Practice the July 2026 Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the forth week of July 2026.
The Current Affairs Quiz of 22 to 31 July features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.
4th Week of July 2026: Current Affairs Quiz
1. India became the how many-th WTO member to deposit its Instrument of Acceptance for the WTO Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies?
A) 100th
B) 110th
C) 123rd
D) 135th
Show Answer
Correct Answer : C) 123rd
2. The WTO Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies (AFS) was adopted at which WTO Ministerial Conference?
A) MC10 (2017)
B) MC11 (2019)
C) MC12 (2022)
D) MC13 (2024)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) MC12 (2022)
3. When did the WTO Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies enter into force?
A) January 2023
B) September 2025
C) March 2026
D) December 2026
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) September 2025
4. The AFS is notable for being:
A) The first WTO agreement on digital trade
B) The first multilateral WTO agreement with an environmental sustainability objective
C) The first bilateral WTO fisheries pact
D) The first WTO agreement covering aquaculture
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) The first multilateral WTO agreement with an environmental sustainability objective
5. Which type of fisheries activities are excluded from the scope of the WTO Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies?
A) Wild marine capture fisheries
B) Refuelling at sea
C) Aquaculture and inland fisheries
D) High seas fishing
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Aquaculture and inland fisheries
6. Under the AFS, what transition period is given to developing countries and LDCs for fishing within their Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ)?
A) One-year exemption
B) Two-year exemption
C) Three-year exemption
D) Five-year exemption
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Two-year exemption
7. The AFS establishes which mechanism to provide financial assistance, technical support and capacity-building?
A) WTO Fish Fund
B) Global Ocean Trust
C) Blue Economy Facility
D) Marine Resources Bank
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) WTO Fish Fund
8. Restrictions on IUU fishing and overfishing under the AFS can improve fish availability for approximately how many fisher families in India?
A) 5 million
B) 7 million
C) 9 million
D) 12 million
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 9 million
9. The revised Index of Core Industries (ICI) uses which year as its new base year?
A) 2011–12
B) 2017–18
C) 2020–21
D) 2022–23
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 2022–23
10. The revised ICI grew by what percentage year-on-year in June 2026?
A) 3%
B) 4%
C) 5%
D) 6%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 5%
11. Which sector was the major contributor to ICI growth, with a 43.9% increase?
A) Electricity
B) Cement
C) Iron ore production
D) Steel
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Iron ore production
12. In the revised ICI, which sector recorded the steepest decline?
A) Fertilisers (-3.3%)
B) Crude Oil (-4.2%)
C) Refinery Products (-4.7%)
D) Natural Gas (-7.4%)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Natural Gas (-7.4%)
13. Iron ore has been included as which core industry in the revised ICI?
A) Seventh
B) Eighth
C) Ninth
D) Tenth
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Ninth
14. What weight has been assigned to iron ore in the revised ICI?
A) 2.905%
B) 3.905%
C) 4.905%
D) 5.905%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 4.905%
15. In the revised ICI, which sector carries the highest weight?
A) Refinery Products
B) Electricity
C) Steel
D) Coal
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Electricity
16. The combined weight of the nine core industries in the IIP has been revised to:
A) 28.04%
B) 32.88%
C) 40.27%
D) 45.60%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 32.88%
17. In the earlier ICI series (Base Year 2011–12), how many core industries were covered?
A) Six
B) Seven
C) Eight
D) Nine
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Eight
18. Who has been appointed as Chairperson of the National Commission for Minorities (NCM) for a three-year term?
A) Harjit Singh Grewal
B) Iqbal Singh Lalpura
C) Syed Ghayorul Hasan Rizvi
D) Wajahat Habibullah
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Harjit Singh Grewal
19. The National Commission for Minorities (NCM) was established under which Act?
A) National Commission for Minorities Act, 1978
B) National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992
C) Minorities Welfare Act, 1995
D) National Minorities Development Act, 2001
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992
20. The interests of linguistic minorities, who are not covered under the NCM Act, are safeguarded by the Special Officer appointed under which Article?
A) Article 29
B) Article 30
C) Article 347
D) Article 350B
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Article 350B
21. Of the NCM’s seven members, how many, including the Chairperson, must belong to notified minority communities?
A) Three
B) Four
C) Five
D) Six
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Five
22. Which religious community was added to the list of notified minorities in 2014?
A) Buddhists
B) Parsis
C) Jains
D) Sikhs
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Jains
23. Mangal Pandey served as a soldier in which regiment of the British East India Company’s Army?
A) 19th Bengal Native Infantry
B) 34th Bengal Native Infantry
C) 45th Bengal Native Infantry
D) 5th Bengal Native Infantry
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 34th Bengal Native Infantry
24. The Barrackpore uprising led by Mangal Pandey took place on which date?
A) 10 May 1857
B) 29 March 1857
C) 8 April 1857
D) 19 July 1857
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 29 March 1857
25. The Enfield rifle controversy that triggered the 1857 uprising involved cartridges greased with:
A) Vegetable oil
B) Cow and pig fat
C) Mineral oil
D) Sheep fat
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Cow and pig fat
26. Construction of the Taj Mahal began in which year?
A) 1622 AD
B) 1632 AD
C) 1642 AD
D) 1648 AD
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 1632 AD
27. Who was the chief architect of the Taj Mahal?
A) Ustad Ahmad Lahori
B) Ustad Isa
C) Mir Abdul Karim
D) Amanat Khan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Ustad Ahmad Lahori
28. The Falkland Islands (Islas Malvinas) are located in which ocean?
A) Pacific Ocean
B) Indian Ocean
C) South Atlantic Ocean
D) Arctic Ocean
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) South Atlantic Ocean
29. In the 2013 Falkland Islands referendum, what percentage of voters chose to remain a British Overseas Territory?
A) 95.2%
B) 98.5%
C) 99.8%
D) 100%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 99.8%
30. Estonia, which hosted the recent India–Estonia Business Forum in Tallinn, became a member of NATO and the EU in which year?
A) 1991
B) 1999
C) 2004
D) 2010
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2004
31. India’s cotton cultivation area of approximately 12 million hectares represents what share of global cotton acreage?
A) Nearly 25%
B) Nearly 30%
C) Nearly 38%
D) Nearly 45%
Show Answer
Correct Answer : C) Nearly 38%
32. India is the only country to commercially cultivate all four domesticated cotton species, including which one representing American Upland cotton?
A) Gossypium arboreum
B) Gossypium herbaceum
C) Gossypium barbadense
D) Gossypium hirsutum
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Gossypium hirsutum
33. Genetically modified Bt cotton accounts for approximately what share of India’s cotton acreage?
A) 75–80%
B) 85–90%
C) 93–95%
D) 98–100%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 93–95%
34. Which zone contributes nearly 65–70% of India’s total cotton production?
A) Northern Zone
B) Central Zone
C) Southern Zone
D) Eastern Zone
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Central Zone
35. India’s average cotton yield is around how much per hectare, compared to the global average of approximately 770 kg/hectare?
A) 340 kg/hectare
B) 440 kg/hectare
C) 540 kg/hectare
D) 640 kg/hectare
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 440 kg/hectare
36. The Mission for Cotton Productivity (2026–31) aims to raise cotton production from 297 lakh bales to how many bales by 2031?
A) 398 lakh bales
B) 448 lakh bales
C) 498 lakh bales
D) 550 lakh bales
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 498 lakh bales
37. Which app facilitates Aadhaar registration, slot booking and payment tracking for cotton farmers under MSP operations?
A) Cott-Ally app
B) Kapas Kisan app
C) CCI Sahayak app
D) Kisan Suvidha app
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Kapas Kisan app
38. Kasturi Cotton Bharat, India’s global cotton branding initiative, uses which technology for traceability?
A) Biometric verification
B) QR codes and blockchain
C) Satellite tracking
D) RFID tagging only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) QR codes and blockchain
39. What is the Gen Z Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) in India, as highlighted in recent data?
A) 31.7%
B) 36.5%
C) 41.7%
D) 48.2%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 41.7%
40. India’s national Gen Z unemployment rate stands at 11.9%, rising sharply among female graduates to:
A) 22%
B) 29%
C) 33.5%
D) 36.9%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 36.9%
41. According to the data, more than how many sanctioned government posts remain vacant due to irregular recruitment cycles?
A) 10 lakh
B) 20 lakh
C) 30 lakh
D) 40 lakh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 30 lakh
42. Rapid AI adoption could place approximately what percentage of Indian jobs at risk of automation by 2030?
A) 14%
B) 18%
C) 24%
D) 30%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 24%
43. India’s working-age population ratio is projected to reach its peak around which year?
A) 2035
B) 2041
C) 2047
D) 2050
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 2041
44. Mission Golden Spice, launched by the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region, aims to promote which GI-tagged product?
A) Naga chilli
B) Lakadong turmeric
C) Sikkim large cardamom
D) Assam tea
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Lakadong turmeric
15. Mission Golden Spice follows a roadmap spanning which period?
A) 2024–2029
B) 2025–2030
C) 2026–2031
D) 2027–2032
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 2025–2030
46. Lakadong turmeric, cultivated in the Jaintia Hills of Meghalaya, is known for its curcumin content of:
A) 2–3%
B) 4–6%
C) 7–12%
D) 15–18%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 7–12%
47. Lakadong turmeric received its Geographical Indication (GI) tag in which year?
A) 2020
B) 2022
C) 2024
D) 2025
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2024
48. India accounts for over what share of global turmeric production, making it the world’s largest producer, consumer and exporter?
A) 50%
B) 60%
C) 70%
D) 80%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 70%
49. The EU Electrification Action Plan aims to raise the share of electricity in total energy consumption to 46% by which year?
A) 2030
B) 2035
C) 2040
D) 2050
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2040
50. The EU Electrification Action Plan targets the installation of how many heat pumps every year by 2030?
A) 2 million
B) 3 million
C) 4 million
D) 5 million
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 4 million
51. The EU ETS Review extends free emissions allowances for CBAM-covered sectors until which year?
A) 2032
B) 2035
C) 2038
D) 2040
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2038
52. Under the EU ETS Review, what minimum share of ETS revenues must be reinvested in decarbonisation projects?
A) 30%
B) 40%
C) 50%
D) 60%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 50%
53. The port of Odesa, where the MV GOLDEN LEO attack occurred, is located on the coast of which sea?
A) Caspian Sea
B) Black Sea
C) Sea of Azov
D) Baltic Sea
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Black Sea
54. The Kerch Strait, which connects the Sea of Azov with the Black Sea, separates the Kerch Peninsula from which peninsula?
A) Crimean Peninsula
B) Taman Peninsula
C) Balkan Peninsula
D) Iberian Peninsula
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Taman Peninsula
55. Methane forms an explosive mixture with air when its concentration is approximately in which range?
A) 1–3%
B) 5–15%
C) 20–30%
D) 35–45%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 5–15%
56. Methane is described as the second-largest contributor to global warming after which gas?
A) Nitrous oxide
B) Carbon dioxide (CO₂)
C) Sulphur dioxide
D) Ozone
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Carbon dioxide (CO₂)
57. Under the Kala Sanskriti Vikas Yojana (KSVY), what monthly financial assistance is provided to a Guru under the Guru-Shishya Parampara component?
A) ₹10,000
B) ₹15,000
C) ₹20,000
D) ₹25,000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) ₹15,000
58. Under KSVY’s Financial Assistance for Veteran Artists component, eligible artists above 60 years receive a monthly sustenance pension of:
A) ₹4,000
B) ₹6,000
C) ₹8,000
D) ₹10,000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) ₹6,000
59. At WAIC 2026 in Shanghai, 29 countries signed an agreement to establish which organisation?
A) Global AI Safety Council
B) World Artificial Intelligence Cooperation Organisation (WAICO)
C) International AI Governance Forum
D) AI for Humanity Alliance
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) World Artificial Intelligence Cooperation Organisation (WAICO)
60. Which country’s football team displayed a banner reviving the Falklands (Malvinas) sovereignty dispute during 2026 FIFA World Cup celebrations, and which film won Best Feature Film at the 72nd National Film Awards for 2024?
A) Brazil; Bhangaar
B) Argentina; Article 370
C) Argentina; Ram-Nami
D) Uruguay; Article 370
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Argentina; Article 370
61. India recorded how many internet shutdowns in 2025, ranking second globally?
A) 45
B) 55
C) 65
D) 75
Show Answer
Correct Answer : C) 65
62. Since 2016, India accounted for how many of the 2,102 recorded global internet shutdowns?
A) 720
B) 820
C) 920
D) 1020
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 920
63. Which section of the Telecommunications Act, 2023, along with the 2024 Rules, governs internet shutdowns in India?
A) Section 15(1)
B) Section 20(2)(b)
C) Section 25(3)
D) Section 30(1)(a)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Section 20(2)(b)
64. An internet shutdown order is limited to a maximum duration of how many days and must bereviewed by a Review Committee within how many days?
A) 7 days; 3 days
B) 15 days; 5 days
C) 30 days; 10 days
D) 10 days; 2 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 15 days; 5 days
65. In Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India (2020), the Supreme Court held that internet shutdowns must satisfy principles of necessity, proportionality and:
A) Judicial pre-approval
B) Least-restrictive means
C) Parliamentary consent
D) Unlimited duration
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Least-restrictive means
66. Which case recognised access to the Internet as part of the Right to Education and Right to Privacy under Article 21?
A) Bennett Coleman & Co. v. Union of India
B) Faheema Shirin v. State of Kerala
C) Indian Express Newspapers v. Union of India
D) Shreya Singhal v. Union of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Faheema Shirin v. State of Kerala
67. Under FCRA 2010, registered NGOs are prohibited from doing which of the following with foreign contributions?
A) Using them for approved programmes
B) Sub-granting or transferring them to another domestic organisation
C) Reporting them to the Ministry of Home Affairs
D) Maintaining separate bank accounts for them
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Sub-granting or transferring them to another domestic organisation
68. Under FCRA, administrative expenditure by an NGO is capped at what percentage of foreign contributions received?
A) 10%
B) 15%
C) 20%
D) 25%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 20%
69. Annual foreign philanthropic contributions to India have increased from approximately ₹10,000 crore to nearly how much over the past decade?
A) ₹15,000 crore
B) ₹18,000 crore
C) ₹22,000 crore
D) ₹28,000 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ₹22,000 crore
70. Of the six lakh voluntary organisations listed on NGO Darpan, only about how many have active FCRA registrations?
A) 9,500
B) 14,500
C) 20,000
D) 25,000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 14,500
71. Under Article X.9 of the Marrakesh Agreement, adding a new official plurilateral agreement to Annex 4 requires:
A) A simple majority vote
B) Two-thirds majority
C) Explicit consensus of all WTO members
D) Approval of the WTO Director-General
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Explicit consensus of all WTO members
72. Which of the following is an example of a Formal Plurilateral Agreement under Annex 4, rather than a Joint Statement Initiative?
A) E-commerce negotiations
B) Investment Facilitation for Development
C) Agreement on Government Procurement
D) Services Domestic Regulation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Agreement on Government Procurement
73. India has raised concerns that plurilateral agreements on e-commerce and investment could undermine which core WTO principle?
A) Most-Favoured Nation treatment
B) Consensus-based decision-making
C) National treatment
D) Tariff binding commitments
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Consensus-based decision-making
74. Under the amended EIA framework, which body has been created to perform the functions of the State Expert Appraisal Committee (SEAC) when it is non-functional?
A) Standing Authority on Environment Impact Assessment (SAEIA)
B) Standing Committee on Environment Impact Appraisal (SCEIA)
C) Central Empowered Committee
D) National Green Tribunal Panel
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Standing Committee on Environment Impact Appraisal (SCEIA)
75. Under the amended EIA framework, the interim backup bodies (SAEIA/SCEIA) will function for a maximum cumulative tenure of:
A) Six months
B) One year
C) Two years
D) Three years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) One year
76. The tenure of members of SEIAA, Central EAC and SEAC has been increased from three years to:
A) Four years
B) Five years
C) Six years
D) Seven years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Four years
77. Under the amended framework, if a SEAC fails to complete appraisal within how many days, the proposal automatically escalates to the SCEIA via the PARIVESH portal?
A) 90 days
B) 100 days
C) 120 days
D) 150 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 120 days
78. Gor Boli, whose inclusion in the Eighth Schedule has been demanded, is also known as:
A) Bhili
B) Lambadi
C) Gondi
D) Korku
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Lambadi
79. Gor Boli is primarily spoken by which community, believed to have originated from the Mewar region of Rajasthan?
A) Banjara community
B) Bhil community
C) Gond community
D) Santhal community
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Banjara community
80. The 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 added which languages to the Eighth Schedule?
A) Sindhi, Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali
B) Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali
C) Assamese, Kashmiri, Punjabi and Urdu
D) Sanskrit, Tamil, Telugu and Kannada
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali
81. The GREAT Scheme under the National Technical Textiles Mission provides a grant-in-aid of up to how much per start-up?
A) ₹25 lakh
B) ₹50 lakh
C) ₹75 lakh
D) ₹1 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) ₹50 lakh
82. Under the GREAT Scheme, funding support is available to a start-up for a period of:
A) 12 months
B) 18 months
C) 24 months
D) 36 months
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 18 months
83. The e200X (PT-01), India’s first full-scale eVTOL prototype, was developed by which startup incubated at IIT Madras?
A) Skyroot Aerospace
B) The ePlane Company
C) Agnikul Cosmos
D) Garuda Aerospace
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) The ePlane Company
84. The e200X (PT-01) eVTOL aircraft has an approximate range of:
A) 50 km
B) 80 km
C) 110 km
D) 150 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 110 km
85. NSE’s Nifty 500 Ahimsa Index was developed in collaboration with which organisation?
A) PETA India
B) Ahimsagain Foundation
C) World Wildlife Fund India
D) Animal Welfare Board of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Ahimsagain Foundation
86. President Droupadi Murmu’s visit to Chișinău marked India’s first-ever state visit by an Indian Head of State to which country?
A) Moldova
B) North Macedonia
C) Armenia
D) Georgia
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Moldova
87. Transnistria, a breakaway territory supported by Russia, is located between Ukraine and which country?
A) Romania
B) Moldova
C) Poland
D) Belarus
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Romania
88. North Macedonia officially adopted its current name in 2019 under which agreement with Greece?
A) Ohrid Agreement
B) Prespa Agreement
C) Skopje Accord
D) Balkan Pact
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Prespa Agreement
89. Lake Ohrid, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, is located on the border between North Macedonia and which country?
A) Bulgaria
B) Serbia
C) Albania
D) Kosovo
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Albania
90. ONGC Energy Centre has drilled India’s first and deepest geothermal wells, reaching 1,000 metres, at which location?
A) Chumathang, Ladakh
B) Puga Valley, Eastern Ladakh
C) Manikaran, Himachal Pradesh
D) Tattapani, Chhattisgarh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Puga Valley, Eastern Ladakh
91. The ‘Rome Declaration for an Unarmed and Disarming Peace’ calls for negotiating an international treaty primarily to prevent:
A) The spread of nuclear weapons to new states
B) Autonomous systems and AI from gaining access to nuclear weapons launch mechanisms
C) The militarisation of outer space
D) Cyberattacks on financial systems
Show Answer
Correct Answer : B) Autonomous systems and AI from gaining access to nuclear weapons launch mechanisms
92. The Rome Declaration draws inspiration from which encyclical of Pope Leo XIV?
A) Laudato Si
B) Magnifica Humanitas
C) Fratelli Tutti
D) Evangelii Gaudium
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Magnifica Humanitas
93. According to the Rome Declaration’s core principles, the ultimate decision to use nuclear weapons must remain under:
A) International Court of Justice oversight
B) Meaningful and accountable human control
C) UN Security Council veto power
D) Fully automated algorithmic control
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Meaningful and accountable human control
94. Under the declaration’s principle of ‘Protecting the Digital Commons,’ the risks created by advanced technologies should be treated as:
A) A matter confined to technologically advanced states
B) A collective global concern
C) A purely national security issue
D) A private-sector regulatory matter
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) A collective global concern
95. Under the declaration’s principle on responsible AI development, advanced AI systems must remain:
A) Fully autonomous and self-improving
B) Monitorable, auditable, controllable and interruptible
C) Free from human audit requirements
D) Exempt from cybersecurity assessments
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Monitorable, auditable, controllable and interruptible
96. The Rome Declaration urges nuclear-armed states to conduct internal security audits primarily to prevent:
A) Budget overruns in defence spending
B) AI-assisted cyber manipulation or tampering of nuclear-linked systems
C) Environmental damage from nuclear testing
D) Illegal arms trafficking
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) AI-assisted cyber manipulation or tampering of nuclear-linked systems
97. The Rome Declaration supports nuclear disarmament that is time-bound, irreversible and:
A) Unilateral
B) Verifiable
C) Conditional
D) Voluntary
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Verifiable
98. Project Kusha, recently tested by DRDO, refers to India’s indigenous:
A) Ballistic missile defence radar
B) Long-Range Surface-to-Air Missile (LR-SAM) system
C) Hypersonic cruise missile
D) Anti-satellite weapon system
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Long-Range Surface-to-Air Missile (LR-SAM) system
99. The Kusha air-defence system is being developed with capabilities comparable to which foreign systems?
A) China’s HQ-9 and France’s SAMP/T
B) Russia’s S-400 Triumf and the US MIM-104 Patriot
C) Israel’s Iron Dome and US THAAD
D) UK’s Sky Sabre and Germany’s IRIS-T
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Russia’s S-400 Triumf and the US MIM-104 Patriot
100. Under Project Kusha’s three-tier interceptor architecture, what is the maximum range of the M3 Interceptor?
A) 150 km
B) 250 km
C) 350–400 km
D) 500 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 350–400 km
101. What is the range of the M1 Interceptor under Project Kusha’s three-tier architecture?
A) 100 km
B) 150 km
C) 200 km
D) 250 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 150 km
102. Anurag Jain, recently appointed CEO of NITI Aayog, is an IAS officer of which cadre?
A) Uttar Pradesh cadre
B) Madhya Pradesh cadre
C) Rajasthan cadre
D) Bihar cadre
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Madhya Pradesh cadre
103. Anurag Jain has been appointed as NITI Aayog CEO for an initial tenure of:
A) One year
B) Two years
C) Three years
D) Five years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Two years
104. Anurag Jain succeeds which outgoing CEO of NITI Aayog?
A) Amitabh Kant
B) Rajiv Kumar
C) B.V.R. Subrahmanyam
D) Parameswaran Iyer
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) B.V.R. Subrahmanyam
105. The CEO of NITI Aayog is appointed through the approval of which body, chaired by the Prime Minister?
A) Union Public Service Commission
B) Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC)
C) Cabinet Committee on Security
D) Finance Commission
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC)
106. NITI Aayog stands for:
A) National Institution for Transforming India
B) National Investment and Trade Institution
C) New India Transformation Institute
D) National Innovation and Technology Institute
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) National Institution for Transforming India
107. The Tenzing Norgay National Adventure Award was instituted in which year?
A) 1988
B) 1993
C) 1998
D) 2001
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 1993
108. The Tenzing Norgay National Adventure Award is equivalent in stature to which other national award?
A) Padma Shri
B) Arjuna Award
C) Dronacharya Award
D) Bharat Ratna
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Arjuna Award
109. Which of the following is NOT one of the categories under the Tenzing Norgay National Adventure Award?
A) Land Adventure
B) Water (Sea) Adventure
C) Air Adventure
D) Space Adventure
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Space Adventure
110. Tenzing Norgay, along with Edmund Hillary, first summited Mount Everest in which year?
A) 1951
B) 1953
C) 1956
D) 1960
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 1953
111. The 16th BRICS Health Ministers’ Meeting, held during India’s BRICS Chairship 2026, took place in which city?
A) New Delhi
B) Chandigarh
C) Hyderabad
D) Bengaluru
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Chandigarh
112. The BRICS Health Ministerial Declaration adopted at the 16th meeting primarily aims to advance:
A) Vaccine manufacturing subsidies
B) Universal Health Coverage and pandemic preparedness
C) Medical tourism promotion
D) Cross-border health insurance
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Universal Health Coverage and pandemic preparedness
113. India’s first all-women tri-service sailing expedition, Samudra Pradakshina, was undertaken aboard which indigenous yacht?
A) INSV Tarini
B) IASV Triveni
C) INS Sagardhwani
D) INSV Mhadei
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) IASV Triveni
114. The Samudra Pradakshina expedition covered nearly how many nautical miles over 314 days?
A) 18,500
B) 21,000
C) 25,500
D) 30,000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 25,500
115. The Samudra Pradakshina expedition involved rounding which three capes?
A) Cape Comorin, Cape Town and Cape Verde
B) Cape Leeuwin, Cape Horn and Cape of Good Hope
C) Cape York, Cape Farewell and Cape Race
D) Cape Agulhas, Cape Blanco and Cape Wrath
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Cape Leeuwin, Cape Horn and Cape of Good Hope
116. The Gravity-1 (YinLi-1) rocket, developed by China’s Orienspace, is capable of placing up to how much payload into Low Earth Orbit?
A) 3.5 tonnes
B) 4.8 tonnes
C) 6.5 tonnes
D) 8.2 tonnes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 6.5 tonnes
117. National Broadcasting Day is observed annually on:
A) 15 July
B) 23 July
C) 1 August
D) 15 September
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 23 July
118. All India Radio was officially renamed Akashvani in which year?
A) 1936
B) 1947
C) 1956
D) 1965
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1956
119. Akashvani and Doordarshan function under Prasar Bharati, whose motto is:
A) Satyameva Jayate
B) Bahujan Hitaya: Bahujan Sukhaya
C) Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam
D) Yatha Dharma Tato Jayah
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Bahujan Hitaya: Bahujan Sukhaya
120. The National Olympiad Programme, coordinated by the Homi Bhabha Centre for Science Education (HBCSE), functions under which department?
A) Department of Science and Technology
B) Department of Atomic Energy (DAE)
C) Ministry of Education
D) Department of School Education and Literacy
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Department of Atomic Energy (DAE)
121. Sarnath has been inscribed as India’s how many-th UNESCO World Heritage Site?
A) 42nd
B) 43rd
C) 44th
D) 45th
Show Answer
Correct Answer : D) 45th
122. Sarnath was inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List during the 48th Session of the World Heritage Committee held in:
A) Japan
B) South Korea
C) China
D) Thailand
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) South Korea
123. Sarnath is the site where Gautama Buddha delivered his first sermon, known as:
A) Mahaparinirvana
B) Dhammachakkappavattana
C) Sambodhi
D) Nirvana Sutta
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Dhammachakkappavattana
124. Which of the following is NOT one of the four principal Buddhist pilgrimage sites?
A) Lumbini
B) Bodh Gaya
C) Sarnath
D) Nalanda
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Nalanda
125. The remains of Sarnath were rediscovered in 1787–88 by:
A) Alexander Cunningham
B) Jonathan Duncan
C) Babu Jagat Singh
D) Colonel Colin Mackenzie
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Babu Jagat Singh
126. Systematic archaeological excavations at Sarnath were carried out during 1834–1836 by:
A) Alexander Cunningham
B) John Marshall
C) Mortimer Wheeler
D) James Prinsep
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Alexander Cunningham
127. The Dhamek Stupa at Sarnath, noted for its Gupta-period carvings, dates largely to around which century?
A) 3rd century BCE
B) 1st century CE
C) 5th century CE
D) 11th century CE
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 5th century CE
128. The Dharmarajika Stupa at Sarnath was built during the reign of which emperor?
A) Chandragupta Maurya
B) Ashoka
C) Harshavardhana
D) Kanishka
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Ashoka
129. The Ashokan Pillar at Sarnath, erected around 250 BCE, is carved from a single block of:
A) Red sandstone
B) Chunar sandstone
C) Black basalt
D) White marble
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Chunar sandstone
130. The abacus of the Lion Capital at Sarnath depicts which four animals?
A) Tiger, Deer, Peacock, Cow
B) Bull, Horse, Elephant, Lion
C) Elephant, Camel, Horse, Goat
D) Lion, Tiger, Bear, Deer
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Bull, Horse, Elephant, Lion
131. The Lion Capital of Ashoka was adopted as the National Emblem of India in which year?
A) 1935
B) 1947
C) 1950
D) 1956
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1950
132. DISHA 2.0 stands for Designing Innovative Solutions for Holistic Access to Justice, approved with an outlay of:
A) ₹155 crore
B) ₹205 crore
C) ₹255 crore
D) ₹305 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ₹255 crore
133. DISHA 2.0 will be implemented across the period:
A) 2024–2029
B) 2025–2030
C) 2026–2031
D) 2027–2032
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2026–2031
134. Under DISHA 2.0, which component enables citizens to obtain pre-litigation legal advice through digital platforms?
A) Nyaya Bandhu
B) Tele-Law
C) VIDHI–Sanjeevani
D) LLLAP
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Tele-Law
135. Under DISHA 2.0’s Tele-Law component, community-based legal facilitators deployed in Aspirational Blocks are known as:
A) Nyaya Mitras
B) Nyaya Sahayaks
C) Vidhi Sevaks
D) Legal Sathis
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Nyaya Sahayaks
136. The Nyaya Bandhu (Pro Bono Legal Services) Programme primarily benefits persons eligible under which section of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987?
A) Section 9
B) Section 12
C) Section 15
D) Section 20
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Section 12
137. VIDHI–Sanjeevani, under DISHA 2.0, is the component responsible for:
A) Legal literacy campaigns
B) Technology-enabled monitoring
C) Advocate empanelment
D) Court infrastructure development
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Technology-enabled monitoring
138. DISHA 2.0 aims to reach approximately how many beneficiaries during its implementation period?
A) 25 lakh
B) 35 lakh
C) 50 lakh
D) 75 lakh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 50 lakh
139. BHAVYA Rasayan aims to establish how many dedicated Chemical Parks across India?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Three
140. What is the total financial outlay approved for the BHAVYA Rasayan Scheme?
A) ₹2,030 crore
B) ₹2,530 crore
C) ₹3,030 crore
D) ₹3,530 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ₹3,030 crore
141. Under BHAVYA Rasayan, the Central Government will provide grant-in-aid of up to how much for each Chemical Park?
A) ₹500 crore
B) ₹750 crore
C) ₹1,000 crore
D) ₹1,500 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ₹1,000 crore
142. Under BHAVYA Rasayan’s funding pattern, participating State Governments must contribute at least how much per park?
A) ₹250 crore
B) ₹500 crore
C) ₹750 crore
D) ₹1,000 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) ₹500 crore
143. Each proposed Chemical Park under BHAVYA Rasayan must have a minimum contiguous land area of:
A) 1,000 acres
B) 1,500 acres
C) 2,000 acres
D) 2,500 acres
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2,000 acres
144. The East Asia Summit (EAS) was launched in which year, with its first summit held in Kuala Lumpur?
A) 2002
B) 2005
C) 2008
D) 2011
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 2005
145. The 16th EAS Foreign Ministers’ Meeting attended by India’s External Affairs Minister was held in:
A) Jakarta
B) Bangkok
C) Manila
D) Singapore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Manila
146. The Black Sea is bordered by how many countries?
A) Four
B) Five
C) Six
D) Seven
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Six
147. Which strait connects the Black Sea to the Sea of Marmara?
A) Dardanelles Strait
B) Bosporus Strait
C) Kerch Strait
D) Strait of Gibraltar
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Bosporus Strait
148. The Montreux Convention of 1936, governing passage through the Turkish Straits, grants control over the Bosporus and Dardanelles to:
A) Greece
B) Turkey
C) Russia
D) Ukraine
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Turkey
149. ContactSeek, an AI tool improving DNA base editing precision, is powered by which Google AI model?
A) AlphaFold2
B) AlphaFold3
C) DeepMind Genesis
D) BioBERT
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) AlphaFold3
150. At the 2026 Commonwealth Games in Glasgow, Mirabai Chanu won gold in which weight category, securing her third consecutive individual Commonwealth gold?
A) 45 kg
B) 48 kg
C) 53 kg
D) 55 kg
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 48 kg
151. Pyrocumulonimbus (PyroCb) clouds, popularly called ‘fire clouds,’ have been metaphorically described by NASA as:
A) Smoke towers of the sky
B) Fire-breathing dragons of clouds
C) Storm engines of the atmosphere
D) Ash volcanoes in the air
Show Answer
Correct Answer : B) Fire-breathing dragons of clouds
152. PyroCb clouds can develop into thunderstorm-like formations when they grow to a height of around:
A) 2–5 km
B) 5–8 km
C) 10–15 km
D) 20–25 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 10–15 km
153. Which of the following is NOT listed as a reason PyroCb events are becoming more frequent?
A) Rising temperatures
B) Prolonged droughts
C) Increased volcanic activity
D) Longer wildfire seasons
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Increased volcanic activity
154. The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026 strengthens which existing legislation?
A) The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024
B) The Right to Education Act, 2009
C) The UGC Act, 1956
D) The Information Technology Act, 2000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024
155. Under the 2026 Amendment Bill, investigations by police, central agencies, or Special Task Forces must be completed within:
A) 30 days
B) 45 days
C) 60 days
D) 90 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 60 days
156. Under the Bill’s Special Fast Track Courts, trial proceedings must ordinarily be completed within how many months from the filing of the chargesheet?
A) One month
B) Two months
C) Three months
D) Six months
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Three months
157. Under the Bill’s provisions, appeals against bail, conviction, or sentence must ordinarily be filed within how many days, extendable up to 90 days?
A) 15 days
B) 30 days
C) 45 days
D) 60 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 30 days
158. Under the 2026 Amendment, appeals will be heard by which body?
A) A Single Judge Bench of the High Court
B) A Division Bench of the High Court
C) The Supreme Court directly
D) A Special Tribunal
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) A Division Bench of the High Court
159. Under the proposed 2026 amendment, the penalty for general offences has been increased from 3–5 years imprisonment to:
A) 4–6 years
B) 5–10 years
C) 7–12 years
D) 10–15 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 5–10 years
160. Who chairs the High-Powered Task Force on Examination Reforms announced alongside the 2026 Bill?
A) S. Somnath
B) V. Kamakoti
C) Nandan Nilekani
D) Amrit Lal Meena
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Nandan Nilekani
161. India’s participation in the 2026 Commonwealth Games in Glasgow marks its how many-th appearance at the Games?
A) 17th
B) 18th
C) 19th
D) 20th
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 19th
162. India first participated in the Commonwealth Games in which year?
A) 1930
B) 1934
C) 1948
D) 1954
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 1934
163. The Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS) was introduced in 2014 and revamped in which year?
A) 2016
B) 2017
C) 2018
D) 2019
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2018
164. KIRTI (Khelo India Rising Talent Identification) focuses on identifying sporting talent among children in which age group?
A) 6–14 years
B) 9–18 years
C) 12–20 years
D) 15–22 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 9–18 years
165. Under the long-term vision linked to KIRTI, India aims to become a Top-10 sporting nation by which year?
A) 2030
B) 2032
C) 2036
D) 2040
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2036
166. The Khelo India Scheme, launched in 2017, integrated three earlier programmes, including the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Abhiyan, Urban Sports Infrastructure Scheme and:
A) National Sports Talent Search Scheme
B) Panchayat Yuva Krida Abhiyan
C) SAI Training Centres Scheme
D) National Sports Development Fund
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) National Sports Talent Search Scheme
167. UNCITRAL was established in which year as a subsidiary body of the UN General Assembly?
A) 1956
B) 1961
C) 1966
D) 1972
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1966
168. Where is the headquarters of UNCITRAL located?
A) Geneva, Switzerland
B) Vienna, Austria
C) The Hague, Netherlands
D) New York, USA
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Vienna, Austria
169. How many Member States currently constitute UNCITRAL?
A) 50
B) 60
C) 70
D) 80
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 70
170. UNCITRAL members are elected by the UN General Assembly for a term of:
A) Three years
B) Four years
C) Five years
D) Six years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Six years
171. India is among how many countries that have maintained continuous membership in UNCITRAL since 1966?
A) Five
B) Six
C) Eight
D) Ten
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Eight
172. Which UNCITRAL legal instrument becomes legally binding on states that ratify or accede to it?
A) Model Laws
B) Legislative Guides
C) Conventions
D) Recommendations
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Conventions
173. BitChat, whose GitHub repositories were directed to be removed by I4C, primarily uses which technology for communication?
A) Satellite uplink
B) Bluetooth mesh networking
C) LoRa radio frequency
D) 5G direct connect
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Bluetooth mesh networking
174. The removal notice against BitChat repositories cited which provision of the IT Act, 2000, concerning intermediary liability?
A) Section 69A
17B) Section 79(3)(b)
C) Section 43A
D) Section 66C
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Section 79(3)(b)
175. Sri City, being considered for dry port status, is located in which district of Andhra Pradesh?
A) Nellore
B) Chittoor
C) Tirupati
D) Kadapa
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Tirupati
176. Under CBIC guidelines, new dry ports are generally restricted from being established within how many km of an existing seaport?
A) 100 km
B) 150 km
C) 200 km
D) 250 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 200 km
177. According to government figures, India’s chronic Hepatitis B burden is estimated at approximately:
A) 15.8 million cases
B) 22.4 million cases
C) 29.8 million cases
D) 35.2 million cases
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 29.8 million cases
178. The National Viral Hepatitis Control Programme (NVHCP), aligned with SDG Target 3.3, was launched
in which year?
A) 2015
B) 2017
C) 2018
D) 2020
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2018
179. India’s first indigenous expendable turbojet engine, in the 350-kg thrust class, was designed by which DRDO establishment?
A) Aeronautical Development Establishment (ADE)
B) Gas Turbine Research Establishment (GTRE)
C) Defence Avionics Research Establishment (DARE)
D) Vehicles Research and Development Establishment (VRDE)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Gas Turbine Research Establishment (GTRE)
180. NASA’s PRAXIS mission concept, selected for funding under the 2026 NIAC programme, is designed to investigate:
A) Exoplanet atmospheres
B) Planetary rings through in-situ sampling
C) Solar flare activity
D) Asteroid mining feasibility
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Planetary rings through in-situ sampling
181. The TV Ratings Policy, 2026 replaces the earlier guidelines governing television rating agencies that were notified in which year?
A) 2010
B) 2012
C) 2014
D) 2016
Show Answer
Correct Answer : C) 2014
182. Under the TV Ratings Policy, 2026, which body becomes the sole authority for registration, regulation and monitoring of TV rating agencies?
A) TRAI
B) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting (MIB)
C) Broadcasting Content Complaints Council
D) CBFC
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting (MIB)
183. Under the 2026 policy, the minimum net-worth requirement for TV rating agencies has been reduced from ₹20 crore to:
A) ₹2 crore
B) ₹5 crore
C) ₹10 crore
D) ₹15 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) ₹5 crore
184. Under the TV Ratings Policy, 2026, the minimum number of metered homes has been increased from 50,000 to at least:
A) 60,000
B) 70,000
C) 80,000
D) 1,00,000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 80,000
185. Under the TV Ratings Policy, 2026, what minimum percentage of directors on a rating agency’s board must be independent?
A) 25%
B) 33%
C) 40%
D) 50%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 33%
186. The TV Ratings Policy, 2026 requires rating agencies to comply with data-protection requirements under which law?
A) IT Act, 2000
B) Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023
C) Consumer Protection Act, 2019
D) Right to Information Act, 2005
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023
187. International Tiger Day is observed annually on which date?
A) 22 April
B) 5 June
C) 29 July
D) 3 March
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 29 July
188. The TX2 goal, committing to double the global wild tiger population by 2022, was adopted at the Saint Petersburg Tiger Summit held in which year?
A) 2008
B) 2010
C) 2012
D) 2015
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 2010
189. The Royal Bengal Tiger was declared India’s National Animal in which year?
A) 1968
B) 1972
C) 1980
D) 1988
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 1972
190. According to the All India Tiger Estimation (2022), India’s tiger population of 3,682 accounts for roughly what share of the world’s wild tiger population?
A) 50%
B) 60%
C) 70%
D) 80%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 70%
191. India’s tiger reserve network, spanning 58 reserves across 18 states, covers approximately what share of the country’s geographical area?
A) 1.5%
B) 2.56%
C) 3.8%
D) 5.2%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 2.56%
192. The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) and Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) were established as statutory bodies in which year?
A) 2002
B) 2004
C) 2006
D) 2008
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2006
193. Under Section 38V(3) of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, every State Government is required to prepare which document for each tiger reserve?
A) Wildlife Management Report
B) Tiger Conservation Plan
C) Ecological Impact Assessment
D) Species Recovery Plan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Tiger Conservation Plan
194. Which technology-enabled system is used for intensive protection and ecological monitoring of tigers in India?
A) CaTRAT
B) M-STrIPES
C) AITE
D) IBCA
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) M-STrIPES
195. The All India Tiger Estimation (AITE) is conducted in India every:
A) Two years
B) Three years
C) Four years
D) Five years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Four years
196. The Atal Beemit Vyakti Kalyan Yojana (ABVKY) is administered by which body?
A) Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO)
B) Employees’ State Insurance Corporation (ESIC)
C) National Skill Development Corporation
D) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Employees’ State Insurance Corporation (ESIC)
197. Under ABVKY, eligible beneficiaries can receive financial assistance equivalent to up to what percentage of their Average Daily Earnings?
A) 25%
B) 40%
C) 50%
D) 60%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 50%
198. Under ABVKY, unemployment relief can be claimed for a maximum cumulative period of how many days during a beneficiary’s lifetime?
A) 60 days
B) 90 days
C) 120 days
D) 180 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 90 days
199. ESIC has extended the operational period of ABVKY for one year, covering which period?
A) 1 April 2026 – 31 March 2027
B) 1 July 2026 – 30 June 2027
C) 1 January 2027 – 31 December 2027
D) 1 October 2026 – 30 September 2027
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 1 July 2026 – 30 June 2027
200. The Undavalli Caves, a rock-cut monument complex, are located in which district of Andhra Pradesh?
A) Krishna
B) Guntur
C) Prakasam
D) West Godavari
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Guntur
201. The Undavalli Caves date approximately to which period?
A) 2nd–3rd century CE
B) 4th–5th century CE
C) 7th–8th century CE
D) 10th–11th century CE
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 4th–5th century CE
202. The Undavalli Caves are primarily associated with the patronage of which dynasty?
A) Satavahana dynasty
B) Vishnukundina dynasty
C) Chalukya dynasty
D) Pallava dynasty
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Vishnukundina dynasty
203.The religious association of the Undavalli Caves is believed to have evolved through which sequence?
A) Hindu → Buddhist → Jain
B) Jain → Buddhist → Hindu
C) Buddhist → Jain → Hindu
D) Hindu → Jain → Buddhist
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Jain → Buddhist → Hindu
204. The Bab el-Mandeb Strait connects the Red Sea with the Gulf of Aden and lies between Yemen and which region?
A) North Africa
B) The Horn of Africa
C) The Levant
D) The Persian Gulf states
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) The Horn of Africa
205. At its narrowest point, the Bab el-Mandeb Strait is approximately how wide?
A) 10 km
B) 20 km
C) 30 km
D) 50 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 30 km
206. According to the U.S. Energy Information Administration, approximately how many barrels per day of crude oil and petroleum products passed through Bab el-Mandeb in 2023?
A) 5.3 million
B) 7.1 million
C) 9.3 million
D) 11.5 million
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 9.3 million
207. As per the BIMCO–ICS Seafarer Workforce Report 2026, India ranks as the second-largest global supplier of seafarers, behind:
A) China
B) Indonesia
C) The Philippines
D) Ukraine
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) The Philippines
208. Under ‘Mission 20%,’ the Indian Government aims to raise India’s share of the global seafarer workforce to:
A) 15%
B) 18%
C) 20%
D) 25%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 20%
209. Kyushu Island, struck by a magnitude 7.1 earthquake, is separated from Honshu by which strait?
A) Tsugaru Strait
B) Shimonoseki Strait
C) Tsushima Strait
D) La Perouse Strait
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Shimonoseki Strait
210. Kyushu Island has earned the nickname ‘Silicon Island’ due to its emergence as a major centre for:
A) Solar panel manufacturing
B) Semiconductor manufacturing
C) Robotics research
D) Battery production
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Semiconductor manufacturing
211. Union Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan resigned amid nationwide protests over which controversy, bringing political accountability into focus?
A) UPSC recruitment scam
B) NEET-UG paper-leak controversy
C) CBSE exam leak
D) AIIMS admission scam
Show Answer
Correct Answer : B) NEET-UG paper-leak controversy
212. In NCT of Delhi v. Union of India (2023), the Supreme Court highlighted the ‘triple chain of accountability.’ Which of the following correctly represents this chain?
A) Legislatures → Ministers → Civil servants
B) Civil servants → Ministers → Legislatures → Electorate
C) Electorate → Legislatures → Ministers
D) Judiciary → Legislature → Executive
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Civil servants → Ministers → Legislatures → Electorate
213. Collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers to Parliament is ensured under which Article of the Constitution?
A) Article 74(2)
B) Article 75(3)
C) Article 76(1)
D) Article 78(3)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Article 75(3)
214. Which of the following is a constitutional body providing independent institutional oversight in India?
A) Central Vigilance Commission
B) Lokpal
C) Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)
D) Right to Information Commission
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)
215. Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF) is described as a ‘drop-in’ fuel because:
A) It requires entirely new aircraft engines
B) It can be used within existing aircraft and airport fuelling infrastructure within approved blend limits
C) It is dropped directly into aircraft tanks mid-flight
D) It replaces jet fuel completely without blending
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) It can be used within existing aircraft and airport fuelling infrastructure within approved blend limits
216. SAF can reduce lifecycle CO2 emissions, depending on feedstock and production pathway, by up to:
A) 50%
B) 65%
C) 80%
D) 95%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 80%
217. Current certification generally permits blending of SAF with conventional jet fuel up to what percentage?
A) 20%
B) 35%
C) 50%
D) 75%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 50%
218. SAF currently constitutes what share of global aviation fuel consumption?
A) Less than 1%
B) About 3%
C) About 5%
D) About 10%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Less than 1%
219. Which SAF production pathway uses lipid-based feedstocks such as used cooking oil and animal fats?
A) Alcohol-to-Jet (AtJ)
B) Fischer-Tropsch (FT)
C) Hydroprocessed Esters and Fatty Acids (HEFA)
D) Power-to-Liquid (PtL)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Hydroprocessed Esters and Fatty Acids (HEFA)
220. Which SAF production pathway uses green hydrogen and captured CO2 to produce synthetic aviation fuels?
A) Alcohol-to-Jet (AtJ)
B) Fischer-Tropsch (FT)
C) HEFA
D) Power-to-Liquid (PtL) / E-Fuels
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Power-to-Liquid (PtL) / E-Fuels
221. As per India’s SAF blending roadmap for international flights, what is the targeted blending percentage for 2030?
A) 1%
B) 2%
C) 5%
D) 10%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 5%
222. CORSIA, a global market-based mechanism for international aviation emissions, was developed under which organisation?
A) IATA
B) ICAO
C) UNFCCC
D) IMO
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) ICAO
223. Under CORSIA, the current baseline for carbon-neutral growth is linked to what share of 2019 sectoral emissions?
A) 70%
B) 75%
C) 85%
D) 100%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 85%
224. India’s position on CORSIA reflects emphasis on which principle?
A) Polluter Pays Principle
B) Common but Differentiated Responsibilities (CBDR)
C) Precautionary Principle
D) Sustainable Development Principle
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Common but Differentiated Responsibilities (CBDR)
225. India abstained from voting on which ILO Convention concerning labour protections for digital platform and gig workers?
A) ILO Convention No. 189
B) ILO Convention No. 190
C) ILO Convention No. 193
D) ILO Convention No. 198
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ILO Convention No. 193
226. Under the proposed ILO Convention on gig work, employment status should be determined primarily by:
A) Contractual labels used by platforms
B) The actual nature of the working relationship
C) Length of service with the platform
D) Worker’s self-declaration alone
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) The actual nature of the working relationship
227. Spain’s Riders’ Law, 2021, presumes which category of workers to be employees?
A) Ride-hailing drivers
B) Digitally managed delivery riders
C) Freelance software developers
D) Warehouse workers
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Digitally managed delivery riders
228. California’s Proposition 22 retains app-based drivers largely as:
A) Full-time employees
B) Independent contractors
C) Government workers
D) Unionised staff
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Independent contractors
229. Singapore’s Platform Workers Act, effective from 2025, provides protections without necessarily requiring:
A) Minimum wage guarantees
B) Reclassification as conventional employees
C) Work-injury compensation
D) Retirement contributions
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Reclassification as conventional employees
230. Which Indian legislation formally recognised gig workers and platform workers as distinct categories at the central level for the first time?
A) Industrial Disputes Act
B) Code on Social Security, 2020
C) Minimum Wages Act
D) Contract Labour Act
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Code on Social Security, 2020
231. Which state enacted the Platform-Based Gig Workers Act, 2023, funded through a transaction-based cess?
A) Karnataka
B) Telangana
C) Rajasthan
D) Kerala
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Rajasthan
232. India’s Index of Industrial Production (IIP) grew by what percentage in June 2026, its strongest growth in 23 months?
A) 5.1%
B) 6.2%
C) 7.3%
D) 8.5%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 7.3%
233. Under the 10th Revision of IIP, the base year has been revised from 2011–12 to:
A) 2018–19
B) 2020–21
C) 2022–23
D) 2023–24
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2022–23
234. The revised IIP now uses which index for deflation, replacing the earlier Wholesale Price Index-based method?
A) Consumer Price Index (CPI)
B) Output Producer Price Index (OPPI)
C) GDP Deflator
D) Core Inflation Index
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Output Producer Price Index (OPPI)
235. In the revised IIP, which sector constitutes the largest component with a weight of 76.1%?
A) Mining & Quarrying
B) Electricity & Gas Supply
C) Manufacturing
D) Water Supply & Waste Management
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Manufacturing
236.The Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) was originally established on 27 July 1939 as the:
A) Imperial Police Force
B) Crown Representative’s Police
C) Central Armed Constabulary
D) Indian Reserve Police
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Crown Representative’s Police
237. CoBRA, a specialised CRPF unit, is primarily trained for:
A) VIP protection
B) Jungle warfare and anti-Naxal operations
C) Border guarding
D) Riot control
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Jungle warfare and anti-Naxal operations
238. Which Central Armed Police Force is responsible for guarding India’s border with Bangladesh?
A) CISF
B) ITBP
C) BSF
D) SSB
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) BSF
239. The Himalayan Chandra Telescope at Hanle, Ladakh, has been capable of real-time remote operation from the IIA campus at Hosakote, Bengaluru, using a satellite link provided by:
A) NASA
B) ISRO (INSAT-3B)
C) DRDO
D) ESA
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) ISRO (INSAT-3B)
240. The MISHTI scheme, under which Andhra Pradesh secured second place among states, focuses on the restoration of which ecosystem?
A) Coral reefs
B) Mangroves
C) Wetlands
D) Grasslands
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Mangroves
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