Practice the April 2026 Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the fourth week of April 2026.
The Current Affairs Quiz of 22 to 30 April features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.
4th Week of April 2026: Current Affairs Quiz
1. The Supreme Court invoked which Article to issue binding directions for road safety, addressing systemic failures?
A) Article 32
B) Article 136
C) Article 142
D) Article 226
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Article 142
2.Under SC’s road safety directions, ambulances and recovery cranes must be placed at intervals of no more than:
A) 50 km
B) 75 km
C) 100 km
D) 150 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 75 km
3. The SC directed blackspots to be identified and published within how many days?
A) 15 days
B) 30 days
C) 45 days
D) 60 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 45 days
4. India accounts for approximately what percentage of global road deaths?
A) 5%
B) 8%
C) 11%
D) 15%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 11%
5. What percentage of India’s road fatalities occur on highways, despite highways being only ~5% of the road network?
A) 30%+
B) 45%+
C) 60%+
D) 75%+
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 60%+
6. Under Article 345 of the Indian Constitution, state legislatures can adopt which of the following as official language(s)?
A) Only Hindi and English
B) Only languages in the Eighth Schedule
C) Any language in use in the state or Hindi
D) Only one language approved by the President
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Any language in use in the state or Hindi
7. The Khasi language belongs to which language family?
A) Dravidian
B) Indo-Aryan
C) Austroasiatic
D) Sino-Tibetan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Austroasiatic
8. The Garo language belongs to which language family?
A) Dravidian
B) Indo-Aryan
C) Austroasiatic
D) Sino-Tibetan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Sino-Tibetan
9. Under Article 347 of the Constitution, who may direct recognition of a language if demanded by a substantial population?
A) Chief Justice of India
B) Parliament
C) President
D) Rajya Sabha Chairman
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) President
10. India and South Korea set a bilateral trade target of $50 billion by 2030, up from approximately:
A) $15 billion
B) $20 billion
C) $27 billion
D) $35 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) $27 billion
11. The ‘Chips to Ships’ initiative between India and South Korea combines Korea’s expertise in semiconductors and shipbuilding with India’s:
A) Digital services sector
B) Manufacturing push
C) Financial sector
D) Space technology
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Manufacturing push
12. South Korea joined which international alliance during Lee Jae-myung’s visit to India?
A) International Solar Alliance only
B) Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative only
C) Both International Solar Alliance and Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative
D) Global Green Growth Institute
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Both International Solar Alliance and Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative
13. India joined which global body during South Korea’s President’s visit?
A) International Solar Alliance
B) Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative
C) Global Green Growth Institute
D) OECD
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Global Green Growth Institute
14. Odisha became the first Indian state to operationalise Marine Spatial Planning (MSP) via an MoU with which institution?
A) Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways
B) National Centre for Coastal Research under Ministry of Earth Sciences
C) ISRO’s coastal monitoring division
D) National Institute of Ocean Technology
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) National Centre for Coastal Research under Ministry of Earth Sciences
15. Marine Spatial Planning (MSP) is best described as:
A) A framework for deep-sea mineral extraction
B) Data-driven zoning framework for allocating ocean space among competing uses while ensuring ecological sustainability
C) An international treaty for maritime boundary disputes
D) A programme for coral reef restoration
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Data-driven zoning framework for allocating ocean space among competing uses while ensuring ecological sustainability
16. The UNESCO-IOC model of Marine Spatial Planning consists of how many phases?
A) 2 phases
B) 3 phases
C) 4 phases
D) 5 phases
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 4 phases
17.Adi Shankaracharya was born in which place and lived during which century?
A) Varanasi, 6th century CE
B) Kalady, 8th century CE
C) Ayodhya, 9th century CE
D) Kashi, 10th century CE
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Kalady, 8th century CE
18. The core concept of Adi Shankaracharya’s Advaita Vedanta philosophy is:
A) Dvaita — Atman and Brahman are different
B) Non-dualism — Atman and Brahman are identical
C) Vishishtadvaita — qualified non-dualism
D) Shuddhadvaita — pure non-dualism
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Non-dualism — Atman and Brahman are identical
19. Shankaracharya’s ‘Maya’ concept refers to:
A) The eternal absolute reality
B) The individual soul
C) The illusion of the material world
D) Liberation through knowledge
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) The illusion of the material world
20. Adi Shankaracharya established how many Mathas (Amnaya Peethas) across India?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 6
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 4
21. The ‘Panchayatana’ worship promoted by Shankaracharya involves worship of five deities. Which is NOT one of them?
A) Shiva
B) Vishnu
C) Brahma
D) Surya
Correct Answer:(C) Brahma
22. The ‘Vishwa Sutra’ initiative was launched by the Ministry of Textiles in collaboration with which institution?
A) IIT Delhi
B) National Institute of Fashion Technology (NIFT)
C) Central Silk Board
D) Weavers’ Service Centres
Show Answer
Correct Answer : (B) National Institute of Fashion Technology (NIFT)
23. The ’30×30 Concept’ under Vishwa Sutra combines how many Indian weaves with how many global inspirations?
A) 20 Indian weaves × 20 global inspirations
B) 25 Indian weaves × 25 global inspirations
C) 30 Indian weaves × 30 global inspirations
D) 40 Indian weaves × 40 global inspirations
Show Answer
Correct Answer : (C) 30 Indian weaves × 30 global inspirations
24.India’s ‘5F Framework’ in textiles policy stands for Farm, Fibre, Factory, Fashion, and:
A) Finance
B) Foreign
C) Fulfilment
D) Fabric
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Foreign
25. India’s first advanced 3D chip packaging unit (ATMP) using glass substrate technology was established in which city?
A) Pune
B) Bengaluru
C) Bhubaneswar (Odisha)
D) Hyderabad
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Bhubaneswar (Odisha)
26. Glass substrate technology used in 3D chip packaging offers which advantage over traditional silicon?
A) Lower cost of production
B) Better thermal management and lower electrical loss
C) Higher radiation resistance
D) Simpler manufacturing process
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Better thermal management and lower electrical loss
27. The First Battle of Panipat (1526) was fought between Babur and:
A) Rana Sanga of Mewar
B) Sher Shah Suri
C) Ibrahim Lodi
D) Hemu
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Ibrahim Lodi
28. Babur’s military advantage in the First Battle of Panipat came from which key innovation used for the first time in India?
A) War elephants
B) Iron-cased rockets
C) Field artillery (gunpowder cannons)
D) Steel body armour
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Field artillery (gunpowder cannons)
29. The ‘Tulughma’ strategy used by Babur at Panipat involved:
A) Frontal cavalry charge
B) Fast-moving cavalry encircling enemy from flanks and rear
C) Ottoman-style defensive barricades
D) Elephants in the vanguard
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Fast-moving cavalry encircling enemy from flanks and rear
30. National Civil Services Day is observed on 21 April to commemorate Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel’s address to civil servants in 1947 at which location?
A) Rashtrapati Bhavan, Delhi
B) Metcalfe House, Delhi
C) India Gate, Delhi
D) Red Fort, Delhi
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Metcalfe House, Delhi
31. Which Ministry proposed amendments to the IT (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021 to regulate AI-generated content?
A) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
B) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
C) Ministry of Science and Technology
D) Ministry of Home Affairs
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
32. Under the proposed IT Rules for AI-generated content, what must AI-generated or modified content carry at all times?
A) A government approval certificate
B) A disclaimer only on first display
C) Continuously visible labels during display
D) A QR code linking to the original source
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Continuously visible labels during display
33. What does “Mandatory Traceability” under the proposed IT Rules require?
A) Monthly audits of AI companies by MeitY
B) Permanent metadata and unique identifiers like watermarks and tags that cannot be removed or altered
C) Registration of all AI tools with the government
D) A centralised database of all AI-generated content
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Permanent metadata and unique identifiers like watermarks and tags that cannot be removed or altered
34. Which of the following is a key challenge identified in implementing the new IT Rules for AI content?
A) Lack of internet infrastructure in rural India
B) Metadata tampering — watermarks can be cropped, edited or removed
C) Absence of AI companies in India
D) Insufficient satellite connectivity
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Metadata tampering — watermarks can be cropped, edited or removed
35. India and Germany are finalising a $12 billion deal under Project 75I for what purpose?
A) Construction of 3 nuclear-powered aircraft carriers
B) Domestic manufacturing of 6 stealth submarines
C) Joint development of 5th generation fighter jets
D) Procurement of 12 advanced frigates
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Domestic manufacturing of 6 stealth submarines
36. Which Indian and German defence R&D organisations are collaborating under the India-Germany Defence Industrial Partnership?
A) ISRO and DLR
B) DRDO and BAAINBw
C) HAL and Rheinmetall
D) BEL and Thales
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) DRDO and BAAINBw
37. What did the German Bundestag approve in 2025 related to India?
A) Visa-free travel for Indian citizens
B) A free trade agreement with India
C) Simplified export clearance covering avionics, sensors and electronic warfare systems
D) Joint patrolling of the Indian Ocean
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Simplified export clearance covering avionics, sensors and electronic warfare systems
38. What is the trade volume between India and Germany as of 2024?
A) $20+ billion
B) $35+ billion
C) $50+ billion
D) $70+ billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) $50+ billion
39. According to Global Electricity Review 2026 by Ember, by how much did India’s fossil fuel electricity reduce in 2025?
A) ~25 TWh
B) ~38 TWh
C) ~52 TWh
D) ~65 TWh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) ~52 TWh
40. How much solar capacity did India add in 2025, and what was notable about it?
A) ~25 GW, highest ever in Asia
B) ~38 GW, a record higher than US additions
C) ~45 GW, surpassing China’s additions
D) ~30 GW, highest in South Asia
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) ~38 GW, a record higher than US additions
41. What is the full form of NARIT-AI launched by Gujarat Police?
A) National Automated Response and Intelligence Tool – Artificial Intelligence
B) Narcotics Analysis and RAG-based Investigation Tool
C) Narcotic Activity Recognition and Interception Tool
D) National Anti-drug Research and Intelligence Tool
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Narcotics Analysis and RAG-based Investigation Tool
42. What technology does NARIT-AI use to provide accurate, case-specific legal guidance?
A) Natural Language Processing with open internet access
B) Deep Learning with real-time social media monitoring
C) Retrieval-Augmented Generation (RAG) searching only curated legal databases
D) Machine Learning trained on FIR data
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Retrieval-Augmented Generation (RAG) searching only curated legal databases
43. What was the primary reason for developing NARIT-AI?
A) To replace human investigators in drug cases
B) Low conviction rates (~one-third since 2020) due to procedural lapses under the NDPS Act
C) To track drug smuggling routes via satellite
D) To automate bail hearings in narcotics cases
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Low conviction rates (~one-third since 2020) due to procedural lapses under the NDPS Act
44. Shekha Jheel Bird Sanctuary has been designated as India’s how many Ramsar site?
A) 95th
B) 97th
C) 99th
D) 100th
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 99th
45. In which district of Uttar Pradesh is Shekha Jheel Bird Sanctuary located?
A) Lucknow
B) Agra
C) Varanasi
D) Aligarh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Aligarh
46. Which state has the highest number of Ramsar sites in India, and how many does it have?
A) Uttar Pradesh — 15
B) Kerala — 18
C) Tamil Nadu — 20
D) West Bengal — 22
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Tamil Nadu — 20
47. What is the theme of World Earth Day 2026?
A) Restore Our Earth
B) Invest in Our Planet
C) Our Power, Our Planet
D) End Plastic Pollution
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Our Power, Our Planet
48. Who initiated World Earth Day, and when was it first observed?
A) Rachel Carson, 1962
B) Gaylord Nelson, 1970
C) Maurice Strong, 1972
D) Al Gore, 1990
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Gaylord Nelson, 1970
49. What is the NATO designation, type, range and speed of the R-37M missile cleared by Russia for export to India?
A) AA-12 Adder, Medium-range AAM, ~200 km, Mach 4
B) AA-13 Axehead, Ultra-long-range AAM, ~300–400 km, ~Mach 6
C) AA-11 Archer, Short-range AAM, ~100 km, Mach 3
D) AA-10 Alamo, Long-range AAM, ~150 km, Mach 5
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) AA-13 Axehead, Ultra-long-range AAM, ~300–400 km, ~Mach 6
50. India’s first 3D Glass Semiconductor chip packaging facility was established in which state?
A) Karnataka
B) Gujarat
C) Maharashtra
D) Odisha
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Odisha
51. Which isotope of uranium is the only naturally occurring fissile isotope?
A) U-234
B) U-238
C) U-235
D) U-236
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) U-235
52. What percentage of natural uranium is composed of U-238?
A) ~0.7%
B) ~0.005%
C) >99.2%
D) ~20%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) >99.2%
53. Which three countries together account for approximately 75% of global uranium supply?
A) Australia, Canada, Russia
B) Kazakhstan, Canada, Namibia
C) Kazakhstan, Australia, Niger
D) USA, Russia, Kazakhstan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Kazakhstan, Canada, Namibia
54. Which country holds the largest uranium reserves globally (~28%)?
A) Kazakhstan
B) Canada
C) Russia
D) Australia
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Australia
55. What is India’s rank in global uranium reserves?
A) 5th
B) 9th
C) 13th
D) 20th
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 13th
56. Which Indian state contributes approximately 50% of India’s uranium production?
A) Jharkhand
B) Meghalaya
C) Andhra Pradesh
D) Rajasthan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Andhra Pradesh
57. In the uranium enrichment process, what is the gas form of uranium used for centrifuge enrichment?
A) Uranium tetrafluoride (UF4)
B) Uranium hexafluoride (UF6)
C) Uranium dioxide (UO2)
D) Yellowcake (U3O8)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Uranium hexafluoride (UF6)
58. What is the U-235 concentration required for weapons-grade uranium?
A) 5-20%
B) 20-50%
C) ~90%
D) >99%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) ~90%
59. The process of converting UF6 back to Uranium dioxide (UO2) is called:
A) Sintering
B) Hydrofluorination
C) Cascading
D) Deconversion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Deconversion
60. Which enrichment level is used for nuclear power plants?
A) 0.7%
B) 3%-5%
C) 20%-50%
D) ~90%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 3%-5%
61. Under which ministry was the PROG Rules, 2026 notified?
A) Ministry of Finance
B) Ministry of Home Affairs
C) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
D) Ministry of Law and Justice
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
62. From which date are the PROG Rules, 2026 effective?
A) 1 January 2026
B) 1 April 2026
C) 1 May 2026
D) 15 August 2026
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 1 May 2026
63. What is the name of the regulatory body established under PROG Rules, 2026?
A) Digital Gaming Board of India
B) Online Gaming Authority of India (OGAI)
C) National E-sports Commission
D) Gaming Regulation Council of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Online Gaming Authority of India (OGAI)
64. What is the validity of the Digital Certificate of Registration under PROG Rules, 2026?
A) 1 year
B) 5 years
C) Up to 10 years
D) Permanent
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Up to 10 years
65. The ‘Determination Test’ under PROG Rules, 2026 is a:
A) 30-day evaluation mechanism
B) 60-day evaluation mechanism
C) 90-day evaluation mechanism
D) 180-day evaluation mechanism
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 90-day evaluation mechanism
66. What is the maximum civil fine for violations under PROG Rules, 2026?
A) Rs. 10 lakh
B) Rs. 50 lakh
C) Rs. 1 crore
D) Rs. 5 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Rs. 1 crore
67. Under PROG Rules, 2026, the final appeal against OGAI decisions lies with:
A) High Court
B) Ministry of Finance
C) Secretary, MeitY
D) Supreme Court
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Secretary, MeitY
68. According to IMF rankings, India is currently the _ largest economy by nominal GDP.
A) 4th
B) 5th
C) 6th
D) 7th
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 6th
69. What share of national income is held by India’s top 1%?
A) 10.5%
B) 15.2%
C) 22.6%
D) 30.1%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 22.6%
70. India’s approximate rank on the Human Development Index (HDI) is:
A) ~50
B) ~80
C) ~130
D) ~160
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) ~130
71. What percentage of India’s workforce is engaged in the informal sector according to ILO data?
A) ~50%
B) ~70%
C) ~80%
D) ~90%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) ~90%
72. Agriculture accounts for approximately what percentage of India’s GDP while employing ~45% of the workforce?
A) 10%
B) 15%
C) 25%
D) 35%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 15%
73. India’s total foodgrain stocks recently surged to approximately:
A) 200 LMT
B) 400 LMT
C) 500 LMT
D) 602 LMT
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) 602 LMT
74. Buffer stock norms in India are fixed by which body?
A) NITI Aayog
B) Ministry of Agriculture
C) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA)
D) Food Corporation of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA)
75. India’s buffer stock system was introduced during which Five-Year Plan?
A) Second (1956-61)
B) Third (1961-66)
C) Fourth (1969-74)
D) Fifth (1974-79)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Fourth (1969-74)
76. India ranks 1st globally in the production of which of the following?
A) Rice and Wheat
B) Pulses, Millets, Spices, and Coconut
C) Tea and Sugarcane
D) Cotton and Vegetables
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Pulses, Millets, Spices, and Coconut
77. The Supreme Court committee to design disabled-friendly prisons is chaired by:
A) Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
B) Justice S. Ravindra Bhat
C) Justice B.R. Gavai
D) Justice Sanjiv Khanna
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Justice S. Ravindra Bhat
78. Which Article of the Indian Constitution guarantees ‘Right to life with dignity’ , applicable even to disabled prisoners?
A) Article 14
B) Article 19
C) Article 21
D) Article 32
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Article 21
79. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act was enacted in which year?
A) 2010
B) 2013
C) 2016
D) 2019
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2016
80. What is the approximate length of the Druzhba (‘Friendship’) oil pipeline?
A) ~1,500 km
B) ~3,000 km
C) ~5,500 km
D) ~8,000 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) ~5,500 km
81. The PM Internship Scheme (PMIS) is a flagship initiative of which ministry?
A) Ministry of Skill Development
B) Ministry of Labour & Employment
C) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
D) Ministry of Education
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
82. The PMIS was announced in which Union Budget?
A) 2022–23
B) 2023–24
C) 2024–25
D) 2025–26
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2024–25
83. What is the revised age criterion for eligibility under PMIS?
A) 18–21 years
B) 21–24 years
C) 18–25 years
D) 20–26 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 18–25 years
84. What is the monthly stipend provided to interns under PMIS?
A) Rs. 5,000
B) Rs. 7,500
C) Rs. 9,000
D) Rs. 12,000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Rs. 9,000
85. Which of the following students are NOT eligible under PMIS?
A) Final-year undergraduate students
B) Final-year postgraduate students
C) Graduates from IITs and IIMs
D) Students from non-elite institutions
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Graduates from IITs and IIMs
86. What is the one-time incidental grant provided under PMIS?
A) Rs. 2,000
B) Rs. 4,000
C) Rs. 6,000
D) Rs. 10,000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Rs. 6,000
87. Which body upgraded Athletics Federation of India to Category A (Highest Doping Risk)?
A) WADA
B) NADA
C) Athletics Integrity Unit (AIU)
D) International Olympic Committee
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Athletics Integrity Unit (AIU)
88. When was the Athletics Integrity Unit (AIU) established?
A) 2010
B) 2015
C) 2017
D) 2019
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2017
89. Where is the headquarters of the Athletics Integrity Unit (AIU)?
A) Geneva
B) Monaco
C) Lausanne
D) Paris
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Monaco
90. What does ‘Category A’ classification by AIU imply for India?
A) India is cleared of all doping violations
B) India faces enhanced monitoring and mandatory testing
C) India is suspended from international athletics
D) India is given special exemptions
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) India faces enhanced monitoring and mandatory testing
91. Where was the 11th India–Egypt Joint Defence Committee meeting held?
A) New Delhi
B) Alexandria
C) Cairo
D) Mumbai
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Cairo
12. In which year was the India–Egypt Joint Defence Committee established?
A) 2000
B) 2003
C) 2006
D) 2010
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2006
93. Which of the following is a joint military exercise between India and Egypt (Army)?
A) Desert Warrior
B) Exercise Cyclone
C) Tasman Saber
D) Shakti
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Exercise Cyclone
94. India–Egypt bilateral relations were elevated to what level in 2023?
A) Diplomatic Partnership
B) Comprehensive Partnership
C) Strategic Partnership
D) Defence Alliance
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Strategic Partnership
95. SEBI reduced the minimum investment in Social Impact Funds to:
A) 30-day evaluation mechanism
B) 60-day evaluation mechanism
C) 90-day evaluation mechanism
D) 180-day evaluation mechanism
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 90-day evaluation mechanism
96. What is the maximum civil fine for violations under PROG Rules, 2026?
A) Category III AIFs
B) Category II AIFs
C) Category I AIFs
D) Mutual Funds
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Category I AIFs
97. What is the minimum corpus requirement for Social Impact Funds?
A) Rs. 1 crore
B) Rs. 5 crore
C) Rs. 10 crore
D) Rs. 20 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Rs. 5 crore
98. Zero-Coupon Zero-Principal (ZCZP) instruments are issued by:
A) Government of India
B) Registered NPOs
C) SEBI
D) RBI
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Registered NPOs
99. Aviation Turbine Fuel (ATF) is derived from which source?
A) Coal gasification
B) Natural gas
C) Crude oil (aviation-grade kerosene)
D) Biomass
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Crude oil (aviation-grade kerosene)
100. Under India’s ethanol blending policy for ATF, how is ethanol blended?
A) Directly mixed with ATF
B) Converted to synthetic hydrocarbons first, then blended
C) Mixed at refinery stage only
D) Used as a substitute fuel
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Converted to synthetic hydrocarbons first, then blended
101. India imports approximately what percentage of its crude oil requirements?
A) ~50%
B) ~65%
C) ~75%
D) ~88%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) ~88%
102. What is ‘Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF)’ derived from?
A) Natural gas and coal
B) Biomass and waste feedstock
C) Nuclear energy
D) Solar energy
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Biomass and waste feedstock
103. AZEC (Asia Zero Emission Community) was proposed by which country?
A) USA
B) Australia
C) Japan
D) South Korea
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Japan
104. In which year was the AZEC officially launched?
A) 2020
B) 2021
C) 2022
D) 2023
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) 2023
105. Japan pledged approximately how much under the POWERR Asia Initiative at AZEC Plus?
A) $2 billion
B) $5 billion
C) $10 billion
D) $15 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) $10 billion
106. ‘Prajna’ AI satellite imaging system was developed by which organisation?
A) ISRO
B) DRDO through CAIR
C) IIT Delhi
D) Ministry of Home Affairs
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) DRDO through CAIR
107. Which ministry inducted the Prajna system for enhanced surveillance?
A) Ministry of Defence
B) Ministry of External Affairs
C) Ministry of Home Affairs
D) Ministry of Science & Technology
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Ministry of Home Affairs
108. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment that established the Panchayati Raj system was implemented in which year?
A) 1989
B) 1991
C) 1993
D) 1996
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 1993
109. What is the total length of the Purvanchal Expressway?
A) 241 km
B) 302 km
C) 341 km
D) 410 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 341 km
110. The emergency airstrip on Purvanchal Expressway is located near which district and is how long?
A) Lucknow, 2.5 km
B) Sultanpur, 3.2 km
C) Ghazipur, 4.0 km
D) Varanasi, 2.8 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Sultanpur, 3.2 km
111. How many unstable hanging glaciers were identified in the Alaknanda Basin in the recent study?
A) 119
B) 159
C) 219
D) 289
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 219
112. Which disaster is cited as a key example of the destructive impact of hanging glacier collapse?
A) 2013 Kedarnath floods
B) 2021 Chamoli disaster
C) 2018 Kerala floods
D) 2019 Dokriani glacier breach
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 2021 Chamoli disaster
113. At what rate are the Himalayan glaciers thinning annually?
A) 0.1–0.3 m/year
B) 0.3–1 m/year
C) 1–2 m/year
D) 2–3 m/year
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 0.3–1 m/year
114. Himalayas are warming at approximately how many times the global average?
A) 1×
B) 2×
C) 3×
D) 5×
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 3×
115. Which of the following is NOT listed as a driver of glacier instability?
A) Permafrost degradation
B) Seismic activity
C) Volcanic eruptions
D) Freeze-thaw cycles
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Volcanic eruptions
116. In which year did the Supreme Court commute the death penalty to life imprisonment in the Priyadarshini Mattoo case?
A) 2006
B) 2008
C) 2010
D) 2012
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2010
117. Which Articles of the Indian Constitution deal with the President’s and Governor’s power of remission respectively?
A) Article 70 & 160
B) Article 72 & 161
C) Article 74 & 163
D) Article 76 & 165
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Article 72 & 161
118. What is the minimum actual imprisonment required before a life convict is eligible for premature release (for serious offences)?
A) 7 years
B) 10 years
C) 14 years
D) 20 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 14 years
119. Which body is responsible for reviewing and recommending remission of sentences at the state level?
A) High Court
B) State Cabinet
C) Sentencing Review Board (SRB)
D) National Human Rights Commission
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Sentencing Review Board (SRB)
110.What was the key observation of the Delhi High Court regarding the SRB’s rejection of premature release?
A) Crime severity alone justifies denial
B) Public image of the convict should not bias SRB decisions
C) Life imprisonment should never be commuted
D) SRB has the final authority on release
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Public image of the convict should not bias SRB decisions
111. According to NITI Aayog Trade Watch (Q3 FY26), how much did India’s exports to FTA partners fall year-on-year?
A) 3%
B) 5%
C) 7%
D) 10%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 7%
112. What was the value of India’s exports to FTA partners in Q3 FY26?
A) $30.12 billion
B) $40.26 billion
C) $50.44 billion
D) $60.98 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) $40.26 billion
113. Which sector showed the highest growth in exports among FTA partners at +47% YoY?
A) Petroleum
B) Jewellery
C) Textiles
D) Electronics
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Electronics
114. How many Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) does India currently have?
A) 8
B) 10
C) 12
D) 14
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) 14
115. India’s share in FTA trade grew from 4.6% (2006) to what percentage in 2024?
A) 18.4%
B) 22.6%
C) 28.8%
D) 33.2%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 28.8%
116. What is the new trade target set between India and South Korea by 2030?
A) $30 billion
B) $40 billion
C) $50 billion
D) $75 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) $50 billion
117. What is the name of the India–South Korea initiative combining semiconductors and shipbuilding?
A) Tech to Trade
B) Chips to Ships
C) Semicon-Marine Connect
D) Korea-India Digital Bridge
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Chips to Ships
118. India–South Korea partnership was upgraded to ‘Special Strategic Partnership’ in which year?
A) 2010
B) 2012
C) 2015
D) 2018
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2015
119. South Korea joined which of the following Indian-led multilateral platforms during the 2026 visit?
A) BIMSTEC and SCO
B) International Solar Alliance and Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative
C) SAARC and BRICS
D) Quad and IBSA
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) International Solar Alliance and Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative
120. The Korea-India Defence Accelerator launched in 2026 is known by what acronym?
A) KIDA
B) KIND-X
C) KORINDIA
D) KADF
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) KIND-X
121. The SAARC Currency Swap Framework was launched by RBI in which year?
A) 2008
B) 2010
C) 2012
D) 2015
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2012
122. Under the revised 2024–2027 framework, what is the size of the INR swap window?
A) ₹100 billion
B) ₹150 billion
C) ₹200 billion
D) ₹250 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) ₹250 billion
23. SAARC was established in which year and where?
A) 1980, Colombo
B) 1983, Islamabad
C) 1985, Dhaka
D) 1987, Kathmandu
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 1985, Dhaka
124. Which Article of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to form trade unions?
A) Article 16(1)(b)
B) Article 19(1)(c)
C) Article 21
D) Article 23
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Article 19(1)(c)
125. Approximately what percentage of India’s workforce is currently unionised?
A) ~2.1%
B) ~4.5%
C) ~6.3%
D) ~10%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) ~6.3%
126. The Industrial Relations Code, 2020 requires a minimum of what percentage of workers for union formation?
A) 5%
B) 7%
C) 10%
D) 15%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 10%
127. Which Delhi landfill has been identified as a ‘super-emitter’ of methane at ~400 tonnes/hour?
A) Bhalswa landfill
B) Okhla landfill
C) Ghazipur landfill
D) Narela landfill
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Ghazipur landfill
128. Methane (CH4) is how many times more potent than CO2 over a 20-year period?
A) ~25×
B) ~56×
C) ~86×
D) ~120×
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) ~86×
129. India’s first large-scale private gold mining project will be launched in which district?
A) Dharwad
B) Kolar
C) Kurnool
D) Nellore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Kurnool
130. International Seed Day is observed on which date and commemorates resistance to which order?
A) April 22; Order 77 (2002)
B) April 25; Order 79 (2003)
C) April 26; Order 81 (2004)
D) April 28; Order 83 (2005)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) April 26; Order 81 (2004)
131. Under the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2021, abortion is permitted up to how many weeks for specific categories including minors?
A) 12 weeks
B) 20 weeks
C) 24 weeks
D) 28 weeks
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 24 weeks
132. Which landmark case (2009) recognised reproductive choice as a facet of personal liberty in India?
A) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
B) Suchita Srivastava v. Chandigarh Administration
C) Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India
D) Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Suchita Srivastava v. Chandigarh Administration
133. The Supreme Court affirmed reproductive autonomy of a minor under which Article of the Indian Constitution?
A) Article 14
B) Article 19
C) Article 21
D) Article 32
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Article 21
134. Which SDG specifically ensures reproductive rights and gender equality?
A) SDG 3.7
B) SDG 5.6
C) SDG 10.2
D) SDG 16.1
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) SDG 5.6
135. The Anti-Defection Law was introduced through which Constitutional Amendment?
A) Permafrost degradation
B) Seismic activity
C) Volcanic eruptions
D) Freeze-thaw cycles
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 52nd Amendment, 1985
136. Under the Anti-Defection Law, a merger is valid only if at least what fraction of the legislature party supports it?
A) Simple majority (50%+1)
B) Two-thirds (2/3)
C) Three-fourths (3/4)
D) All members unanimously
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Two-thirds (2/3)
137. Which Supreme Court case (1992) held that the Presiding Officer functions as a quasi-judicial authority under the Tenth Schedule?
A) Nabam Rebia v. Deputy Speaker (2016)
B) Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu (1992)
C) S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994)
D) Subhash Desai v. Principal Secretary (2023)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu (1992)
138. The phrase ‘Aaya Ram Gaya Ram’ in Indian politics refers to which phenomenon?
A) Election boycotts
B) Floor crossing / frequent party switching
C) Proxy voting
D) Nomination of independent candidates
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Floor crossing / frequent party switching
139. A nominated member of the legislature is disqualified under the Anti-Defection Law if they join a political party after how many months of assuming office?
A) 3 months
B) 6 months
C) 9 months
D) 12 months
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 6 months
140. Nasha Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan (NMBA) was launched on which date?
A) 26 January 2020
B) 15 August 2020
C) 2 October 2020
D) 1 November 2020
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 15 August 2020
141. Which ministry is the nodal authority for NMBA?
A) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
B) Ministry of Home Affairs
C) Department of Social Justice and Empowerment
D) Ministry of Education
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Department of Social Justice and Empowerment
142. How many individuals have been sensitised under NMBA nationwide?
A) Over 10 crore
B) Over 18 crore
C) Over 26 crore
D) Over 35 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Over 26 crore
143. NMBA operates under which national policy framework?
A) National Health Mission (NHM)
B) National Action Plan for Drug Demand Reduction (NAPDDR)
C) Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana
D) National Mental Health Programme
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) National Action Plan for Drug Demand Reduction (NAPDDR)
144. Payments Banks in India were conceptualised based on the recommendations of which committee?
A) Raghuram Rajan Committee
B) Nachiket Mor Committee
C) Deepak Mohanty Committee
D) Bimal Jalan Committee
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Nachiket Mor Committee
145. What is the maximum deposit limit per individual in a Payments Bank?
A) ₹50,000
B) ₹1 lakh
C) ₹2 lakh
D) ₹5 lakh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) ₹2 lakh
146. Payments Banks are required to invest at least what percentage of deposits in SLR-eligible government securities?
A) 40%
B) 55%
C) 65%
D) 75%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) 75%
147. What is the minimum Capital to Risk-Weighted Assets Ratio (CRAR) required for Payments Banks?
A) 9%
B) 12%
C) 15%
D) 18%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 15%
148. What was India’s bio-economy market size in 2025?
A) $95.3 billion
B) $145.6 billion
C) $195.3 billion
D) $245.8 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) $195.3 billion
149. Which sector dominates India’s bio-economy at ~47%?
A) Biopharmaceuticals
B) Bio-industrial sector (biofuels, bioplastics)
C) Sustainable agriculture
D) Bio-energy
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Bio-industrial sector (biofuels, bioplastics)
150. India achieved 20% ethanol blending in which year?
A) 2023
B) 2024
C) 2025
D) 2026
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2025
151. The BioE3 Policy (2024) integrates which three domains?
A) Biotechnology, Economics, Environment
B) Biotechnology, Engineering, and AI
C) Biology, Energy, Ecology
D) Biosafety, Ethics, Enterprise
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Biotechnology, Engineering, and AI
152. The Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) manages a fund of how much for R&D collaboration?
A) ₹10,000 crore
B) ₹25,000 crore
C) ₹50,000 crore
D) ₹75,000 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) ₹50,000 crore
153. The Artemis Accords were established in which year?
A) 2015
B) 2018
C) 2020
D) 2022
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2020
154. India joined the Artemis Accords in which year?
A) 2021
B) 2022
C) 2023
D) 2024
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2023
155. The Artemis Accords are grounded in the principles of which international treaty?
A) Moon Agreement (1979)
B) Outer Space Treaty
C) Rescue Agreement (1968)
D) Liability Convention (1972)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Outer Space Treaty
156. Which of the following is NOT among the founding members of the Artemis Accords?
A) Canada
B) Japan
C) India
D) United Arab Emirates
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) India
157. NITI Aayog replaced which body and in which year?
A) Finance Commission, 2014
B) Planning Commission, 2015
C) National Development Council, 2016
D) Economic Advisory Council, 2015
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Planning Commission, 2015
158. Ashok Lahiri has previously served in which key economic role in the Government of India?
A) RBI Governor
B) Finance Secretary
C) Chief Economic Adviser (CEA)
D) SEBI Chairman
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Chief Economic Adviser (CEA)
159. Who does Ashok Lahiri succeed as Vice Chairperson of NITI Aayog?
A) Rajiv Kumar
B) Arvind Panagariya
C) Suman K. Bery
D) V.K. Saraswat
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Suman K. Bery
160. NITI Aayog is chaired by which constitutional authority?
A) President of India
B) Vice President of India
C) Prime Minister of India
D) Finance Minister of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Prime Minister of India
161. India’s Administered Pricing Mechanism (APM) for fuel was in operation during which period?
A) 1960–1990
B) 1975–2002
C) 1985–2010
D) 1991–2006
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 1975–2002
162. Petrol and diesel were deregulated in India in which respective years?
A) 2006 and 2010
B) 2008 and 2012
C) 2010 and 2014
D) 2012 and 2016
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2010 and 2014
163. A $10 rise in crude oil prices increases India’s Current Account Deficit (CAD) by approximately:
A) ~0.2% of GDP
B) ~0.5% of GDP
C) ~1.0% of GDP
D) ~1.5% of GDP
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) ~0.5% of GDP
164. Central and state taxes constitute approximately what percentage of retail fuel prices in India?
A) 20–30%
B) 35–45%
C) 50–60%
D) 65–75%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 50–60%
165. What is the bilateral trade target set between India and New Zealand under the FTA within five years?
A) $3 billion
B) $5 billion
C) $8 billion
D) $10 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) $5 billion
166. Under the India–New Zealand FTA, India will offer duty-free or concessional access on what percentage of tariff lines?
A) Over 50%
B) Over 60%
C) Over 70%
D) Over 85%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Over 70%
167. Which of the following agricultural items was EXCLUDED from the India–New Zealand FTA?
A) Kiwifruit
B) Apples
C) Dairy products
D) Honey
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Dairy products
168. New Zealand has pledged how much FDI in India over the next 15 years under the FTA?
A) $5 billion
B) $10 billion
C) $15 billion
D) $20 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) $20 billion
169. Under the mobility provisions of the India–New Zealand FTA, how many Indian professionals can work in New Zealand for up to 3 years?
A) 2,000
B) 3,500
C) 5,000
D) 7,500
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 5,000
170. Pakistan’s first lunar CubeSat, ICUBE-Q, was carried aboard which Chinese mission?
A) Chang’e-4
B) Chang’e-5
C) Chang’e-6
D) Chang’e-7
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Chang’e-6
171. Pakistan adopted which Chinese satellite navigation system as an alternative to GPS?
A) GLONASS
B) Galileo
C) NavIC
D) BeiDou Navigation Satellite System (BDS)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) BeiDou Navigation Satellite System (BDS)
172. India’s Space-Based Surveillance (SBS) Programme Phase III plans to deploy how many military satellites by 2029?
A) 28
B) 36
C) 44
D) 52
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) 52
173. Which Indian space doctrine integrates space-based intelligence with rapid response capabilities?
A) Mission Gaganyaan
B) Mission Sudarshan Chakra
C) Mission Shakti
D) Mission Prarambh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Mission Sudarshan Chakra
174. What is the GEF grant amount for the biodiversity project covering 2025–2030?
A) $2.44 million
B) $4.88 million
C) $7.5 million
D) $10 million
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) $4.88 million
175. The Sathyamangalam landscape (Tamil Nadu) acts as a genetic corridor between which two mountain systems?
A) Vindhyas and Satpuras
B) Aravallis and Sahyadris
C) Eastern and Western Ghats
D) Nilgiris and Cardamom Hills
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Eastern and Western Ghats
176. Which endangered primate species is found in the Garo Hills landscape of Meghalaya?
A) Lion-tailed Macaque
B) Hoolock Gibbon (Western)
C) Golden Langur
D) Assamese Macaque
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Hoolock Gibbon (Western)
177. The Garo Hills landscape is part of which global biodiversity hotspot?
A) Western Ghats and Sri Lanka
B) Eastern Himalayas
C) Indo-Burma Biodiversity Hotspot
D) Sundaland
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Indo-Burma Biodiversity Hotspot
178. How many space startups does India have as of 2026?
A) 100+
B) 200+
C) 300+
D) 400+
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) 400+
179. India’s first private rocket ‘Vikram-S’ was launched under which mission?
A) Mission Prarambh
B) Mission Shakti
C) Mission Gaganyaan
D) Mission Chandrayaan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Mission Prarambh
180. Which body authorises and regulates private space activities in India?
A) ISRO
B) NewSpace India Limited (NSIL)
C) Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe)
D) Department of Space
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe)
181. India aims to build a space economy of how much by 2033?
A) $20 billion
B) $30 billion
C) $44 billion
D) $60 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) $44 billion
182. The proposed base year for India’s Index of Service Production (ISP) is:
A) 2011–12
B) 2017–18
C) 2022–23
D) 2024–25
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) 2024–25
183. The ISP will use which classification system to ensure international comparability?
A) NIC 2004
B) NIC 2008
C) ISIC Rev 4
D) SITC Rev 3
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) NIC 2008
184. Which key sector is currently EXCLUDED from the proposed ISP, contributing to a gap of nearly one-third of service sector GVA?
A) IT and Financial Services
B) Transport and Logistics
C) Health and Education
D) Trade and Commerce
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Health and Education
185. Vikram-1 is developed by which Indian private space company?
A) Agnikul Cosmos
B) Bellatrix Aerospace
C) Skyroot Aerospace
D) Pixxel India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Skyroot Aerospace
186. What is the payload capacity of Vikram-1 to Low Earth Orbit (LEO)?
A) Up to 120 kg
B) Up to 250 kg
C) Up to 480 kg
D) Up to 750 kg
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Up to 480 kg
187. Vikram-1 uses a four-stage configuration. Which of the following correctly describes the upper stage?
A) Solid-fuel Kalam engine
B) Cryogenic engine
C) Liquid hypergolic Raman upper stage
D) Electric propulsion system
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Liquid hypergolic Raman upper stage
188. The Vela Supercluster (VSCL) is situated approximately how far from Earth?
A) 80 million light-years
B) 300 million light-years
C) 800 million light-years
D) 1.2 billion light-years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 800 million light-years
189. Observations of the Vela Supercluster were made using which telescope?
A) James Webb Space Telescope
B) MeerKAT Radio Telescope (South Africa)
C) Hubble Space Telescope
D) Atacama Large Millimeter Array (ALMA)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) MeerKAT Radio Telescope (South Africa)
190. The B’nei Menashe community, residing mainly in Manipur and Mizoram, traces its ancestry to which of the Ten Lost Tribes of Israel?
A) Tribe of Ephraim
B) Tribe of Judah
C) Tribe of Manasseh
D) Tribe of Benjamin
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Tribe of Manasseh
191. Section 12(1)(c) of the RTE Act, 2009 mandates what percentage of seats for EWS/disadvantaged children in private unaided schools?
A) 10%
B) 15%
C) 25%
D) 33%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 25%
192. The Right to Education Act (Section 12(1)(c)) is anchored in which Article of the Indian Constitution?
A) Article 14
B) Article 19
C) Article 21
D) Article 21A
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Article 21A
193. Which state is cited as a better performer in implementing Section 12(1)(c) due to efficient reimbursement systems?
A) Gujarat
B) Rajasthan
C) Madhya Pradesh
D) Tamil Nadu
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Madhya Pradesh
194. State governments typically delay reimbursements to schools under the RTE Act by how many years?
A) 6 months
B) 1 year
C) 2–3 years
D) 5 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2–3 years
195. OPEC was founded in which year and city?
A) 1945, Riyadh
B) 1955, Tehran
C) 1960, Baghdad
D) 1965, Kuwait City
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 1960, Baghdad
196. OPEC+ was formed in which year to coordinate output beyond OPEC?
A) 2010
B) 2014
C) 2016
D) 2018
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2016
197. OPEC controls approximately what percentage of proven global oil reserves?
A) ~50%
B) ~65%
C) ~80%
D) ~90%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) ~80%
198. Which countries had previously exited OPEC before the UAE’s withdrawal?
A) Russia and Mexico
B) Qatar (2019) and Angola (2024)
C) Ecuador and Libya
D) Gabon and Indonesia
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Qatar (2019) and Angola (2024)
199. Indonesia’s B50 biodiesel programme blends what proportion of palm oil-based fuel with conventional diesel?
A) 20%
B) 30%
C) 40%
D) 50%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) 50%
200. Indonesia produces more than what percentage of global palm oil supply?
A) 25%
B) 35%
C) 50%
D) 65%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 50%
201. India imports palm oil worth approximately how much annually?
A) ~$2.5 billion
B) ~$5 billion
C) ~$8.5 billion
D) ~$12 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) ~$8.5 billion
202. Which policy distortion in India has led to reduced oilseed cultivation?
A) FDI restrictions in agriculture
B) MSP incentives favouring Wheat and Rice
C) Import duty waivers on edible oils
D) Export ban on oilseeds
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) MSP incentives favouring Wheat and Rice
203. The 10th session of the India–Kenya Joint Trade Committee was held in which city?
A) New Delhi
B) Mumbai
C) Nairobi
D) Mombasa
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Nairobi
204. What trade settlement mechanism was agreed upon to reduce dependence on the US dollar in India–Kenya trade?
A) Gold-backed settlement
B) Special Rupee Vostro Accounts (SRVAs)
C) SWIFT-based INR transfers
D) Barter trade agreement
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Special Rupee Vostro Accounts (SRVAs)
205. What was the bilateral trade volume between India and Kenya in 2025–26?
A) $1.5 billion
B) $2.8 billion
C) $4.31 billion
D) $6.2 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) $4.31 billion
206. What is the name of the India–Kenya joint maritime vision launched in 2023?
A) SAMUDRA
B) BAHARI
C) SAGARA
D) NEELAM
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) BAHARI
207. The 17th Petersberg Climate Dialogue 2026 was held in which city?
A) Paris
B) London
C) Berlin
D) Vienna
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Berlin
208. The Petersberg Climate Dialogue was initiated by Germany in which year following which conference?
A) 2005, Kyoto Protocol
B) 2008, Bali COP13
C) 2010, Copenhagen Climate Conference
D) 2012, Doha COP18
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2010, Copenhagen Climate Conference
209. COP31, for which the Petersberg Dialogue is a preparatory platform, is scheduled to be held in which city?
A) Dubai
B) Nairobi
C) Baku
D) Antalya
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Antalya
210. Which organisation released the DPI @2047 Report?
A) Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY)
B) NITI Aayog
C) Reserve Bank of India
D) Ministry of Finance
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) NITI Aayog
211. Under the DPI @2047 roadmap, DPI 3.0 targets broad-based prosperity by which year?
A) 2030
B) 2035
C) 2040
D) 2047
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) 2047
212. DPI currently contributes approximately what percentage of India’s GDP?
A) 0.5%
B) 1%
C) 2%
D) 4%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 1%
213. Which of the following is NOT listed as a foundational pillar of India’s DPI ecosystem?
A) Aadhaar (Digital Identity)
B) UPI (Payments)
C) DigiLocker (Data Exchange)
D) GST Network (Taxation)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) GST Network (Taxation)
214. The SCO Defence Ministers’ Meeting (2026) was held in which city?
A) Beijing
B) Moscow
C) Bishkek
D) Tashkent
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Bishkek
215. The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) was established in which year?
A) 1996
B) 1999
C) 2001
D) 2005
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2001
216. India became a full member of the SCO in which year?
A) 2005
B) 2010
C) 2015
D) 2017
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) 2017
217. The Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) of the SCO is based in which city?
A) Beijing
B) Moscow
C) Tashkent
D) Almaty
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Tashkent
218. What is the total length of the Ganga Expressway, making it the longest in Uttar Pradesh?
A) 341 km
B) 450 km
C) 594 km
D) 680 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 594 km
219. The Ganga Expressway connects which two cities of Uttar Pradesh?
A) Lucknow and Varanasi
B) Meerut and Prayagraj
C) Agra and Gorakhpur
D) Noida and Kanpur
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Meerut and Prayagraj
220. Coartem Baby, the first malaria drug for newborns, is formulated for infants of what weight range?
A) 1–3 kg
B) 2–5 kg
C) 5–10 kg
D) 3–8 kg
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 2–5 kg
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