Find the current affairs quiz 29 September 2026 by Exam Charcha.
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Each question comes with multiple choices, and the correct answer is provided to help you learn. Whether you’re preparing for competitive exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz is a great way to assess your awareness of current affairs.
Current Affairs Quiz – 29 September 2026 (Test Now)
Q1. As per the Supreme Court’s rulings, including Kuldip Nayar v. Union of India (2006), the right to vote in India is currently treated as:
(A) A Fundamental Right under Article 19
(B) A statutory right, regulated by election legislation
(C) A Directive Principle of State Policy
(D) An unenumerated constitutional right under Article 21
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A statutory right, regulated by election legislation
Q2. Article 326 of the Constitution provides for elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies on the basis of:
(A) Proportional representation
(B) Adult suffrage
(C) Indirect election
(D) Nominated representation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Adult suffrage
Q3. Article 325 of the Constitution provides for one general electoral roll for every territorial constituency and prohibits exclusion from it on grounds of religion, race, caste and:
(A) Sex
(B) Income
(C) Education
(D) Place of birth
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Sex
Q4. In the PUCL v. Union of India line of cases, the Supreme Court connected a voter’s ability to express choice, including through NOTA, with which fundamental freedom?
(A) Freedom of movement under Article 19(1)(d)
(B) Freedom of expression under Article 19(1)(a)
(C) Right to equality under Article 14
(D) Right to constitutional remedies under Article 32
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Freedom of expression under Article 19(1)(a)
Q5. The National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2002) recommended addressing low voter participation primarily by:
(A) Making the right to vote a Fundamental Right
(B) Adding a duty to vote among the Fundamental Duties under Article 51A
(C) Abolishing the secret ballot
(D) Making voting compulsory with criminal penalties
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Adding a duty to vote among the Fundamental Duties under Article 51A
Q6. The Global Cooling Pledge, launched at COP28 in 2023, was launched by which country?
(A) Singapore
(B) United Arab Emirates
(C) Saudi Arabia
(D) Qatar
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) United Arab Emirates
Q7. Among the Global Cooling Pledge’s key targets is to increase the global average efficiency of newly sold air conditioners by what percentage by 2030, compared with 2022 levels?
(A) 20%
(B) 35%
(C) 50%
(D) 68%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 50%
Q8. With reference to India’s approach to sustainable cooling, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) India has joined the Global Cooling Pledge and follows its targets exclusively
(B) India has not joined the Global Cooling Pledge and instead follows its own India Cooling Action Plan (ICAP), 2019
(C) India has no domestic cooling-sector policy framework
(D) India withdrew from ICAP in favour of the Global Cooling Pledge in 2023
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) India has not joined the Global Cooling Pledge and instead follows its own India Cooling Action Plan (ICAP), 2019
Q9. The Bharat Maritime Insurance Pool (BMIP), India’s first domestic maritime insurance pool, was launched in May 2026 with which entity acting as the Pool Administrator?
(A) Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC)
(B) General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC Re)
(C) New India Assurance
(D) Export Credit Guarantee Corporation (ECGC)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC Re)
Q10. BMIP is supported by a Government of India sovereign guarantee of approximately how much?
(A) ₹5,000 crore
(B) ₹12,980 crore
(C) ₹25,000 crore
(D) ₹50,000 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) ₹12,980 crore
Q11. Under BMIP’s claims-management structure, claims up to US$100 million are met through accumulated pool reserves and reinsurance recoveries, while the sovereign guarantee is activated:
(A) Immediately for every claim, regardless of amount
(B) Only after the pool’s reserves have been completely exhausted, for claims exceeding this level
(C) Only for claims below US$10 million
(D) Automatically once a claim is filed, without exhausting reserves
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Only after the pool’s reserves have been completely exhausted, for claims exceeding this level
Q12. AFSPA, currently extended for another six months in parts of Manipur, Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh, traces its origins to which colonial-era legislation?
(A) The Government of India Act, 1935
(B) The Armed Forces (Special Powers) Ordinance, 1942
(C) The Indian Penal Code, 1860
(D) The Defence of India Act, 1915
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The Armed Forces (Special Powers) Ordinance, 1942
Q13. Under Section 3 of AFSPA, the power to declare an area ‘disturbed’ can be exercised by the Governor of a State, the Administrator of a Union Territory, or:
(A) The Chief Justice of the concerned High Court
(B) The Central Government
(C) The Director General of Police alone
(D) The local District Magistrate
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The Central Government
Q14. Under Section 6 of AFSPA, no prosecution, suit or other legal proceeding can be instituted against a person acting under the Act without:
(A) The consent of the affected individual
(B) Prior sanction of the Central Government
(C) A local Panchayat resolution
(D) Approval from the state High Court alone
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Prior sanction of the Central Government
Q15. In Naga People’s Movement for Human Rights v. Union of India (1997), the Supreme Court:
(A) Struck down AFSPA as unconstitutional
(B) Upheld AFSPA’s constitutional validity while laying down safeguards such as periodic review of disturbed-area declarations
(C) Held that AFSPA applies only during a formally declared National Emergency
(D) Transferred AFSPA-related matters entirely to military courts
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Upheld AFSPA’s constitutional validity while laying down safeguards such as periodic review of disturbed-area declarations
Q16. Subsea telecommunications cables currently carry approximately what proportion of global internet traffic?
(A) 50%
(B) 75%
(C) 90%
(D) More than 99%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) More than 99%
Q17. Cable Landing Stations (CLS), a key component of subsea cable infrastructure, primarily function to:
(A) Generate electricity for coastal power grids
(B) Connect submarine cables with terrestrial telecommunications networks
(C) Monitor ship movements for maritime security
(D) Desalinate seawater for local use
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Connect submarine cables with terrestrial telecommunications networks
Q18. As per recent estimates, the average marine repair time for damaged subsea cables in Indian waters is around how many days, compared with generally less than 40 days in several other regions?
(A) 20 days
(B) 50 days
(C) 102 days
(D) 200 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 102 days
Q19. The Lalit Kala Akademi, India’s apex institution for the promotion of visual and fine arts, was established in 1954 under the leadership of:
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(D) C. Rajagopalachari
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
Q20. The Lalit Kala Akademi’s highest honour, conferred for outstanding and sustained contribution to fine arts, is known as:
(A) Padma Ratna
(B) Ratna Sadasya (Fellowship)
(C) Kala Bhushan
(D) Akademi Puraskar
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Ratna Sadasya (Fellowship)
Q21. The National Exhibition of Art (NEA), initiated in 1955 by the Lalit Kala Akademi, primarily serves as a platform for:
(A) Auctioning historical artefacts
(B) Showcasing contemporary visual art and recognising outstanding artists through national awards
(C) Training film-industry professionals
(D) Preserving classical Sanskrit manuscripts
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Showcasing contemporary visual art and recognising outstanding artists through national awards
Q22. The Forum for India-Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC), established in 2014, currently brings together India and how many Pacific Island Countries?
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 14
(D) 18
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 14
Q23. The third FIPIC Summit, at which the 12-point Action Plan was announced, was held in 2023 at:
(A) Suva, Fiji
(B) Jaipur, India
(C) Port Moresby, Papua New Guinea
(D) Honiara, Solomon Islands
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Port Moresby, Papua New Guinea
Q24. With reference to FIPIC and the Pacific Islands Forum (PIF), which of the following statements is correct?
(A) FIPIC and PIF are the same organisation under different names
(B) FIPIC is an India-Pacific Islands cooperation platform, while PIF is the principal regional organisation of the Pacific, including Australia and New Zealand
(C) PIF is exclusively an India-led initiative
(D) FIPIC was established before PIF, in 1965
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) FIPIC is an India-Pacific Islands cooperation platform, while PIF is the principal regional organisation of the Pacific, including Australia and New Zealand
Q25. The QUAD-at-Sea Ship Observer Mission, in which ICG ship Shaunak sailed from Chennai to Perth, draws its formal foundation from which 2024 declaration?
(A) The Tokyo Declaration
(B) The Wilmington Declaration
(C) The Camp David Declaration
(D) The Sydney Declaration
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The Wilmington Declaration
Q26. SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region), India’s maritime vision, focuses particularly on India’s engagement in which region?
(A) The South China Sea
(B) The Indian Ocean Region
(C) The Arctic Ocean
(D) The Pacific Rim exclusively
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The Indian Ocean Region
Q27. The Coffee Board of India, a statutory body established under the Coffee Act, 1942, is headquartered in:
(A) Chikkamagaluru, Karnataka
(B) Bengaluru, Karnataka
(C) Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu
(D) Kochi, Kerala
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Bengaluru, Karnataka
Q28. As per recent trade data, India ranks as the world’s _ largest coffee producer and _ largest coffee exporter.
(A) 3rd; 2nd
(B) 5th; 3rd
(C) 7th; 5th
(D) 10th; 8th
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 7th; 5th
Q29. E-Methanol, for which India’s first port-based plant broke ground at Deendayal Port Authority, Kandla, is produced by combining green hydrogen with:
(A) Captured carbon dioxide (COâ‚‚)
(B) Natural gas
(C) Liquefied ammonia
(D) Sulphur dioxide
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Captured carbon dioxide (COâ‚‚)
Q30. The Karnataka Legislature’s resolution against the 7th draft notification on the Western Ghats primarily opposes recommendations originally made by which committee?
(A) Madhav Gadgil Committee
(B) K. Kasturirangan Committee
(C) T.S.R. Subramanian Committee
(D) B.K. Chaturvedi Committee
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) K. Kasturirangan Committee
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29 September 2026 Current Affairs