the Sansad Ratna Awards in 2010?
A) Pranab Mukherjee
B) APJ Abdul Kalam
C) Narendra Modi
D) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
Show Answer
Answer: B) APJ Abdul Kalam
80. What is the primary criterion for selecting recipients of the Sansad Ratna Awards?
A) Public popularity
B) Length of parliamentary service
C) Performance in parliamentary debates, questions, and private member bills
D) Number of bills passed
Show Answer
Answer: C) Performance in parliamentary debates, questions, and private member bills
81. What is the purpose of the Sansad Ratna Awards?
A) To honor celebrities in politics
B) To recognize top-performing parliamentarians based on their work in the apex legislative body
C) To award the longest-serving MPs
D) To commemorate historical parliamentary events
Show Answer
Answer: B) To recognize top-performing parliamentarians based on their work in the apex legislative body
82. Which organization instituted the Sansad Ratna Awards?
A) Election Commission of India
B) Prime Point Foundation and eMagazine PreSense
C) Lok Sabha Secretariat
D) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
Show Answer
Answer: B) Prime Point Foundation and eMagazine PreSense
83. Under which ministry does the National Council of Science Museums (NCSM) operate?
A) Ministry of Science and Technology
B) Ministry of Culture
C) Ministry of Education
D) Ministry of Earth Sciences
Show Answer
Answer: B) Ministry of Culture
84. When was the National Council of Science Museums (NCSM) established?
A) 1959
B) 1965
C) 1978
D) 1985
Show Answer
Answer: C) 1978
85. What is the primary objective of the National Council of Science Museums?
A) Conducting scientific research
B) Promoting science education through interactive exhibits
C) Regulating scientific patents
D) Funding scientific startups
Show Answer
Answer: B) Promoting science education through interactive exhibits
86. Which of the following science centers is NOT under the National Council of Science Museums?
A) Birla Industrial & Technological Museum, Kolkata
B) Nehru Science Centre, Mumbai
C) National Science Centre, Delhi
D) Indian Museum, Kolkata
Show Answer
Answer: D) Indian Museum, Kolkata
87. What was the primary objective of the EOS-09 satellite?
A) Communication services
B) Navigation support
C) Earth observation using Synthetic Aperture Radar
D) Space exploration beyond Earth’s orbit
Show Answer
Answer: C) Earth observation using Synthetic Aperture Radar
88. What was the outcome of the PSLV-C61/EOS-09 mission?
A) Successful deployment of EOS-09 into intended orbit
B) Partial success with limited functionality
C) Mission failure due to third-stage anomaly
D) Launch postponed due to technical issues
Show Answer
Answer: C) Mission failure due to third-stage anomaly
89. What is the launch mass of the EOS-09 satellite?
A) 1,284 kg
B) 1,540 kg
C) 1,696 kg
D) 2,128 kg
Show Answer
Answer: C) 1,696 kg
90. What was the planned mission life of EOS-09?
A) 3 years
B) 5 years
C) 7 years
D) 10 years
Show Answer
Answer: B) 5 years
91. What was the intended orbit for EOS-09?
A) Geostationary orbit
B) Low Earth orbit
C) Sun-synchronous polar orbit
D) Medium Earth orbit
Show Answer
Answer: C) Sun-synchronous polar orbit
92. What is the full form of SAR, the payload onboard EOS-09?
A) Synthetic Aperture Radar
B) Satellite Assisted Radiometry
C) Solar Array Reflector
D) Signal Amplification Receiver
Show Answer
Answer: A) Synthetic Aperture Radar
93. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did President Droupadi Murmu seek the Supreme Court’s opinion regarding deadlines for gubernatorial assent to state bills?
A) Article 142
B) Article 143
C) Article 144
D) Article 145
Show Answer
Answer: B) Article 143
94. How many questions did President Murmu submit to the Supreme Court in her recent reference under Article 143(1)?
A) 10
B) 12
C) 14
D) 16
Show Answer
Answer: C) 14
95. What was the primary concern addressed by President Murmu in her reference to the Supreme Court?
A) The validity of state-imposed taxes
B) The Supreme Court’s ruling imposing deadlines for assent to state bills
C) The appointment process of High Court judges
D) The implementation of the Goods and Services Tax (GST)
Show Answer
Answer: B) The Supreme Court’s ruling imposing deadlines for assent to state bills
96. What is the nature of the Supreme Court’s opinion provided under Article 143(1)?
A) Binding on all parties
B) Advisory and not binding
C) Subject to parliamentary approval
D) Requires ratification by state legislatures
Show Answer
Answer: B) Advisory and not binding
97. What is the total amount of the IMF Stand-By Arrangement approved for Pakistan in 2023?
A) $3 billion
B) $5 billion
C) $1 billion
D) $4.5 billion
Show Answer
Answer: A) $3 billion
98. Which global economic institution approved the bailout for Pakistan?
A. World Bank
B. Asian Development Bank
C. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
D. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
Show Answer
Answer: C. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
99. Which currency was mainly used in the announcement of the IMF bailout to Pakistan?
A. Pakistani Rupee
B. Pound Sterling
C. US Dollar
D. Euro
Show Answer
Answer: C. US Dollar
100. The $1 billion IMF bailout to Pakistan is part of which larger financial support agreement?
A. Extended Credit Facility
B. Stand-By Arrangement
C. Structural Adjustment Program
D. Poverty Reduction and Growth Trust
Show Answer
Answer: B. Stand-By Arrangement
101. Which of the following reforms has the IMF emphasized for Pakistan as part of the bailout conditions?
A. Increasing defense spending
B. Subsidizing energy prices
C. Strengthening fiscal discipline and improving tax collection
D. Nationalizing private banks
Show Answer
Answer: C. Strengthening fiscal discipline and improving tax collection
102. The Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project is a joint initiative between India and which country?
A. Bangladesh
B. Thailand
C. Myanmar
D. Nepal
Show Answer
Answer: C. Myanmar
103. Which Indian state is directly connected through the Kaladan project?
A. Assam
B. Mizoram
C. Manipur
D. Arunachal Pradesh
Show Answer
Answer: B. Mizoram
104. The Kaladan project aims to connect the Indian port of Kolkata with which Myanmar port?
A. Yangon
B. Sittwe
C. Mandalay
D. Naypyidaw
Show Answer
Answer: B. Sittwe
105. Which of the following modes of transport are involved in the Kaladan Multi-Modal Project?
A. Only Road
B. Road and Air
C. Road, River, and Sea
D. Sea and Rail
Show Answer
Answer: C. Road, River, and Sea
106. The inland waterway component of the Kaladan project connects Sittwe Port to which town in Myanmar?
A. Paletwa
B. Tamu
C. Lashio
D. Dawei
Show Answer
Answer: A. Paletwa
107. Which river is used in the inland waterway portion of the Kaladan project?
A. Ganges
B. Brahmaputra
C. Kaladan River
D. Irrawaddy
Show Answer
Answer: C. Kaladan River
108. What is the main strategic objective of the Kaladan project for India?
A. To export oil to Southeast Asia
B. To bypass the Siliguri Corridor (Chicken’s Neck)
C. To connect Delhi to Southeast Asia
D. To promote tourism in the Northeast
Show Answer
Answer: B. To bypass the Siliguri Corridor (Chicken’s Neck)
109. What is the main objective of introducing e-Passports in India?
A) To reduce passport fees
B) To increase the validity period of passports
C) To enhance passport security and streamline immigration processes
D) To allow online passport applications only
Show Answer
Answer: C) To enhance passport security and streamline immigration processes
110. What key feature distinguishes an e-Passport from a traditional passport?
A) Color of the cover
B) Inclusion of a digital payment chip
C) Embedded electronic chip containing biometric data
D) Printed QR code on the last page
Show Answer
Answer: C) Embedded electronic chip containing biometric data
111. Which organization is responsible for issuing e-Passports in India?
A) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
B) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting of India
C) Ministry of Home Affairs
D) Ministry of External Affairs
Show Answer
Answer: D) Ministry of External Affairs
112. What kind of chip is embedded in an Indian e-Passport?
A) SIM chip
B) Contactless RFID chip
C) Bluetooth chip
D) MicroSD chip
Show Answer
Answer: B) Contactless RFID chip
113. In which year did India issue its first trial batch of e-Passports?
A) 2015
B) 2017
C) 2022
D) 2024
Show Answer
Answer: C) 2022
114. Which standard by BIS specifically deals with fire extinguishers?
A) IS 456
B) IS 2190
C) IS 875
D) IS 3034
Show Answer
Answer: B) IS 2190
115. The fire safety requirements in India are mainly governed by which part of the National Building Code (NBC)?
A) Part 1 – Definitions
B) Part 2 – Administration
C) Part 4 – Fire and Life Safety
D) Part 6 – Structural Design
Show Answer
Answer: C) Part 4 – Fire and Life Safety
116. What is the primary aim of the Model Code for Fire Safety in India?
A) To design cost-effective buildings
B) To promote green building technologies
C) To prevent fire hazards and ensure safe evacuation
D) To regulate construction materials
Show Answer
Answer: C) To prevent fire hazards and ensure safe evacuation
117. In which year was the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) established in India?
A) 2002
B) 2005
C) 2008
D) 2010
Show Answer
Answer: B) 2005
118. Who is the ex-officio Chairperson of the NDMA?
A) Home Minister of India
B) Minister of Environment
C) Prime Minister of India
D) President of India
Show Answer
Answer: C) Prime Minister of India
119. Which ministry does NDMA come under?
A) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
B) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
C) Ministry of Home Affairs
D) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
Show Answer
Answer: C) Ministry of Home Affairs
120. The latest version of NBC was released in which year?
A) 2005
B) 2010
C) 2016
D) 2020
Show Answer
Answer: C) 2016
121. Where does the Indus River originate?
A) Zaskar Range
B) Kailash Range near Lake Mansarovar
C) Karakoram Range
D) Ladakh Plateau
Show Answer
Answer: B) Kailash Range near Lake Mansarovar
122. The Indus River flows through which of the following countries?
A) India and China only
B) India, Nepal, and Bangladesh
C) India, China, and Pakistan
D) India, Bhutan, and Myanmar
Show Answer
Answer: C) India, China, and Pakistan
123. Which of the following is NOT a tributary of the Indus River?
A) Jhelum
B) Chenab
C) Beas
D) Sutlej
Show Answer
Answer: C) Beas (Beas is a tributary of the Sutlej, not directly of the Indus.)
124. What is the approximate total length of the Indus River?
A) 2,000 km
B) 2,900 km
C) 3,180 km
D) 4,000 km
Show Answer
Answer: C) 3,180 km
125. The Indus Water Treaty of 1960 was signed between which two countries?
A) India and Bangladesh
B) India and China
C) India and Pakistan
D) India and Nepal
Show Answer
Answer: C) India and Pakistan
126. On which river is the Mullaperiyar Dam constructed?
A) Periyar River
B) Vaigai River
C) Cauvery River
D) Bhavani River
Show Answer
Answer: A) Periyar River
127. The Mullaperiyar Dam is located in which Indian state?
A) Tamil Nadu
B) Kerala
C) Karnataka
D) Andhra Pradesh
Show Answer
Answer: B) Kerala (Though located in Kerala, it is operated by Tamil Nadu.)
128. In which year was the Mullaperiyar Dam completed?
A) 1820
B) 1895
C) 1924
D) 1947
Show Answer
Answer: B) 1895
129. Which British engineer was associated with the construction of the Mullaperiyar Dam?
A) Sir Arthur Cotton
B) Sir M. Visvesvaraya
C) Colonel John Pennycuick
D) Sir George Everest
Show Answer
Answer: C) Colonel John Pennycuick
130. According to the original agreement signed in 1886, how long was the lease period for the dam?
A) 50 years
B) 75 years
C) 99 years
D) 150 years
Show Answer
Answer: C) 99 years
131. In which year was the Dam Safety Act passed by the Indian Parliament?
A) 2018
B) 2019
C) 2020
D) 2021
Show Answer
Answer: D) 2021
132. What is the primary objective of the Dam Safety Act, 2021?
A) Construction of new dams
B) Transfer of dam ownership
C) Surveillance, inspection, operation, and maintenance of dams
D) Increasing dam height
Show Answer
Answer: C) Surveillance, inspection, operation, and maintenance of dams
133. Under the Dam Safety Act, who is responsible for the safety of a specified dam?
A) State government
B) Central government
C) Dam owner/operator
D) Local panchayat
Show Answer
Answer: C) Dam owner/operator
134. Which ministry is responsible for overseeing the implementation of the Dam Safety Act, 2021?
A) Ministry of Power
B) Ministry of Environment
C) Ministry of Jal Shakti
D) Ministry of Home Affairs
Show Answer
Answer: C) Ministry of Jal Shakti
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