Practice the July 2026 Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the forth week of July 2026.
The Current Affairs Quiz of 1 to 7 July features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.
1st Week of July 2026: Current Affairs Quiz
1. The ‘Flamingo Revolution’ is a protest movement currently taking place in:
A) Greece
B) Albania
C) Montenegro
D) North Macedonia
Show Answer
Correct Answer : B) Albania
2. The Flamingo Revolution was initially triggered by a proposed luxury tourism project worth:
A) US$500 million
B) US$1 billion
C) US$1.6 billion
D) US$2.5 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) US$1.6 billion
3. The proposed luxury project in Albania threatens habitats of which of the following?
A) Flamingos, Mediterranean monk seals, and sea turtles
B) Pelicans, dolphins, and loggerhead turtles
C) Storks, grey wolves, and brown bears
D) Lynx, otters, and migratory birds
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Flamingos, Mediterranean monk seals, and sea turtles
4. Natura 2000, the European Union’s largest network of protected areas, was established under the Birds Directive (1979) and:
A) Water Framework Directive (2000)
B) Habitats Directive (1992)
C) Environmental Impact Assessment Directive (1985)
D) Marine Strategy Framework Directive (2008)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Habitats Directive (1992)
5. Albania is relevant to the Flamingo Revolution protests because it holds the status of:
A) A full EU member state
B) A NATO-excluded Balkan nation
C) An EU candidate country negotiating accession
D) A signatory to the Schengen Agreement only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) An EU candidate country negotiating accession
6. The SUMAN Roadmap 2030 is built upon which existing government initiative?
A) Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY)
B) Surakshit Matritva Aashwasan (SUMAN)
C) LaQshya Programme
D) Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Surakshit Matritva Aashwasan (SUMAN)
7. The SDG Target 3.1 for Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) aims to reduce it below:
A) 50 per 100,000 live births
B) 70 per 100,000 live births
C) 100 per 100,000 live births
D) 140 per 100,000 live births
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 70 per 100,000 live births
8. A maternal death is defined as the death of a woman while pregnant or within how many days of termination of pregnancy?
A) 28 days
B) 30 days
C) 42 days
D) 60 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 42 days
9. The Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA), which provides free antenatal care, is conducted on which date of every month?
A) 1st
B) 5th
C) 9th
D) 15th
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 9th
10. LaQshya (2017) focuses on improving quality of care specifically in:
A) Community Health Centres and Sub-Centres
B) Labour rooms and Maternity operation theatres
C) District hospitals and Medical colleges
D) ASHA worker training and ANM services
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Labour rooms and Maternity operation theatres
11. PMMVY 2.0 under Mission Shakti provides an additional cash incentive for the second child if:
A) The family is below the poverty line
B) It is a girl child
C) The mother has undergone institutional delivery
D) The child is born in a government hospital
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) It is a girl child
12. Śāstrārtha literally means:
A) Knowledge of the Vedas
B) Discussion on scriptures
C) Recitation of sacred texts
D) Commentary on grammar
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Discussion on scriptures
13. The ancient Nalanda University was founded in 427 CE by:dia’s:
A) Chandragupta II
B) Samudragupta
C) Emperor Kumaragupta I
D) Harshavardhana
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Emperor Kumaragupta I
14. The modern Nalanda University was established by Parliament through the:
A) Nalanda University Act, 2006
B) Nalanda University Act, 2010
C) Ancient Universities Restoration Act, 2012
D) National Education Heritage Act, 2014
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Nalanda University Act, 2010
15. Which former President of India proposed reviving the ancient Nalanda University in 2006?
A) K.R. Narayanan
B) Pratibha Patil
C) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
D) Pranab Mukherjee
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
16. Project BRAHMANK of the Border Roads Organisation (BRO) is headquartered in:
A) Tawang, Arunachal Pradesh
B) Ranaghat, East Siang district, Arunachal Pradesh
C) Dibrugarh, Assam
D) Itanagar, Arunachal Pradesh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Ranaghat, East Siang district, Arunachal Pradesh
17. The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) was established in:
A) 1947
B) 1950
C) 1960
D) 1965
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1960
18. The motto of the Border Roads Organisation (BRO) is:
A) ‘Kartavya Param Dharma’
B) ‘Shramena Sarvam Sadhyam’
C) ‘Seva aur Nishtha’
D) ‘Param Vir Bhavam’
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) ‘Shramena Sarvam Sadhyam’
19. Delhi’s EV Policy 2.0 targets 100% transition to zero-emission transport by:
A) 31 December 2027
B) 1 April 2028
C) 31 March 2030
D) 31 December 2030
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 31 March 2030
20. Delhi EV Policy 2.0 gives priority to Battery Electric Vehicles (BEVs) over strong hybrids because BEVs are:
A) Cheaper to purchase than hybrids
B) True zero-tailpipe emission vehicles with greater environmental benefits
C) Eligible for more government subsidies under FAME II
D) Easier to maintain due to simpler engine design
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) True zero-tailpipe emission vehicles with greater environmental benefits
21. Delhi’s EV Policy 2.0 plans to establish how many public EV charging points across the city?
A) 10,000+
B) 20,000+
C) 30,000+
D) 50,000+
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 30,000+
22. National Statistics Day is observed annually on 29 June to commemorate the birth anniversary of:
A) C.R. Rao
B) Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis
C) P.V. Sukhatme
D) D.R. Gadgil
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis
23. The theme of National Statistics Day 2026 was:
A) ‘Statistical Literacy for All’
B) ‘Data for Sustainable Development’
C) ‘Unlocking the Potential of Administrative Data’
D) ‘Evidence-Based Governance in the Digital Age’
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ‘Unlocking the Potential of Administrative Data’
24. P.C. Mahalanobis is credited with developing the ‘Mahalanobis Distance’, which is a widely used measure in:
A) Time-series econometric analysis
B) Multivariate statistics
C) Agricultural yield estimation
D) Demographic transition modelling
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Multivariate statistics
25. The Indian Statistical Institute (ISI), founded by P.C. Mahalanobis, was established in:
A) 1921
B) 1925
C) 1931
D) 1940
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1931
26. A ‘Unicorn’ in the startup ecosystem is defined as a privately held startup valued at:
A) US$100 million or more
B) US$500 million or more
C) US$1 billion or more before IPO
D) US$10 billion or more before listing
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) US$1 billion or more before IPO
27. According to the Hurun Global Unicorn Index 2026, India ranked __ globally with 61 unicorns.
A) 2nd
B) 3rd
C) 4th
D) 5th
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 4th
28. In the Hurun Global Unicorn Index 2026, which sector overtook FinTech as the largest growth driver?
A) CleanTech
B) EdTech
C) Artificial Intelligence (AI)
D) E-commerce
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Artificial Intelligence (AI)
29. India’s ‘Unicorn Capital’ as per the Hurun Global Unicorn Index 2026 is:
A) Mumbai
B) Hyderabad
C) Pune
D) Bengaluru
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Bengaluru
30. Which of the following CORRECTLY describes Track 1.5 Diplomacy?
A) Fully formal government-to-government negotiations at ministerial level
B) Semi-official dialogue combining government officials in unofficial capacity with non-government experts
C) Grassroots people-to-people engagement through NGOs and cultural groups
D) Informal dialogues exclusively between retired military officers
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Semi-official dialogue combining government officials in unofficial capacity with non-government experts
31. The UN Charter was signed on 26 June 1945 and entered into force on:
A) 26 June 1945
B) 24 October 1945
C) 1 January 1946
D) 15 August 1947
Show Answer
Correct Answer : B) 24 October 1945
32. How many countries originally signed the UN Charter?
A) 44
B) 50
C) 51
D) 57
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 50
33. India signed the UN Charter in June 1945 as:
A) The Dominion of India
B) British India
C) The Indian National Congress delegation
D) Independent India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) British India
34. Under Article 27 of the UN Charter, the veto power can block the adoption of:
A) All resolutions including procedural ones
B) Substantive (non-procedural) resolutions only
C) UNGA resolutions only
D) ICJ rulings only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Substantive (non-procedural) resolutions only
35. Which principal organ of the UN has remained inactive since completing its mandate?
A) ECOSOC
B) International Court of Justice
C) Trusteeship Council
D) Secretariat
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Trusteeship Council
36. The principle of ‘sovereign equality of all Member States’ is enshrined under which Article of the UN Charter?
A) Article 1
B) Article 2
C) Article 27
D) Article 51
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Article 2
37. The VB-G-RAM-G Act came into effect on 1 July 2026, replacing which legislation?
A) National Rural Livelihoods Mission Act
B) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)
C) Rural Employment Generation Programme Act
D) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana Act
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)
38. Under VB-G-RAM-G, how many days of wage employment are assured annually to eligible rural households?
A) 100 days
B) 110 days
C) 120 days
D) 125 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 125 days
39. The uniform interim base wage under VB-G-RAM-G is:
A) ₹200 per day
B) ₹250 per day
C) ₹300 per day
D) ₹350 per day
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ₹300 per day
40. Wage rates under VB-G-RAM-G will be revised annually from 1 April based on:
A) GDP deflator
B) Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
C) Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW)
D) Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Labourers (CPI-AL)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Labourers (CPI-AL)
41. Under VB-G-RAM-G, State Governments may suspend works for a maximum of how many days during peak agricultural seasons?
A) 30 days
B) 45 days
C) 60 days
D) 90 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 60 days
42. Under VB-G-RAM-G, if employment is not provided within how many days of demand, the State must pay an unemployment allowance?
A) 7 days
B) 10 days
C) 15 days
D) 30 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 15 days
43. The principle of audi alteram partem, underlying the right to legal defence, means:
A) ‘He who acts must take responsibility’
B) ‘Hear the other side’
C) ‘No one should be a judge in their own cause’
D) ‘Let the action stand’
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) ‘Hear the other side’
44. Under the BNSS 2023, which Section provides every accused the right to be defended by a legal practitioner of their choice?
A) Section 304
B) Section 320
C) Section 340
D) Section 350
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Section 340
45. In A.S. Mohammed Rafi v. State of Tamil Nadu (2010), the Supreme Court declared that Bar Association resolutions preventing advocates from representing particular accused persons are:
A) Valid if supported by a two-thirds majority
B) Unconstitutional and unenforceable
C) Valid in cases involving heinous crimes
D) Subject to review by the Bar Council of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Unconstitutional and unenforceable
46. In Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar (1979), the Supreme Court recognised free legal aid as an integral part of which Fundamental Right?
A) Article 14
B) Article 19
C) Article 21
D) Article 32
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Ranaghat, East Siang district, Arunachal Pradesh
47. Article 22(3) excludes which categories from the safeguards available under Article 22(1)?
A) Persons accused of economic offences and foreigners
B) Enemy aliens and persons detained under preventive detention laws
C) Persons arrested without warrant and diplomatic staff
D) Foreign nationals and stateless persons
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Enemy aliens and persons detained under preventive detention laws
48. The Gram Sabha is a constitutional institution established under which Amendment?
A) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976
B) 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978
C) 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992
D) 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992
49. Article 243(b) defines the Gram Sabha as comprising all persons whose names appear on the electoral rolls of the village falling under which institution?
A) District Panchayat
B) Block Panchayat
C) Village Panchayat
D) Gram Nyayalaya
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Village Panchayat
50. The NITI Aayog report on Gram Sabha participation was prepared by which institution?
A) Institute of Rural Management, Anand (IRMA)
B) National Institute of Rural Development and Panchayati Raj (NIRD&PR)
C) Centre for Policy Research
D) Tata Institute of Social Sciences
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) National Institute of Rural Development and Panchayati Raj (NIRD&PR)
51. The Telecom Authorisation Rules, 2026 replace the regulatory framework established under which legislation?
A) Information Technology Act, 2000
B) Indian Wireless Telegraphy Act, 1933
C) Indian Telegraph Act, 1885
D) Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Indian Telegraph Act, 1885
52. Under the Telecom Authorisation Rules, 2026, each authorisation will remain valid for a maximum of:
A) 10 years
B) 15 years
C) 20 years
D) 25 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 20 years
53. Under the Telecommunications Act, 2023, the Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF) has been renamed:
A) BharatNet Digital Fund
B) Digital Bharat Nidhi
C) National Connectivity Fund
D) Telecom Development Fund
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Digital Bharat Nidhi
54. Penalties for SIM card fraud under the Telecom Authorisation Rules, 2026 include imprisonment of up to three years and a fine of up to:
A) ₹10 lakh
B) ₹25 lakh
C) ₹50 lakh
D) ₹1 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ₹50 lakh
55. As per the SDG-NIF Progress Report 2026, India’s unemployment rate declined from 6.1% (2017–18) to what level in 2025?
A) 2.5%
B) 3.1%
C) 4.2%
D) 5.0%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 3.1%
56. The SDG-NIF 2026 comprises how many national indicators covering all 17 SDGs?
A) 231
B) 248
C) 277
D) 312
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 277
57. As per the SDG-NIF Progress Report 2026, India’s internet subscriptions expanded from 302 million (2015) to approximately how many in 2025?
A) 650 million
B) 800 million
C) 900 million
D) 969 million
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 969 million
58. The National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) was established in:
A) 2012
B) 2013
C) 2015
D) 2017
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2015
59. The Government of India holds what percentage equity stake in NIIF?
A) 26%
B) 49%
C) 51%
D) 74%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 49%
60. The National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) is structured as a Public Private Partnership with the Government of India holding what percentage equity?
A) 26%
B) 49%
C) 51%
D) 74%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 49%
61. According to OECD data, fifteen-year-olds spend an average of how many hours per day on digital devices?
A) 4 hours
B) 5 hours
C) 6 hours
D) 7 hours
Show Answer
Correct Answer : D) 7 hours
62. What fraction of children aged 11–15 years remain continuously connected to social media, as per OECD data?
A) One-fifth
B) One-fourth
C) One-third
D) One-half
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) One-third
63. A key concern about children circumventing social media bans is their migration to unregulated platforms via VPNs, potentially exposing them to:
A) Higher data charges and privacy costs
B) Online grooming, extremist content, and unsafe environments
C) Government surveillance and data profiling
D) Reduced access to educational resources
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Online grooming, extremist content, and unsafe environments
64. Critics of blanket social media bans argue that regulatory efforts should focus on:
A) Increasing the minimum age of platform access to 21 years
B) Improving platform accountability and digital literacy
C) Mandating biometric verification for all users
D) Banning smartphones in schools nationwide
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Improving platform accountability and digital literacy
65. The risk of widening the digital divide due to restrictive social media policies is particularly pronounced in:
A) G7 countries
B) Developing countries with limited digital infrastructure
C) Countries with high smartphone penetration
D) Urban populations with high-speed internet access
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Developing countries with limited digital infrastructure
66. The Civil Registration System (CRS) Report 2024 was released by:
A) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
B) NITI Aayog
C) Office of the Registrar General of India (RGI)
D) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Office of the Registrar General of India (RGI)
67. The Civil Registration System (CRS) in India operates under which legislation?
A) Census Act, 1948
B) Registration of Births and Deaths (RBD) Act, 1969 (amended 2023)
C) Vital Statistics Act, 1986
D) National Population Register Act, 2003
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Registration of Births and Deaths (RBD) Act, 1969 (amended 2023)
68. India’s national Sex Ratio at Birth (SRB) as per the CRS Report 2024 stands at:
A) 896 females per 1,000 males
B) 917 females per 1,000 males
C) 933 females per 1,000 males
D) 950 females per 1,000 males
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 917 females per 1,000 males
69. Which state recorded the highest Sex Ratio at Birth as per the CRS Report 2024?
A) Kerala
B) Meghalaya
C) Mizoram
D) Arunachal Pradesh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Arunachal Pradesh
70. The subject of birth and death registration in India falls under which List of the Constitution?
A) Union List
B) State List
C) Concurrent List
D) Residuary List
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Concurrent List
71. Of the 81,117 stillbirths registered in India during 2024, approximately what percentage were reported from urban areas?
A) 45%
B) 55%
C) 69%
D) 75%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 69%
72. CRS Report 2024 indicates India achieved what percentage registration of births and deaths for the first time?
A) 90%
B) 95%
C) 97%
D) Over 99%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Over 99%
73. The World Bank’s Climate Change Action Plan (CCAP) was launched in:
A) 2015
B) 2019
C) 2021
D) 2023
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2021
74. The CCAP target for climate co-benefits was increased from 35% to 45% during:
A) COP26 in Glasgow
B) COP27 in Sharm el-Sheikh
C) COP28 in Dubai
D) COP29 in Baku
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) COP28 in Dubai
75. The five key sectors targeted under the World Bank’s GRID approach together account for more than what percentage of global greenhouse gas emissions?
A) 70%
B) 80%
C) 90%
D) 95%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 90%
76. Since July 2023, all new lending operations by IBRD and IDA must be consistent with the objectives of the Paris Agreement and each country’s:
A) National Climate Fund commitments
B) Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs)
C) Biennial Transparency Reports (BTRs)
D) Green Finance Taxonomy
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs)
77. Country Climate and Development Reports (CCDRs), introduced under the CCAP, have been prepared for how many economies?
A) 50
B) 68
C) 93
D) 120
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 93
78. The World Bank’s decision to discontinue fixed CCAP financing quotas replaces them with:
A) Mandatory sector-specific carbon pricing requirements
B) An outcome-based approach for measuring climate and development performance
C) Country-level carbon budgets reviewed every five years
D) A carbon credits marketplace for borrowing countries
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) An outcome-based approach for measuring climate and development performance
79. SHE-LEAPS stands for:
A) Self-Help Entrepreneur–Livelihoods and Enterprise Application for Prosperity and Sustainability
B) Sustainable Home-based Enterprises–Livelihood Empowerment and Advancement Programme and Scheme
C) Self-Help Empowerment–Livelihood and Enterprise Access Platform and System
D) Strengthening Her Entrepreneurship–Livelihood, Enterprise, and Prosperity Scheme
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Self-Help Entrepreneur–Livelihoods and Enterprise Application for Prosperity and Sustainability
80. The SHE-LEAPS mobile application was developed by:
A) National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC)
B) Digital India Corporation
C) National Rural Livelihoods Mission IT Division
D) Common Service Centres (CSC) e-Governance Services India Limited
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Digital India Corporation
81. The SHE-LEAPS platform operates through which national digital ecosystem?
A) DigiLocker Platform
B) UMANG Platform
C) LokOS Platform
D) MyGov Platform
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) LokOS Platform
82. SHE-LEAPS was launched during which event?
A) National Rural Development Conclave
B) Rashtriya Gramin Vikas Sammelan
C) Rural India Summit 2026
D) PM Grameen Uday Mela
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Rashtriya Gramin Vikas Sammelan
83. The Lakhpati Didi Mission, supported by SHE-LEAPS, aims to enable SHG women to earn an annual household income of at least:
A) ₹50,000
B) ₹75,000
C) ₹1,00,000
D) ₹1,50,000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ₹1,00,000
84. The Yamuna Water Project involves an underground pipeline of approximately how many kilometres?
A) 200 km
B) 248 km
C) 295 km
D) 350 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 295 km
85. The Yamuna Water Project pipeline extends from the Hathnikund Barrage (Haryana) to which reservoir in Rajasthan?
A) Bisalpur Reservoir
B) Ramgarh Reservoir
C) Hansiyawas Reservoir, Churu district
D) Jawai Reservoir
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Hansiyawas Reservoir, Churu district
86. The water transfer under the Yamuna Water Project will deliver approximately how much water annually?
A) 350 MCM
B) 450 MCM
C) 520 MCM
D) 577 MCM
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 577 MCM
87. The Yamuna Water Project operationalises the 1994 Upper Yamuna Basin Water Sharing Agreement, which was originally signed by five parties. Which state was added as a signatory after its formation in 2000?
A) Himachal Pradesh
B) Jharkhand
C) Uttarakhand
D) Chhattisgarh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Uttarakhand
88. The water-transfer window under the Yamuna Water Project is restricted to monsoon months of:
A) June to September
B) July to October
C) June to August
D) August to November
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) July to October
89. The Yamuna Water Project will be implemented through a dedicated entity called:
A) Yamuna River Development Authority
B) Rajasthan–Haryana Yamuna Water Project SPV
C) Inter-State River Water Project Corporation
D) National Water Transfer Authority
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Rajasthan–Haryana Yamuna Water Project SPV
90. The Shekhawati region of Rajasthan, the primary beneficiary of the Yamuna Water Project, is characterised as:
A) A flood-prone semi-arid zone
B) A water-scarce region with low rainfall and limited groundwater
C) A region with surplus canal irrigation
D) An area with high groundwater recharge rates
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) A water-scarce region with low rainfall and limited groundwater
91. The India–Japan Annual Summit was instituted in which year?
A) 2000
B) 2004
C) 2006
D) 2008
Show Answer
Correct Answer : C) 2006
92. India and Japan elevated their relationship to a ‘Special Strategic and Global Partnership’ in:
A) 2008
B) 2010
C) 2012
D) 2014
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 2014
93. The UNICORN system, a milestone in India-Japan defence cooperation signed at the 16th Summit, refers to:
A) Unmanned Integrated Combat Operations and Reconnaissance Network
B) Unified Complex Radio Antenna stealth communication mast
C) Universal Naval Command and Operations Remote Node
D) Underwater Navigation and Intelligence Coordination System
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Unified Complex Radio Antenna stealth communication mast
94. The India–Japan Civil Nuclear Cooperation Agreement (2016) is historically significant because Japan became the first country to enter a civil nuclear agreement with:
A) A country without a civilian nuclear programme
B) A non-signatory to the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)
C) A country under US-imposed nuclear sanctions
D) A developing nation with active missile programmes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) A non-signatory to the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)
95. The India-Japan CEPA, operational since 2011, provides tariff liberalisation on approximately what percentage of traded goods?
A) 75%
B) 85%
C) 94%
D) 99%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 94%
96. ISRO and JAXA are jointly developing which mission to explore the Moon’s south polar region?
A) Chandrayaan-4
B) SLIM-2
C) LUPEX (Lunar Polar Exploration)
D) Artemis-India Gateway
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) LUPEX (Lunar Polar Exploration)
97. The Acquisition and Cross-Servicing Agreement (ACSA) between India and Japan, signed in 2020, primarily facilitates:
A) Joint weapons development
B) Reciprocal logistics support
C) Intelligence sharing
D) Joint patrolling of maritime zones
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Reciprocal logistics support
98. The bilateral Army exercise between India and Japan is called:
A) JIMEX
B) Veer Guardian
C) Dharma Guardian
D) Malabar
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Dharma Guardian
99. Japan’s position as a provider of Official Development Assistance (ODA) to India is notable for financing which flagship infrastructure project?
A) Delhi-Mumbai Industrial Corridor
B) Mumbai-Ahmedabad High-Speed Rail Corridor
C) Sagarmala Port Development Programme
D) DMIC Smart Cities
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Mumbai-Ahmedabad High-Speed Rail Corridor
100. The LLM development agreement under the 16th India-Japan Summit involves collaboration between IIT Bombay’s BharatGen and Japan’s National Institute of Informatics, along with Sarvam AI and:
A) SoftBank AI Labs
B) RIKEN Institute
C) Preferred Networks
D) Fujitsu Research
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Preferred Networks
101. PMKSY was launched in:
A) 2012–13
B) 2013–14
C) 2015–16
D) 2016–17
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2015–16
102. The vision of PMKSY is encapsulated in the slogan:
A) ‘Jal Hai Toh Kal Hai’
B) ‘Har Khet Ko Pani, More Crop Per Drop’
C) ‘Sinchai Har Khet, Unnati Har Haath’
D) ‘Pani Bachao, Fasal Badhao’
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) ‘Har Khet Ko Pani, More Crop Per Drop’
103. The ‘Per Drop More Crop (PDMC)’ component of PMKSY primarily promotes:
A) Construction of large dams and reservoirs
B) Micro-irrigation technologies like drip and sprinkler systems
C) Canal-based irrigation in arid regions
D) Watershed development in hilly areas
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Micro-irrigation technologies like drip and sprinkler systems
104. The Accelerated Irrigation Benefit Programme (AIBP), integrated under PMKSY, falls under which Ministry?
A) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
B) Ministry of Rural Development
C) Ministry of Jal Shakti
D) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Ministry of Jal Shakti
105. As of its 11-year review, PMKSY has benefited over how many farmers?
A) 10 million
B) 18 million
C) 27 million
D) 35 million
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 27 million
106. NavIC was formerly known as:
A) Indian Regional Positioning System (IRPS)
B) Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS)
C) Indian Navigation and Timing Satellite (INTS)
D) ISRO GPS System (IGS)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS)
107. The baseline NavIC constellation consists of how many satellites in total?
A) 5 (3 GEO + 2 IGSO)
B) 7 (3 GEO + 4 IGSO)
C) 8 (4 GEO + 4 IGSO)
D) 9 (5 GEO + 4 IGSO)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 7 (3 GEO + 4 IGSO)
108. NavIC provides navigation and timing services across India and up to how many kilometres beyond India’s boundaries?
A) 500 km
B) 1,000 km
C) 1,500 km
D) 2,000 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1,500 km
109. GAGAN was jointly developed by ISRO and:
A) Ministry of Civil Aviation
B) Airports Authority of India (AAI)
C) Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA)
D) National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Airports Authority of India (AAI)
110. GAGAN is historically significant as the first Satellite-Based Augmentation System certified for use in which geographical zone?
A) Polar region
B) Temperate region
C) Equatorial region
D) Sub-Arctic region
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Equatorial region
111. The SHE-LEAPS platform operates through which national digital ecosystem?
A) DigiLocker Platform
B) UMANG Platform
C) LokOS Platform
D) MyGov Platform
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) LokOS Platform
112. SHE-LEAPS was launched during which event?
A) National Rural Development Conclave
B) Rashtriya Gramin Vikas Sammelan
C) Rural India Summit 2026
D) PM Grameen Uday Mela
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Rashtriya Gramin Vikas Sammelan
113. The Borjuli Wetland was declared a BHS owing to its status as a habitat for Oryza rufipogon, which is the:
A) Wild progenitor of cultivated rice
B) Medicinal wild relative of wheat
C) Endangered aquatic grass species
D) Source of bio-fertilizer compounds
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Wild progenitor of cultivated rice
114. A key distinction between a Biodiversity Heritage Site and a National Park is that a BHS declaration:
A) Requires Supreme Court approval
B) Does not normally affect ownership rights or ban traditional livelihoods
C) Automatically converts the area into a Ramsar site
D) Prohibits all human activity within the area
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Does not normally affect ownership rights or ban traditional livelihoods
115. The theme of the 29th National Conference on e-Governance (NCeG) 2026 was:
A) ‘Digital India: Empowering Citizens’
B) ‘Viksit Bharat 2047: AI-enabled, Data-driven and Secure Digital Governance’
C) ‘Governance 4.0: AI and Blockchain for Public Services’
D) ‘Smart India: Building Digital Infrastructure for 2030’
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) ‘Viksit Bharat 2047: AI-enabled, Data-driven and Secure Digital Governance’
116. The 29th NCeG 2026 adopted which declaration?
A) New Delhi Declaration on e-Governance 2026
B) Jaipur Declaration on e-Governance 2026
C) Rajasthan Compact on Digital Governance
D) Viksit Bharat Digital Charter 2026
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Jaipur Declaration on e-Governance 2026
117. SAMADHAN DIDI, showcased at NCeG 2026, is an AI-powered multilingual voice chatbot developed in collaboration with:
A) DigiLocker
B) MeitY’s AI Division
C) BHASHINI
D) IndiaAI Mission
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) BHASHINI
118. Mission Karmayogi is described as the Government of India’s flagship programme for:
A) Digitising land records across all states
B) Civil services capacity-building for a citizen-centric public workforce
C) Expanding broadband connectivity to gram panchayats
D) Training ASHA workers in digital health reporting
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Civil services capacity-building for a citizen-centric public workforce
119. The Academic Bank of Credits (ABC) is established by the Ministry of Education and regulated by:
A) AICTE
B) UGC
C) NAAC
D) Ministry of Skill Development
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) UGC
120. The ABC platform is integrated with which system that provides every learner a unique lifelong academic identity?
A) DigiLocker
B) NAD (National Academic Depository)
C) APAAR (Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry)
D) SWAYAM
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) APAAR (Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry)
121. The ASPIRE Scheme was launched by the Ministry of MSME in:
A) 2012
B) 2013
C) 2015
D) 2017
Show Answer
Correct Answer : C) 2015
122. ASPIRE stands for:
A) A Scheme for Promoting Innovation, Rural Industry and Entrepreneurship
B) A Scheme for Promotion of Innovation, Rural Industry and Entrepreneurship
C) Advancement Scheme for Promoting Incubation, Rural Innovation and Entrepreneurship
D) A Scheme for Promoting Integrated Rural Entrepreneurship
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) A Scheme for Promotion of Innovation, Rural Industry and Entrepreneurship
123. The core component of the ASPIRE Scheme is:
A) Technology Business Incubators (TBIs)
B) Rural Startup Funds (RSFs)
C) Livelihood Business Incubators (LBIs)
D) Agri-Innovation Clusters (AICs)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Livelihood Business Incubators (LBIs)
124. The ASPIRE Fund, which provides indirect equity support to startups through AIFs, has a corpus of:
A) ₹100 crore
B) ₹200 crore
C) ₹310 crore
D) ₹500 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ₹310 crore
125. The ASPIRE Fund is managed by:
A) NABARD
B) SIDBI
C) MUDRA Bank
D) NSDC
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) SIDBI
126. Under ASPIRE, a startup may receive seed capital assistance of up to:
A) ₹5 lakh
B) ₹10 lakh
C) ₹20 lakh
D) ₹50 lakh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ₹20 lakh
127. Achieving the Viksit Bharat 2047 vision is estimated to require investments of nearly:
A) ₹85 lakh crore
B) ₹125 lakh crore
C) ₹185 lakh crore
D) ₹250 lakh crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ₹185 lakh crore
128. Under the PPP 2.2 framework, ‘Capital Recycling’ involves using which existing mechanisms?
A) Special Purpose Vehicles (SPVs) and PPP concession agreements
B) InvITs and the Toll–Operate–Transfer (TOT) model
C) NABARD Rural Infrastructure Bonds and State Development Loans
D) Sovereign Green Bonds and Municipal Bonds
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) InvITs and the Toll–Operate–Transfer (TOT) model
129. The ‘Dynamic Loan Repricing’ pillar of PPP 2.2 proposes revising loan interest rates downward once projects become operational because:
A) Construction risk diminishes, reducing the overall risk profile
B) Government guarantees automatically kick in post-construction
C) RBI mandates lower rates for infrastructure projects after 5 years
D) Foreign investors require lower rates for long-tenor bonds
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Construction risk diminishes, reducing the overall risk profile
130. The Asset-Liability Mismatch problem in infrastructure financing arises because commercial banks primarily mobilise short-term deposits while infrastructure projects need financing over:
A) 5–10 years
B) 10–15 years
C) 20–30 years
D) 40–50 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 20–30 years
131. PPP 2.2 proposes mobilising global long-term capital by targeting a share of an estimated how much managed by global long-term investment institutions?
A) US$50 trillion
B) US$80 trillion
C) US$110 trillion
D) US$150 trillion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) US$110 trillion
132. The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) was established in:
A) 1947
B) 1950
C) 1957
D) 1962
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1957
133. DRI functions under:
A) Ministry of Home Affairs
B) Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC), Department of Revenue
C) Ministry of External Affairs
D) National Investigation Agency (NIA)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC), Department of Revenue
134. DRI derives its enforcement powers primarily from:
A) Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002
B) Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985
C) Customs Act, 1962
D) Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Customs Act, 1962
135. The DRI serves as the nodal agency for which inter-agency intelligence coordination mechanism?
A) COIN (Customs Overseas Intelligence Network)
B) S-CORD (Smuggling in India Coordination Centre)
C) NATGRID
D) MAC (Multi Agency Centre)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) S-CORD (Smuggling in India Coordination Centre)
136. The Customs Overseas Intelligence Network (COIN), operated by DRI, is intended to:
A) Deploy DRI officers in Indian embassies abroad
B) Exchange customs intelligence with foreign counterparts for cross-border investigations
C) Monitor cryptocurrency transactions for customs duty evasion
D) Coordinate with Interpol on narcotics smuggling only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Ex change customs intelligence with foreign counterparts for cross border investigations
137. The National Green Hydrogen Mission (NGHM) was launched in:
A) 2021
B) 2022
C) 2023
D) 2024
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2023
138. Under NGHM’s targets for 2030, India aims to produce at least how many million metric tonnes of green hydrogen annually?
A) 1 MMT
B) 3 MMT
C) 5 MMT
D) 10 MMT
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 5 MMT
139. GAGAN was jointly developed by ISRO and:
A) Ministry of Civil Aviation
B) Airports Authority of India (AAI)
C) Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA)
D) National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Airports Authority of India (AAI)
140. GAGAN is historically significant as the first Satellite-Based Augmentation System certified for use in which geographical zone?
A) Polar region
B) Temperate region
C) Equatorial region
D) Sub-Arctic region
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Equatorial region
141. Green hydrogen currently costs approximately how much per kilogram, compared to grey hydrogen at US$1.5–2/kg?
A) US$2.5/kg
B) US$3/kg
C) US$4/kg
D) US$6/kg
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) US$4/kg
142. Electrolysis requires approximately how much purified water to produce one kilogram of green hydrogen?
A) 3 litres
B) 6 litres
C) 9 litres
D) 12 litres
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 9 litres
143. . India’s sovereign credit ratings from Fitch and Moody’s place it at the:
A) Mid-investment grade
B) Lowest investment-grade category
C) Upper speculative grade
D) Two notches above investment grade
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Lowest investment-grade category
144. The ‘issuer-pays model’ in credit rating agencies creates a potential concern because:
A) Governments may refuse to pay for ratings, leading to unsolicited assessments
B) The entity seeking the rating bears the cost, potentially compromising rating
independence
C) Small companies cannot afford to get rated, creating market distortions
D) Ratings are only valid for one year under this model
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) The entity seeking the rating bears the cost, potentially compromising rating independence
145. The ‘Sovereign Ceiling Effect’ means that a low sovereign credit rating:
A) Prevents the government from issuing bonds in international markets
B) Restricts domestic companies’ ability to obtain higher ratings than the sovereign
C) Automatically triggers IMF intervention in the domestic bond market
D) Disqualifies the country from World Bank lending
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Restricts domestic companies’ ability to obtain higher ratings than the sovereign
146. India’s interest payments consume approximately what percentage of the Central Government’s revenue receipts?
A) 20%
B) 30%
C) 40%
D) 50%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 40%
147. Credit rating agencies in India are regulated under:
A) RBI (Credit Rating Agencies) Guidelines, 2004
B) SEBI (Credit Rating Agencies) Regulations, 1999
C) Companies Act, 2013
D) IRDA (Rating Agencies) Rules, 2005
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) SEBI (Credit Rating Agencies) Regulations, 1999
148. Under CERT-In Cyber Security Directions, 2022, commercial VPN providers must retain subscriber information for:
A) 90 days
B) 1 year
C) 3 years
D) 5 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 5 years
149. Under the existing regulatory framework, VPN providers must report specified cybersecurity incidents to CERT-In within:
A) 2 hours
B) 6 hours
C) 24 hours
D) 72 hours
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 6 hours
150. ICT system logs must be preserved by VPN providers for:
A) 90 days
B) 120 days
C) 180 days
D) 365 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 180 days
151. India’s per capita annual water availability declined from 1,816 m³ in 2001 to approximately how much in 2025?
A) 1,000 m³
B) 1,200 m³
C) 1,400 m³
D) 1,600 m³
Show Answer
Correct Answer : C) 1,400 m³
152. The internationally recognised threshold for ‘absolute water scarcity’ is:
A) 500 m³ per person per year
B) 1,000 m³ per person per year
C) 1,500 m³ per person per year
D) 1,700 m³ per person per year
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 1,000 m³ per person per year
153. The Central Ground Water Board (CGWB) has identified how many groundwater assessment units as over-exploited?
A) 250
B) 480
C) 730
D) 1,000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 730
154. According to NITI Aayog, how many major cities are projected to face critical groundwater depletion (‘Day Zero’)?
A) 10
B) 21
C) 35
D) 50
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 21
155. Out of India’s 15 major river basins, how many fall below the internationally accepted water stress threshold of 1,700 m³ per capita annually?
A) 7
B) 9
C) 11
D) 13
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 11
156. The Atal Bhujal Yojana (Atal Jal) primarily promotes:
A) Surface irrigation through canal expansion
B) Community-led groundwater management in water-stressed regions
C) Construction of inter-State river linking projects
D) Flood management and drainage improvement
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Community-led groundwater management in water-stressed regions
157. The India–Israel Bilateral Investment Agreement (BIA) came into force on:
A) 15 January 2026
B) 1 April 2026
C) 4 July 2026
D) 15 August 2026
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 4 July 2026
158. The BIA is significant as the first investment agreement signed by an OECD member country under India’s revised:
A) Foreign Exchange Management framework
B) Model Bilateral Investment Treaty (BIT) framework
C) Make in India FDI Policy framework
D) Model Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Model Bilateral Investment Treaty (BIT) framework
159. Under the India–Israel BIA, investors may initiate international arbitration after exhausting domestic remedies for how many years?
A) 1 year
B) 2 years
C) 3 years
D) 5 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 3 years
160. The India–Israel BIA explicitly excludes the Most-Favoured-Nation (MFN) clause primarily to prevent:
A) Bilateral trade imbalances
B) Treaty shopping by investors claiming benefits under third-country agreements
C) Foreign investment in sensitive sectors
D) Indian companies from investing in Israel’s defence industry
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Treaty shopping by investors claiming benefits under third country agreements
161. Under the India–Israel BIA, National Treatment protection does NOT extend to which sector?
A) Defence manufacturing
B) Pharmaceutical industry
C) Land and real estate
D) Banking and financial services
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Land and real estate
162. India and Israel formalised full diplomatic relations in:
A) 1950
B) 1966
C) 1992
D) 2000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1992
163. The I2U2 Group, which includes India and Israel, also comprises:
A) UK and UAE
B) USA and UAE
C) USA and EU
D) UK and USA
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) USA and UAE
164. The proposed governance model for Ladakh advocates for Article 371-like safeguards rather than extending the Sixth Schedule. The key reason is that Article 371 provisions:
A) Can be implemented without a constitutional amendment
B) Provide greater flexibility and work through the existing administrative structure without creating Autonomous District Councils
C) Allow Ladakh to retain its Union Territory status permanently
D) Are more easily revocable if security conditions require
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Provide greater flexibility and work through the existing administrative structure without creating Autonomous District Councils
165. Ladakh became a Union Territory without a legislature in:
A) 2018
B) 2019
C) 2020
D) 2021
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 2019
166. The special provisions under Articles 371 to 371J are contained in which Part of the Indian Constitution?
A) Part XVIII
B) Part XIX
C) Part XX
D) Part XXI
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Part XXI
167. Which of the following states is NOT covered under the Article 371 special provisions?
A) Nagaland
B) Mizoram
C) West Bengal
D) Sikkim
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) West Bengal
168. India’s total fish production grew from approximately 95.79 lakh tonnes in FY 2013–14 to how much in FY 2024–25?
A) 120 lakh tonnes
B) 155 lakh tonnes
C) 175 lakh tonnes
D) 197.75 lakh tonnes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 197.75 lakh tonnes
169. Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kisan Samridhi Sah-Yojana (PM-MKSSY) is implemented during which period?
A) 2020–21 to 2023–24
B) 2021–22 to 2024–25
C) 2023–24 to 2026–27
D) 2024–25 to 2028–29
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2023–24 to 2026–27
170. The Kisan Credit Card (KCC) lending limit for fisheries and allied activities has been increased to:
A) ₹1 lakh
B) ₹2 lakh
C) ₹3 lakh
D) ₹5 lakh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) ₹5 lakh
171. The Large Hadron Collider (LHC) entered Long Shutdown 3 (LS3) in 2026 and is expected to resume operations as the HL-LHC in:
A) 2027
B) 2028
C) 2029
D) 2030
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 2030
172. The LHC is operated by which organisation?
A) NASA
B) ESA
C) CERN
D) ITER
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) CERN
173. The discovery of the Higgs boson at the LHC was confirmed in:
A) 2008
B) 2010
C) 2012
D) 2015
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2012
174. The superconducting magnets of the LHC are cooled using superfluid helium to a temperature of approximately:
A) 0 Kelvin
B) 1.9 Kelvin (−271.3°C)
C) 4.2 Kelvin (−268.9°C)
D) 77 Kelvin (−196°C)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 1.9 Kelvin (−271.3°C)
175. The HL-LHC aims to increase the particle collision rate by approximately:
A) Two times
B) Five times
C) Ten times
D) Twenty times
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Ten times
176. Which of the following is a unique property of the Higgs boson?
A) Carries the strong nuclear force
B) Has zero spin (Spin-0), no electric charge, and no colour charge
C) It is the lightest known elementary particle
D) It was first theorised by Einstein in 1915
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Has zero spin (Spin-0), no electric charge, and no colour charge
177. SOLVE, tested by ISRO for the Gaganyaan Mission, stands for:
A) Satellite Orbiting Launch Vehicle for Experiments
B) Sub-Orbital Launch Vehicle for Experiments
C) Staged Orbital Landing Validation Experiment
D) Space Operations Launch Validation Engine
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Sub-Orbital Launch Vehicle for Experiments
178. The SOLVE vehicle carries the Crew Module to an altitude of approximately:
A) 5–10 km
B) 10–17 km
C) 50–100 km
D) 200–300 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 10–17 km
179. The SOLVE propulsion system uses a modified solid motor derived from PSLV’s strap-on boosters and employs which flight control technique?
A) Thrust Vector Control by gimballed nozzle
B) Secondary Injection Thrust Vector Control (SITVC)
C) Reaction Control System (RCS) thrusters
D) Cold-gas attitude control system
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Secondary Injection Thrust Vector Control (SITVC)
180. Radiocarbon (Carbon-14) dating can reliably estimate the age of organic materials up to approximately:
A) 10,000 years
B) 25,000 years
C) 60,000 years
D) 1,00,000 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 60,000 years
Download Free PDF
Download the July 2026 1st Week Current Affairs Quiz PDF to easily access all questions and answers.
Study Current Affairs of July 1st Week
For a detailed understanding of the major events from the 1st week of July 2026, visit our comprehensive current affairs page. It covers all significant news and developments, providing essential insights to help you stay informed and well-prepared for exams or discussions.
1 July to 7 July (Weekly Current Affairs)
Try Current Affairs Quiz of Other Weeks
| 1 July to 7 July (Weekly Current Affairs Quiz) |
Day-wise Current Affairs Quizzes of July 2025
| 7 July 2026 Current Affairs Quiz | 6 July 2026 Current Affairs Quiz |
| 4 July 2026 Current Affairs Quiz | 3 July 2026 Current Affairs Quiz |
| 2 July 2026 Current Affairs Quiz | 1 July 2026 Current Affairs Quiz |