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15 to 21 April 2026 (Weekly Current Affairs Quiz)

Practice the April 2026 Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the third week of April 2026. 

The Current Affairs Quiz of 15 to 21 April features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.

3rd Week of April 2026: Current Affairs Quiz

1. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution does the Prime Minister hold office as long as they enjoy the confidence of the Lok Sabha?

A) 75 cm (1961–1990)
B) 82 cm (1961–2000)
C) 87 cm (1971–2020)
D) 91 cm (1981–2010)

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) 87 cm (1971–2020)


2. A monsoon rainfall below what percentage of LPA is classified as ‘Deficient’ (drought-like conditions)?

A) Below 95%
B) Below 92%
C) Below 90%
D) Below 85%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) Below 90%


3. El Niño is caused by the warming of which ocean region?

A) Indian Ocean eastern basin
B) Central and eastern Pacific Ocean
C) North Atlantic Ocean
D) Southern Ocean

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Central and eastern Pacific Ocean


4.The Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) in its positive phase has what effect on India’s monsoon?

A) Weakens the monsoon
B) Strengthens the monsoon
C) Has no effect
D) Delays the monsoon onset

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Strengthens the monsoon


5. El Niño is part of the larger ENSO system. What does ENSO stand for?

A) Eastern North-South Oscillation
B) El Niño–Southern Oscillation
C) Equatorial Northern Surface Oscillation
D) Eastern Niño–Sea Oscillation

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) El Niño–Southern Oscillation


6. Minimum wages in India are now governed by which legislation?

A) Minimum Wages Act, 1948
B) Code on Wages, 2019
C) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
D) Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Code on Wages, 2019


7. The e-Shram Portal is designed to digitally register workers from which sector?

A) Organised formal sector
B) Government employees
C) Unorganised/informal sector
D) MSME manufacturing units

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) Unorganised/informal sector


8. PM Shram Yogi Maandhan Yojana provides a monthly pension of ₹3,000 to workers in which sector?

A) Organised sector above ₹15,000 income
B) Unorganised sector
C) Agricultural sector only
D) Construction workers only

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Unorganised sector


9. A ‘Close Blockade’ involves deploying naval forces in which position?

A) Far from enemy coastline due to missile/submarine threats
B) Near or at the enemy coastline
C) At international shipping lanes
D) At the entry of international straits only

Correct Answer: (B) Near or at the enemy coastline

Show Answer


10. The US naval blockade on Iran is enforced by which command?

A) US Pacific Command
B) US European Command
C) US Central Command
D) US Indo-Pacific Command


Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) US Central Command

11. For a blockade to be legally valid under international law, it must be all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Formally declared
B) Continuously and effectively enforced
C) Applied only to enemy-flagged vessels
D) Non-discriminatory

Correct Answer: (C) Applied only to enemy-flagged vessels

Show Answer


12. India–Iran bilateral trade stands at approximately how much, which would be directly impacted by the US blockade?

A) $0.5 billion
B) ~$1.1–1.2 billion
C) $3 billion
D) $5.5 billion

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) ~$1.1–1.2 billion


13.The 9th Indian Ocean Conference (IOC 2026) was held in which country?

A) Maldives
B) Seychelles
C) Mauritius
D) Sri Lanka

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) Mauritius


14.The Indian Ocean Conference is organised by India Foundation along with which two other bodies?

A) ASEAN Secretariat and UN Environment Programme
B) Government of Mauritius and Ministry of External Affairs
C) Indian Navy and ISRO
D) World Bank and IMF

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Government of Mauritius and Ministry of External Affairs


15. Approximately what percentage of India’s total trade by volume passes through the Indian Ocean Region?

A) 65%
B) 75%
C) ~95%
D) 100%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) ~95%


16. India’s vision for the Indian Ocean is captured in the acronym SAGAR, which stands for:

A) Strategic Alliance for Growth and Regional Security
B) Security and Growth for All in the Region
C) Sustainable Access to Global Aquatic Resources
D) South Asian Governance and Regional Resilience

Correct Answer: (B) Security and Growth for All in the Region

Show Answer


17. A depreciation of ₹1 against the US dollar leads to approximately how much increase in India’s inflation?

A) 0.05–0.1%
B) ~0.2–0.3%
C) 0.5–0.8%
D) 1–1.5%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) ~0.2–0.3%


18. India’s RBI uses ‘Special Vostro Accounts’ as part of which rupee depreciation management strategy?

A) Forex market intervention by selling dollars
B) Rupee trade settlement to reduce dollar dependency
C) Monetary tightening to attract foreign capital
D) Import management through higher tariffs

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Rupee trade settlement to reduce dollar dependency


19. IT firms in India typically gain approximately how many basis points in margin for every 1%
depreciation of the rupee?

A) 5–10 bps
B) 20–30 bps
C) 50–60 bps
D) 100–120 bps

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) 20–30 bps


20. The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre occurred on which date in 1919?

A) 10 April (Good Friday)
B) 13 April (Baisakhi)
C) 23 April (St. George’s Day)
D) 30 April (Labour Day)

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) 13 April (Baisakhi)


21. The arrests of which two leaders directly triggered the protests that led to the Jallianwala Bagh gathering?

A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Lala Lajpat Rai
B) Saifuddin Kitchlew and Satyapal
C) Bhagat Singh and Sukhdev
D) Jawaharlal Nehru and Maulana Azad

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Saifuddin Kitchlew and Satyapal


22. The Rowlatt Act (1919) was known as the ‘Black Law’ because it allowed:

A) Forced labour for colonial projects
B) Detention without trial
C) Deportation of Indian leaders
D) Suppression of the Indian press

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Detention without trial


23. Udham Singh avenged the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre by assassinating which British official in London in 1940?

A) Reginald Dyer
B) Michael O’Dwyer
C) Lord Chelmsford
D) Edwin Montagu

Show Answer

Correct Answer : (B) Michael O’Dwyer


24. Dr B.R. Ambedkar was born in which town?

A) Nagpur
B) Pune
C) Mhow
D) Mumbai

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) Mhow


25.The Mahad Satyagraha (1927) led by Ambedkar was for which cause?

A) Temple entry for Dalits
B) Right to access public water sources
C) Abolition of untouchability in schools
D) Reservation in government jobs

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Right to access public water sources


26. Ambedkar’s book ‘Annihilation of Caste’ directly critiques which social institution?

A) Colonial governance
B) The caste system and Hindu orthodoxy
C) The princely states
D) The Congress party’s policies

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) The caste system and Hindu orthodoxy


27.Ambedkar was awarded the Bharat Ratna in which year?

A) 1956
B) 1971
C) 1990
D) 2000

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) 1990


28. Project Him Sarovar, launched in Ladakh to address water scarcity, involves which key intervention?

A) Building large dams on Indus tributaries
B) Scientific snow harvesting and creation of artificial ponds/reservoirs
C) Importing water from Himachal Pradesh via pipeline
D) Deep groundwater extraction using solar pumps

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) 40% grant, 60% loan


29.India’s first indigenous quantum computing test and reference facilities were launched in which city as part of ‘Amaravati Quantum Valley’?

A) Bengaluru
B) Hyderabad
C) Amaravati
D) Pune

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Amaravati


30. According to the Indian Ocean Conference context, approximately what percentage of India’s crude oil imports pass through the Indian Ocean Region?

A) ~40%
B) ~60%
C) ~80%
D) ~95%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) ~80%


31.The Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill, 2026 proposes to increase Lok Sabha seats from 543 to:

A) 650
B) 750
C) 816
D) 850

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (D) 850


32. A monsoon rainfall below what percentage of LPA is classified as ‘Deficient’ (drought-like conditions)?

A) 15
B) 25
C) 35
D) 50

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) 35


33. The 131st Amendment Bill proposes to use which Census data for seat allocation and delimitation?

A) 1991 Census
B) 2001 Census
C) 2011 Census
D) 2026 Census (yet to be conducted)

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) 2011 Census


34.The seat freeze in the current Lok Sabha (based on 1971 Census) was continued by which Constitutional Amendment Act?

A) 77th Amendment Act
B) 80th Amendment Act
C) 84th Amendment Act
D) 91st Amendment Act

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) 84th Amendment Act


35. A key concern about the 131st Amendment Bill is that southern states’ share of Lok Sabha seats would decline from 24.3% to approximately:

A) 22.1%
B) 21.4%
C) ~20.7%
D) 18.5%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) ~20.7%


36. The Delimitation Commission under the Delimitation Bill, 2026 will be chaired by:

A) Chief Election Commissioner
B) A Supreme Court judge
C) Attorney General of India
D) Cabinet Secretary

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) A Supreme Court judge


37. In N.P. Ponnuswami v. Returning Officer, the Supreme Court held that the right to vote is a:

A) Fundamental Right under Article 19
B) Common law right
C) Statutory right
D) Constitutional right under Article 326

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) Statutory right


38. In the PUCL case (NOTA judgment), voting freedom including NOTA was protected under which Article?

A) Article 14
B) Article 19(1)(a)
C) Article 21
D) Article 32

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Article 19(1)(a)


39. The Supreme Court’s ‘Deletion Impact Test’ suggests scrutiny when voter deletion percentage exceeds:

A) 5% of total voters
B) The victory margin percentage in that constituency
C) 15% of registered voters
D) The SC/ST reservation proportion

Correct Answer: (B) The victory margin percentage in that constituency

Show Answer


40. Poshan 2.0 was launched in which year and is administered by which ministry?

A) 2018, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
B) 2019, Ministry of Education
C) 2021, Ministry of Women and Child Development
D) 2023, NITI Aayog


Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) 2021, Ministry of Women and Child Development

41. The ‘Poshan Bhi Padhai Bhi’ initiative under Poshan 2.0 converts Anganwadis into:

A) Health and wellness centres
B) Pre-school learning centres integrating ECCE
C) Vocational training hubs for adolescent girls
D) Digital payment literacy centres

Correct Answer: (B) Pre-school learning centres integrating ECCE

Show Answer


42. The target number of upgraded ‘Saksham Anganwadis’ under Poshan 2.0 is:

A) 50,000
B) 1 lakh
C) 2 lakh
D) 5 lakh

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) 2 lakh


43. The Poshan Tracker under Poshan 2.0 uses which technology for registration of beneficiaries?

A) Aadhaar-linked OTP verification
B) Biometric registration and Facial Recognition System
C) GPS-based home visits
D) QR code-based card scanning

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Biometric registration and Facial Recognition System


44. Poshan 2.0 focuses on which two priority geographic areas for nutrition intervention?

A) Tribal districts and coastal areas
B) Aspirational districts and North-East India
C) Urban slums and border districts
D) Hill regions and desert districts

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Aspirational districts and North-East India


45. Under the Copyright Act, 1957, the maximum imprisonment for film piracy is:

A) 1 year
B) 2 years
C) 3 years
D) 5 years

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) 3 years


46. The Cinematograph Act, 1952 prescribes a penalty for piracy as a fine of up to what percentage of the film’s gross budget?

A) 1%
B) 3%
C) 5%
D) 10%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) 5%


47. Under India’s anti-piracy legal framework, who can be held liable for film piracy?

A) Only the original leaker
B) The production house only
C) Original leakers, distributors, and even individuals sharing links
D) Only commercial piracy operations

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) Original leakers, distributors, and even individuals sharing links


48. The e-SafeHER programme was launched by which organisations?

A) NASSCOM and Tata Trusts
B) Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (Hyderabad) and Reliance Foundation
C) MeitY and Google India
D) CERT-In and Microsoft India

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (Hyderabad) and Reliance Foundation


49. The e-SafeHER programme operates under which flagship initiative of MeitY?

A) Digital Saksharta Abhiyan
B) Information Security Education and Awareness (ISEA)
C) Cyber Suraksha Mission
D) National Cyber Crime Reporting Programme

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Information Security Education and Awareness (ISEA)


50. The e-SafeHER programme aims to train how many rural women as ‘Cyber Sakhis’ by 2029?

A) 1 lakh
B) 5 lakh
C) 10 lakh (1 million)
D) 25 lakh

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) 10 lakh (1 million)


51. The initial rollout of e-SafeHER is in which two states?

A) Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan
B) Madhya Pradesh and Odisha
C) Bihar and Jharkhand
D) Gujarat and Maharashtra

Show Answer

Correct Answer:(B) Madhya Pradesh and Odisha

52. India ranks 3rd globally in pharmaceutical production by volume and which rank by value?

A) 5th
B) 8th
C) 11th
D) 15th

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) 11th


53. India contributes approximately what percentage of global generic drug supply?

A) 10%
B) 15%
C) ~20%
D) 30%

Show Answer

Correct Answer : (C) ~20%


54. India accounts for approximately what percentage of global vaccine production?

A) 30%
B) 45%
C) ~60%
D) 75%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) ~60%


55.The 9th edition of India Pharma 2026 is organised by the Department of Pharmaceuticals along with FICCI and which other body?

A) Pharmaceutical Export Promotion Council (Pharmexcil)
B) Indian Pharmaceutical Alliance
C) Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation
D) Indian Drug Manufacturers’ Association

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Indian Pharmaceutical Alliance


56. The Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) was established under which Act?

A) Science and Technology Act, 2018
B) ANRF Act, 2023
C) National Research Foundation Act, 2020
D) Innovation India Act, 2022

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) ANRF Act, 2023


57. SARAL AI stands for:

A) System for Advanced Research and Learning in AI
B) Simplified and Automated Research Amplification and Learning
C) Scientific AI for Research and Literature
D) Standardised AI for Research and Language

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Simplified and Automated Research Amplification and Learning


58. SARAL AI generates content in how many Indian languages to enhance scientific accessibility?

A) 8
B) 12
C) 18
D) 22

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) 18


59. SARAL AI’s objective aligns with which Fundamental Duty under the Indian Constitution?

A) Article 51A(e) — Promote harmony and brotherhood
B) Article 51A(g) — Protect the natural environment
C) Article 51A(h) — Promote scientific temper, humanism and spirit of inquiry
D) Article 51A(j) — Strive towards excellence

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) Article 51A(h) — Promote scientific temper, humanism and spirit of inquiry


60. The current Lok Sabha has how many reserved seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
Tribes respectively?

A) 70 SC, 40 ST
B) 80 SC, 45 ST
C) 84 SC, 47 ST
D) 90 SC, 55 ST

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) 84 SC, 47 ST


61.Currently, India has approximately how many citizens per Lok Sabha Member of Parliament?

A) ~10 lakh
B) ~18 lakh
C) ~25 lakh
D) ~35 lakh

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) ~25 lakh


62. Under Article 75(1A) of the Constitution, the total number of ministers (including PM) cannot exceed what percentage of Lok Sabha strength?

A) 10%
B) 12%
C) 15%
D) 20%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) 15%


63. Expanding Lok Sabha to 850 seats could inflate the Cabinet to approximately how many ministers?

A) ~85
B) ~105
C) ~133
D) ~170

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) ~133


64. The concern that population-based delimitation ‘penalises’ southern states is because those states
had:

A) Lower economic growth rates
B) Higher rates of urbanisation
C) Successfully controlled population growth
D) Smaller geographical areas

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) Successfully controlled population growth


65. Expanding the Lok Sabha is primarily aimed at facilitating implementation of which reservation?

A) OBC reservation in Parliament
B) EWS reservation in central services
C) 33% women’s reservation under the 106th Amendment
D) Tribal representation in border constituencies

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) 33% women’s reservation under the 106th Amendment


66. The Sudanese Civil War began in April 2023 between the Sudanese Armed Forces (SAF) and which paramilitary group?

A) Janjaweed Militia
B) Sudan People’s Liberation Army
C) Rapid Support Forces (RSF)
D) Lord’s Resistance Army

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) Rapid Support Forces (RSF)


67. The United Nations has declared the Sudanese Civil War as the world’s:

A) Longest-running civil war
B) Largest humanitarian crisis
C) Deadliest conflict since WWII
D) Most complex proxy war

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Largest humanitarian crisis


68. In the Sudanese Civil War, which country has reportedly been supporting the RSF paramilitary group?

A) Egypt
B) Iran
C) United Arab Emirates
D) Russia

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) United Arab Emirates


69. The ‘Sudan Quad’ peace efforts involve the US, Saudi Arabia, UAE, and which fourth country?

A) Turkey
B) Egypt
C) Jordan
D) Qatar

Correct Answer: (B) Egypt

Show Answer


70. Sudan is strategically important as the world’s leading producer of which agricultural commodity?

A) Sesame seeds
B) Sorghum
C) Gum arabic
D) Cotton


Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) Gum arabic

71. India holds the BRICS Presidency in which year?

A) 2024
B) 2025
C) 2026
D) 2027

Correct Answer: (C) 2026

Show Answer


72. The newly expanded BRICS grouping includes which of the following countries that joined as a new member?

A) Pakistan
B) Nigeria
C) Bangladesh
D) Indonesia

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (D) Indonesia


73. The ‘BRICS Mission for Healthy Lifestyles’ launched at the HWG meeting focuses primarily on prevention of:

A) Infectious diseases like TB and malaria
B) Non-communicable diseases (NCDs)
C) Maternal and child health issues
D) Antimicrobial resistance

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Non-communicable diseases (NCDs)


74. India’s AYUSH system is included under which category of healthcare promoted at the BRICS HWG meeting?

A) Precision Medicine
B) Traditional, Complementary, and Integrative Medicine (TCIM)
C) Digital Health and Telemedicine
D) Preventive Genomics

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Traditional, Complementary, and Integrative Medicine (TCIM)


75. Under the Industrial Relations Code, firms employing how many workers can now retrench workers without government approval?

A) 100 workers
B) 200 workers
C) 300 workers
D) 500 workers

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) 300 workers


76. Labour being on the Concurrent List means:

A) Only the Centre can legislate on labour matters
B) Only States can legislate on labour matters
C) Both Centre and States can legislate on labour matters
D) The President decides which level legislates on labour

Correct Answer: (C) Both Centre and States can legislate on labour matters

Show Answer


77.A key criticism of the New Labour Codes is the shift from an ‘inspector model’ to a ‘facilitator model’, which primarily means:

A) More government officials will inspect factories
B) Self-certification by firms reduces deterrence against violations
C) Labour inspectors are replaced by private auditors
D) Workers can now file grievances online

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Self-certification by firms reduces deterrence against violations


78. The Wage Code allows wage deductions up to what percentage, threatening income stability?

A) 20%
B) 30%
C) 40%
D) 50%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (D) 50%


79. Jyotirao Phule was born in which year and belonged to which community?

A) 1817, Kunbi (OBC) community
B) 1827, Mali (gardener/OBC) community
C) 1836, Mahar (Dalit) community
D) 1845, Chambhar community

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) 1827, Mali (gardener/OBC) community


80. Jyotirao Phule, along with Savitribai Phule, established India’s first indigenously-run girls’ school in which year and at which location?

A) 1840, Nagpur
B) 1848, Bhide Wada, Pune
C) 1855, Bombay
D) 1861, Satara

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) 1848, Bhide Wada, Pune


81. The Satyashodhak Samaj was founded by Jyotirao Phule in which year?

A) 1863
B) 1868
C) 1873
D) 1880

Correct Answer:(C) 1873


82. Jyotirao Phule was conferred the title ‘Mahatma’ in 1888 by:

A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
B) Vithalrao Krishnaji Vandekar
C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
D) Ranade

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Vithalrao Krishnaji Vandekar


83. The institution established by Phule to prevent female infanticide was called:

A) Stri Mukti Griha
B) Nari Seva Sadan
C) Balhatya Pratibandhak Griha
D) Mahila Raksha Kendra


Show Answer

Correct Answer : (C) Balhatya Pratibandhak Griha

84. Which of the following literary works was written by Jyotirao Phule?

A) Anandmath
B) Gulamgiri
C) Godan
D) Annihilation of Caste

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Gulamgiri


85.The Potomac River was declared America’s most endangered river in 2026. What is its approximate length?

A) ~350 km
B) ~450 km
C) ~550 km
D) ~652 km

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (D) ~652 km


86. The Potomac River originates in which geographic region of the United States?

A) Rocky Mountains
B) Great Plains
C) Appalachian Highlands
D) Ozark Plateau

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) ANRF Act, 2023


87. The Potomac River drains into which estuary, the largest in the United States?

A) Delaware Bay
B) Chesapeake Bay
C) Narragansett Bay
D) Pamlico Sound

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Chesapeake Bay


88. The Potomac River is formed by the confluence of North Branch and South Branch located in which US state?

A) Virginia
B) Maryland
C) Pennsylvania
D) West Virginia

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (D) West Virginia


89. Which major city does the Potomac River flow through, making it geopolitically significant?

A) New York City
B) Philadelphia
C) Washington D.C.
D) Baltimore

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) Washington D.C.


90. The OSH (Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions) Code raises the threshold for applicability of contract labour protection to how many workers?

A) 20 workers
B) 30 workers
C) 50 workers
D) 100 workers

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) 50 workers


91.A Marine Heatwave (MHW) is defined as a period when sea surface temperature exceeds the 90th percentile of historical data for at least how many consecutive days?

A) 3 days
B) 5 days
C) 7 days
D) 10 days

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) 5 days


92. Cyclones over Marine Heatwave zones are how many times more likely to become billion-dollar disasters?

A) 1.2 times
B) 1.4 times
C) 1.6 times
D) 2.0 times

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) 1.6 times


93. What percentage of landfalling cyclones now pass through Marine Heatwave zones?

A) 25%
B) 38%
C) 52%
D) 67%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) 52%


94. Rapid Intensification in a tropical cyclone is defined as an increase in wind speed of at least how many knots in 24 hours?

A) 15 knots
B) 25 knots
C) 30 knots
D) 40 knots

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) 30 knots


95. Cyclones over Marine Heatwaves produce approximately how much higher rainfall compared to normal cyclones?

A) ~5%
B) ~8%
C) ~12%
D) ~20%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) ~12%


96. A tropical cyclone is called a ‘Hurricane’ in which ocean and a ‘Typhoon’ in which ocean?

A) Indian Ocean and Arctic Ocean
B) Atlantic and Pacific Oceans
C) Pacific and Indian Oceans
D) Atlantic and Arctic Oceans

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Atlantic and Pacific Oceans


97. The doctrine ‘Nemo judex in causa sua’ means:

A) Justice delayed is justice denied
B) No one should be a judge in their own cause
C) Every accused is innocent until proven guilty
D) A court must hear both sides equally

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) No one should be a judge in their own cause


98. The legal test applied for recusal of a judge in India is based on:

A) Proof of actual bias beyond reasonable doubt
B) Whether a fair-minded observer would believe there is a real likelihood of bias
C) A formal complaint filed by the litigant to the Chief Justice
D) A majority vote by the bench

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Whether a fair-minded observer would believe there is a real likelihood of bias


99. The Bangalore Principles of Judicial Conduct (2002) were endorsed by the United Nations in which year?

A) 2004
B) 2006
C) 2008
D) 2010

Correct Answer: (B) 2006

Show Answer


100. In India, the decision to recuse in a case ultimately lies with:

A) The Chief Justice of India
B) The concerned judge himself/herself
C) The litigant parties jointly
D) The Bar Council of India

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) Gum arabic


101. Operation Upstream is a global initiative led by which organisation to target production and trafficking of doping substances?

A) INTERPOL
B) World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA)
C) Europol
D) United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA)


102. The National Anti-Doping Act, 2022 in India gives statutory backing to anti-doping rules. Before this Act, doping was treated as a:

A) Criminal offence
B) Civil liability
C) Disciplinary violation only
D) Regulatory infraction

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) Disciplinary violation only


103. The World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) was established in which year?

A) 1994
B) 1996
C) 1999
D) 2001

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) 1999


104. Operation Upstream across 20 countries resulted in seizing approximately how many doses of doping substances?

A) 200 million doses
B) 500 million doses
C) 1 billion doses
D) 1.8 billion doses

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (D) 1.8 billion doses


105. The gazette notification to operationalise the Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, 2023 was issued by which ministry in April 2026?

A) Ministry of Women and Child Development
B) Ministry of Law and Justice
C) Ministry of Home Affairs
D) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Ministry of Law and Justice


106. The Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, 2023 reserves 33% seats for women in which legislative bodies?

A) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
B) Lok Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, and Delhi Legislative Assembly
C) All State Assemblies and Rajya Sabha only
D) Lok Sabha and Panchayati Raj Institutions

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Lok Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, and Delhi Legislative Assembly


107.The 2026 notification relaxed the earlier implementation condition by allowing Parliament to choose which census data?

A) 2001 Census or later
B) 2011 Census or later
C) Only 2026 Census
D) Only post-delimitation data

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) 2011 Census or later


108. The women’s reservation under the 106th Amendment is initially valid for how long?

A) 5 years
B) 10 years
C) 15 years
D) 25 years

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) 15 years


109. CAFE stands for Corporate Average Fuel Efficiency. The CAFE-III Phase III norms target CO2 emissions from vehicles at:

A) 92.5 g CO2/km
B) 85.0 g CO2/km
C) 78.9 g CO2/km
D) 70.0 g CO2/km

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) 78.9 g CO2/km


110. CAFE-III norms are to be implemented from which date?

A) April 1, 2025
B) January 1, 2026
C) April 1, 2027
D) January 1, 2028

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) April 1, 2027


111. Under CAFE-III, Electric Vehicles count as multiple units in fleet calculation. This feature is called:

A) Green Credits
B) Super Credits
C) Zero-Emission Multiplier
D) EV Bonus Points

Correct Answer:(B) Super Credits


112. Under CAFE-III’s Credit Trading Mechanism, manufacturers who EXCEED fuel efficiency targets can:

A) Receive direct government subsidies
B) Sell efficiency credits to non-compliant firms
C) Get exemption from import duties
D) Reduce GST on their vehicles

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Sell efficiency credits to non-compliant firms


113. India’s first semiconductor fabrication SEZ has been notified at which location?

A) GIFT City, Gujarat
B) Dholera Special Investment Region (SIR), Gujarat
C) Sanand Industrial Area, Gujarat
D) Pune Knowledge Corridor, Maharashtra

Show Answer

Correct Answer : (B) Dholera Special Investment Region (SIR), Gujarat


114. India’s first chip fab at Dholera is part of which industrial corridor?

A) Amritsar–Kolkata Industrial Corridor
B) Chennai–Bengaluru Industrial Corridor
C) Delhi–Mumbai Industrial Corridor (DMIC)
D) Vizag–Chennai Industrial Corridor

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) Delhi–Mumbai Industrial Corridor (DMIC)


115.The recent reform (2025) reduced the land requirement for semiconductor SEZs from 50 hectares to:

A) 5 hectares
B) 10 hectares
C) 20 hectares
D) 25 hectares

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) 10 hectares


116. India’s first Export Processing Zone (EPZ), a precursor to SEZs, was established at which location in 1965?

A) SEEPZ, Mumbai
B) Noida EPZ
C) Kandla, Gujarat
D) Cochin, Kerala

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) Kandla, Gujarat


117. World Haemophilia Day is observed on which date annually?

A) 7 April
B) 14 April
C) 17 April
D) 28 April

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) 17 April


118. Haemophilia is known as the ‘Royal Disease’ because it spread through the descendants of:

A) Empress Catherine the Great
B) Queen Victoria
C) Marie Antoinette
D) Queen Elizabeth I

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Queen Victoria


119. Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder. Why does it primarily affect males?

A) Males have higher clotting factor production
B) Males have only one X chromosome, so a single defective copy causes disease
C) Males have a weaker immune system
D) The defective gene is on the Y chromosome

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Males have only one X chromosome, so a single defective copy causes disease


120. Approximately what percentage of global haemophilia patients remain undiagnosed?

A) 30%
B) 50%
C) ~75%
D) 90%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) ~75%


121. AMOC stands for Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation. It is driven by which two factors?

A) Wind speed and atmospheric pressure
B) Temperature and salinity (thermohaline circulation)
C) Tidal forces and Earth’s rotation
D) Solar radiation and ocean depth

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Temperature and salinity (thermohaline circulation)


122. AMOC moves warm surface water northward and cold deep water southward. What process causes warm saline water to sink in the North Atlantic?

A) Solar heating reduces water density
B) Cooling and high salinity make water denser, causing downwelling
C) Wind-driven mixing pushes water downward
D) Tidal forces pull water deeper

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Cooling and high salinity make water denser, causing downwelling


123. What percentage of the observed AMOC weakening is linked to western boundary currents?

A) ~40%
B) ~60%
C) ~75%
D) ~90%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (D) ~90%


124. The melting of which ice sheet is the primary cause of freshwater influx weakening AMOC?

A) Antarctic Ice Sheet
B) Arctic Sea Ice
C) Greenland Ice Sheet
D) Tibetan Glaciers

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) Greenland Ice Sheet


125. A potential AMOC collapse could release how many gigatonnes of CO2?

A) 10–20 gigatonnes
B) 25–45 gigatonnes
C) 47–83 gigatonnes
D) 100–150 gigatonnes

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) 47–83 gigatonnes


126. If AMOC collapses, the Southern Ocean could shift from being a carbon sink to:

A) A more efficient carbon absorber
B) A carbon source (releasing CO2)
C) A neutral carbon reservoir
D) An oxygen-depleted dead zone

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) A carbon source (releasing CO2)


127. The AI Governance and Economic Group (AIGEG) was constituted under which ministry?

A) Ministry of Science and Technology
B) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
C) NITI Aayog
D) Ministry of Finance

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)


128. AIGEG adopts a ‘Whole-of-Government Model’. This approach primarily aims to:

A) Centralise all AI regulation in one ministry
B) Avoid fragmented AI regulation by coordinating across ministries, regulators and
institutions
C) Follow only private sector AI standards
D) Prioritise national security over all other AI considerations

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Avoid fragmented AI regulation by coordinating across ministries, regulators and institutions


129. India’s AI Governance Framework unveiled at the AI Impact Summit 2026 follows which type of approach?

A) Strict rule-heavy regulatory model
B) Principle-based approach (Sutras)
C) Technology-neutral framework
D) Sector-specific regulation

Correct Answer: (B) Principle-based approach (Sutras)

Show Answer


130. The advisory body supporting AIGEG that provides global best practices and regulatory inputs is called:

A) AI Policy Review Board
B) Digital Governance Advisory Council
C) Technology and Policy Expert Committee (TPEC)
D) National AI Regulatory Authority

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) Technology and Policy Expert Committee (TPEC)


131. India’s AI Governance Framework aims to prevent ‘market concentration in a few firms’. Which of the seven Sutras (principles) most directly relates to this?

A) Trust is the Foundation
B) Fairness & Equity
C) Innovation over Restraint
D) Accountability

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Fairness & Equity


132. India’s patent filings rose by 30.2% to how many in FY 2025–26?

A) 85,000
B) 1.10 lakh
C) 1.43 lakh
D) 1.75 lakh

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) 1.43 lakh


133. India is currently the how-many-th largest patent filer globally?

A) 4th
B) 5th
C) 6th
D) 8th

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) 6th


134. Approximately what percentage of India’s patent applications are filed domestically, reflecting indigenous R&D growth?

A) 35%
B) 52%
C) ~69%
D) 82%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) ~69%


135. Under the Patents Act, 1970, a patent is valid for how many years from the date of filing?

A) 10 years
B) 15 years
C) 20 years
D) 25 years

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) 20 years


136. Which of the following is NOT a criterion for patentability under Indian patent law?

A) Novelty
B) Inventive step (non-obvious)
C) Industrial applicability
D) Commercial profitability

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (D) Commercial profitability


137.Under India’s Patents Act, a ‘pre-grant opposition’ can be filed by:

A) Only interested commercial parties
B) Only the patent applicant
C) Any person
D) Only research institutions

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) Any person


138. The National Cadet Corps (NCC) was established under which Act in 1948?

A) Defence Forces Act, 1947
B) NCC Act, 1948
C) National Security Act, 1948
D) Youth Services Act, 1948

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) NCC Act, 1948


139. The NCC was established based on the recommendations of which committee?

A) Kher Committee
B) H.N. Kunzru Committee
C) Mudaliar Committee
D) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) H.N. Kunzru Committee


140. NCC is recognised as the world’s largest:

A) Youth voluntary programme
B) Uniformed youth organisation
C) Defence training organisation
D) Scout and guide movement

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Uniformed youth organisation


141. The NCC’s new Cyber Security Capacity Building Programme was launched in collaboration with which institute?

A) IIT Delhi
B) National Institute of Electronics and Information Technology (NIELIT)
C) Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC)
D) Indian Institute of Information Technology (IIIT)

Correct Answer:(B) National Institute of Electronics and Information Technology (NIELIT)


142. Scarborough Shoal is located approximately how many nautical miles from China’s nearest coastline?

A) ~120 nautical miles
B) ~250 nautical miles
C) ~470 nautical miles
D) ~600 nautical miles

Show Answer

Correct Answer : (C) ~470 nautical miles


143. The Philippines’ claim over Scarborough Shoal is based on which legal framework?

A) Historical fishing rights predating UNCLOS
B) 200 nautical mile EEZ under UNCLOS
C) Continental shelf extension rights
D) Bilateral treaty with the United States

Show Answer

Correct Answer : (B) 200 nautical mile EEZ under UNCLOS


144. China’s claim over most of the South China Sea, including Scarborough Shoal, is based on which historical claim?

A) Five-Dash Line
B) Seven-Dash Line
C) Nine-Dash Line
D) Eleven-Dash Line

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) Nine-Dash Line


145.In 2016, the Permanent Court of Arbitration ruled on the South China Sea dispute. What was its verdict regarding China’s Nine-Dash Line?

A) Upheld China’s historical rights within the Nine-Dash Line
B) Awarded joint sovereignty to China and Philippines
C) Rejected China’s Nine-Dash Line claims and declared Chinese actions unlawful
D) Referred the matter back to UNCLOS tribunal

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) Rejected China’s Nine-Dash Line claims and declared Chinese actions unlawful


146. The South China Sea handles approximately what fraction of global maritime trade?

A) ~1/10th
B) ~1/5th
C) ~1/3rd
D) ~1/2

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) ~1/3rd


147. What is the Chinese name for Scarborough Shoal?

A) Spratly Island
B) Paracel Island
C) Huangyan Island
D) Nansha Island

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) Huangyan Island


148. India’s R&D expenditure is approximately what percentage of GDP, which is considered low compared to global leaders?

A) ~0.3%
B) ~0.7%
C) ~1.2%
D) ~2.0%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) ~0.7%


149. The NCC motto ‘Unity and Discipline’ reflects its mission to build character among youth. NCC operates under which ministry?

A) Ministry of Home Affairs
B) Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
C) Ministry of Defence
D) Ministry of Education

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) Ministry of Defence


150. In the context of AMOC, ‘thermohaline circulation’ refers to ocean circulation driven by which two factors?

A) Temperature and wind speed
B) Temperature and salinity
C) Salinity and tidal forces
D) Wind and Earth’s rotation

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Temperature and salinity


151. Which of the following best explains Iran’s reluctance to join peace talks with the United States?

A. Lack of international support
B. Economic sanctions by Europe
C. Historical mistrust and perceived bad faith by the U.S.
D. Internal political instability

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) Historical mistrust and perceived bad faith by the U.S.


152. The U.S. naval blockade on Iran is significant because it primarily aims to:

A. Prevent illegal migration
B. Force Iran into a nuclear agreement
C. Protect oil tankers from piracy
D. Control global trade routes

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Force Iran into a nuclear agreement


153. The Strait of Hormuz is strategically important because it:

A. Connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea
B. Handles a significant portion of global oil trade
C. Is the largest fishing zone in Asia
D. Separates Europe from Africa

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Handles a significant portion of global oil trade


154. Which of the following correctly describes the JCPOA?

A. A climate agreement on emission reduction
B. A military alliance in West Asia
C. A nuclear deal aimed at limiting Iran’s nuclear program
D. A trade agreement between oil-exporting countries

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) A nuclear deal aimed at limiting Iran’s nuclear program


155. The role of the IRGC in Iran is best described as:

A. A civilian administrative body
B. A diplomatic wing of the government
C. An elite military force controlling key defense operations
D. A judicial authority

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) An elite military force controlling key defense operations


156. A naval blockade in international law is considered:

A. A peaceful diplomatic tool
B. A war-like act restricting maritime access
C. A trade agreement
D. A humanitarian intervention

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B)A war-like act restricting maritime access


157. Which of the following best explains why disruption in the Strait of Hormuz affects global oil prices?

A. It is the largest oil producer
B. It stores global oil reserves
C. It is a key transit route for oil shipments
D. It controls oil refining

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) It is a key transit route for oil shipments


158. According to the study on India’s forests, which emission scenario leads to the highest increase in carbon storage by 2100?

A. Low emissions
B. Medium emissions
C. High emissions
D. Zero emissions

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) High emissions


159. Which factor directly enhances photosynthesis in forests under climate change?

A. Decreasing rainfall
B. Lower temperatures
C. Increased CO₂ levels
D. Reduced sunlight

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) Increased CO₂ levels


160. Why do Western Ghats show lower relative increase in carbon storage?

A. Lack of rainfall
B. Industrialization
C. Ecological saturation and already dense forests
D. Poor soil quality

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) Ecological saturation and already dense forests


161. Which of the following best defines a carbon sink?

A. A source of greenhouse gases
B. A system that emits more carbon than it absorbs
C. A system that absorbs more carbon than it emits
D. A type of fossil fuel

Correct Answer: (C) A system that absorbs more carbon than it emits

Show Answer


162. Climate modelling primarily helps in:

A. Controlling pollution directly
B. Predicting future climate trends
C. Reducing carbon emissions immediately
D. Monitoring wildlife

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Predicting future climate trends


163. The rise of Samrat Choudhary as Bihar CM represents:

A. Decline of coalition politics
B. Strengthening of regional parties
C. BJP’s strategy of overtaking alliance partners
D. End of caste-based politics

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) BJP’s strategy of overtaking alliance partners


164. Which electoral data best reflects BJP’s rise in Bihar?

A. BJP lost majority in 2020
B. BJP had fewer seats than JD(U) in 2025
C. BJP surpassed JD(U) in both 2020 and 2025
D. JD(U) dominated both elections

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) BJP surpassed JD(U) in both 2020 and 2025


165. The political importance of EBC voters in Bihar lies in their:

A. Fixed voting pattern
B. Insignificant population
C. Volatile and decisive electoral behavior
D. Exclusive support for one party

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C)Volatile and decisive electoral behavior


166. Coalition politics is best defined as:

A. Rule by a single dominant party
B. Government formed by multiple parties
C. Military governance
D. Presidential system

Correct Answer: (B) Government formed by multiple parties

Show Answer


167.The shift of Nitish Kumar to Rajya Sabha indicates:

A. Judicial appointment
B. Political transition or rehabilitation
C. Retirement from politics
D. Election defeat

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Political transition or rehabilitation


168. The Virudhunagar explosion is termed not an accident because:

A. It was caused by natural disaster
B. It was unpredictable
C. It resulted from repeated negligence and known risks
D. It was a one-time event

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) It resulted from repeated negligence and known risks


169. Which violation was evident in the fireworks unit explosion?

A. Excess taxation
B. Use of outdated machinery
C. Overcrowding beyond licensed limits
D. Illegal imports

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) Overcrowding beyond licensed limits


170. Article 21 of the Indian Constitution is relevant here because it guarantees:

A. Right to equality
B. Right to property
C. Right to life and safe working conditions
D. Freedom of religion

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) Right to life and safe working conditions


171. The doctrine of absolute liability implies that:

A. Liability depends on intention
B. Liability is shared
C. Hazardous industries are fully liable for damage
D. Liability applies only to government

Correct Answer:(C) Hazardous industries are fully liable for damage


172. Which sector recorded the sharpest decline in March 2026?

A. Steel
B. Cement
C. Fertiliser
D. Natural gas

Show Answer

Correct Answer : (C) Fertiliser


173. The Philippines’ claim over Scarborough Shoal is based on which legal framework?

A. Measures agricultural output
B. Tracks stock market performance
C. Indicates industrial performance
D. Measures inflation

Show Answer

Correct Answer : (C) Indicates industrial performance


174. The concept of “base effect” refers to:

A. Change in economic policy
B. Impact of previous year’s data on current growth
C. Inflation control
D. Taxation policy

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Impact of previous year’s data on current growth


175. Why did natural gas show growth despite overall slowdown?

A. Reduced demand
B. Government push to increase output
C. Foreign investment
D. Export bans

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Government push to increase output


176. TINA in financial markets implies:

A. No investment options available
B. Preference for government bonds
C. Preference for U.S. markets due to lack of alternatives
D. Decline in global trade

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) Preference for U.S. markets due to lack of alternatives


177. Which factor makes the U.S. economy more resilient during energy shocks?

A. High imports
B. Net energy exporter status
C. Low industrial base
D. Dependence on Europe

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Net energy exporter status


178. The S&P 500 index represents:

A. European markets
B. Asian markets
C. U.S. stock market performance
D. Global oil prices

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) U.S. stock market performance


179. Capital flows are influenced primarily by:

A. Cultural factors
B. Climate conditions
C. Stability, growth prospects, and returns
D. Language differences

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) Stability, growth prospects, and returns


180.The revival of TINA trade after the ceasefire indicates that:

A. Investors prefer unstable markets
B. Investors move away from strong economies
C. Investors return to resilient and high-performing economies
D. Global trade has stopped

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) Investors return to resilient and high-performing economies


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