Practice the July 2026 Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the forth week of July 2026.
The Current Affairs Quiz of 8 to 14 July features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.
2nd Week of July 2026: Current Affairs Quiz
1. The Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM) working paper on Unconditional Cash Transfers (UCTs) found that by FY 2025–26, approximately how many women were covered under women-focused cash transfer schemes?
A) 5 crore
B) 8 crore
C) 12 crore
D) 20 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer : C) 12 crore
2. Maharashtra recorded approximately what percentage growth in household expenditure following women-centric UCT transfers?
A) 18%
B) 28%
C) 36%
D) 46%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 46%
3. The EAC-PM paper recommends a ‘Cash-Plus’ approach, which means:
A) Increasing the cash amount by 10% annually
B) Combining cash transfers with skill development, financial literacy, and social services for long-term empowerment
C) Replacing cash with in-kind transfers such as food grains and LPG cylinders
D) Restricting UCTs to women below the poverty line only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Combining cash transfers with skill development, financial literacy, and social services for long-term empowerment
4. A key fiscal risk identified by the RBI regarding women UCT schemes is that the combined debt of States is projected to reach approximately what percentage of GDP in 2025–26?
A) 22.5%
B) 25.8%
C) 29.2%
D) 33.4%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 29.2%
5. Brazil’s globally recognised women-focused conditional cash transfer programme is:
A) Oportunidades
B) GiveDirectly
C) Bolsa Família
D) Bono Desarrollo Humano
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Bolsa Família
6. The Ministry of Cooperation was established on:
A) 6 July 2019
B) 6 July 2020
C) 6 July 2021
D) 6 July 2022
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 6 July 2021
7. The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011, which granted constitutional status to cooperatives, inserted which Article into the Constitution?
A) Article 19(1)(c) was expanded
B) Article 43B was inserted in Part IV (DPSPs)
C) Part IX-B was inserted along with Article 43B
D) Article 29A was inserted for cooperative societies
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Part IX-B was inserted along with Article 43B
8. India has approximately how many registered cooperative societies, accounting for more than one-fourth of the global cooperative network?
A) 2.5 lakh
B) 5 lakh
C) 8.58 lakh
D) 12 lakh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 8.58 lakh
9. The National Cooperation Policy, 2025 aims to triple the cooperative sector’s contribution to GDP by:
A) 2030
B) 2032
C) 2034
D) 2047
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2034
10. Dairy cooperatives in India procure approximately what percentage of organised milk production?
A) 25%
B) 35%
C) 50%
D) 65%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 50%
11. The cooperative sector’s share in institutional agricultural credit has fallen from approximately 64% in 1992 to around what level currently?
A) 9%
B) 18%
C) 25%
D) 32%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) 9%
12. The PACS Computerisation Project under cooperative sector reforms covers approximately how many Primary Agricultural Credit Societies?
A) 20,000
B) 40,000
C) 60,000
D) 80,000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 80,000
13. The Right to Vote in India currently derives its constitutional foundation from:
A) Article 19(1)(a)
B) Article 21
C) Article 326
D) Article 329
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Article 326
14. Section 62 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 prescribes:
A) Qualifications for enrolment in the electoral roll
B) Eligibility and conditions for exercising the right to vote
C) Disqualification of candidates for corrupt practices
D) Powers and functions of the Election Commission
Show Answer
Correct AnswB) Eligibility and conditions for exercising the right to vote
15. In N.P. Ponnuswami v. Returning Officer (1952), the Supreme Court held that electoral rights are:
A) Fundamental Rights under Article 21
B) Constitutional rights under Article 326
C) Purely statutory rights
D) Common law rights enforceable in any civil court
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Purely statutory rights
16. In Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India (2023), a concurring opinion suggested that the right to vote may deserve stronger constitutional protection. The principal issue in this case was:
A) Delimitation of parliamentary constituencies
B) Validity of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs)
C) Appointment of Election Commissioners
D) Rejection of nomination papers
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Appointment of Election Commissioners
17. Which Article of the Constitution bars courts from interfering in electoral matters except through election petitions?
A) Article 324
B) Article 326
C) Article 327
D) Article 329
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Article 329
18. The Ministry that directed Meta to pause the WhatsApp Username Feature rollout in India is:
A) Ministry of Home Affairs
B) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
C) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
D) Ministry of Law and Justice
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
19. Section 66C of the IT Act, 2000 punishes:
A) Publishing obscene material in electronic form
B) Identity theft through fraudulent use of electronic signatures or unique identification
C) Hacking into computer systems
D) Sending offensive messages through communication services
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Identity theft through fraudulent use of electronic signatures or unique identification
20. Under IT Rules 2021, Significant Social Media Intermediaries (SSMIs) are required to appoint which three officials?
A) CEO, CFO, and Compliance Officer
B) Chief Compliance Officer, Nodal Contact Person, and Resident Grievance Officer
C) Data Protection Officer, Legal Counsel, and User Safety Head
D) Trust and Safety Officer, Privacy Officer, and Government Liaison Officer
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Chief Compliance Officer, Nodal Contact Person, and Resident Grievance Officer
21. The 250th anniversary of US Independence is termed the ‘Semiquincentennial’. The Declaration of Independence was adopted by:
A) The First Continental Congress
B) The Second Continental Congress
C) The Constitutional Convention
D) The Articles of Confederation Assembly
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) The Second Continental Congress
22. The Declaration of Independence was primarily drafted by:
A) George Washington
B) Benjamin Franklin
C) John Adams
D) Thomas Jefferson
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Thomas Jefferson
23. The Boston Tea Party (1773) was a colonial protest against:
A) The Quartering Act
B) The Intolerable Acts
C) British taxation under the slogan ‘No taxation without representation’
D) The Proclamation of 1763 restricting westward expansion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) British taxation under the slogan ‘No taxation without representation’
24. e-MERLIN is an array of how many radio telescopes interconnected across Great Britain?
A) Four
B) Five
C) Seven
D) Nine
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Seven
25. The e-MERLIN array is operated from:
A) Cambridge University Observatory
B) Jodrell Bank Observatory
C) Royal Greenwich Observatory
D) Armagh Observatory
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Seven
26. The e-MERLIN array is operated from:
A) Cambridge University Observatory
B) Jodrell Bank Observatory
C) Royal Greenwich Observatory
D) Armagh Observatory
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Jodrell Bank Observatory
27. The LINK spacecraft deployed in the Swift Boost Mission functions as:
A) A replacement for the ageing Swift Observatory
B) An autonomous robotic servicing spacecraft acting as a space tug to reposition satellites
C) A debris removal spacecraft designed to de-orbit defunct satellites
D) A crewed servicing vehicle similar to Space Shuttle missions
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) An autonomous robotic servicing spacecraft acting as a space tug to reposition satellites
28. The Neil Gehrels Swift Observatory, launched in 2004, is primarily dedicated to studying:
A) Exoplanets and their atmospheres
B) Solar flares and coronal mass ejections
C) Gamma-ray bursts (GRBs) and high-energy astronomical phenomena
D) Cosmic microwave background radiation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Gamma-ray bursts (GRBs) and high-energy astronomical phenomena
29. Cape Verde (Republic of Cabo Verde) is located approximately 600 km west of which African country?
A) Ghana
B) Guinea-Bissau
C) Senegal
D) Mauritania
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Senegal
30. RIMPAC 2026 is the __ edition of the exercise and is themed ‘Partners: Integrated and Prepared.’
A) 25th
B) 27th
C) 30th
D) 33rd
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 30th
31. India and Indonesia established diplomatic relations in:
A) 1945
B) 1947
C) 1949
D) 1955
Show Answer
Correct Answer : C) 1949
32. India and Indonesia elevated their relationship to a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership in:
A) 2014
B) 2016
C) 2018
D) 2020
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2018
33. The highest civilian award of Indonesia, conferred upon PM Modi, is called:
A) Order of the Rising Sun
B) Bintang Mahaputra Utama
C) Bintang Adipurna
D) Bintang Jasa Utama
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Bintang Adipurna
34. The Prambanan Temple Compounds, for whose restoration India provided ASI support, is located in:
A) Bali Island
B) Sumatra Island
C) Java Island – Yogyakarta
D) Kalimantan (Borneo)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Java Island – Yogyakarta
35. Indonesia possesses approximately what percentage of the world’s nickel reserves, making it strategically important for critical mineral supply chains?
A) 7%
B) 12%
C) 15%
D) 21%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 21%
36. The ‘Tagore–Dewantara Year’ of cultural diplomacy (2026–2027) marks the centenary of Rabindranath Tagore’s visit to Indonesia in:
A) 1924
B) 1925
C) 1927
D) 1929
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1927
37. The Indonesia Open Network (ION), launched during PM Modi’s visit, was inspired by India’s:
A) DigiLocker Platform
B) Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC)
C) UPI Interoperability Framework
D) Government e-Marketplace (GeM)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC)
38. India’s SAGAR Vision (Security and Growth for All in the Region) was introduced in:
A) 2012
B) 2014
C) 2015
D) 2017
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2015
39. The Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI), providing a voluntary framework for regional cooperation, was launched in:
A) 2017
B) 2018
C) 2019
D) 2021
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2019
40. Approximately what percentage of global maritime trade passes through the Indo-Pacific?
A) 30%
B) 40%
C) 50%
D) 60%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 50%
41. India’s ‘G Minus Two’ strategy in the Indo-Pacific refers to:
A) Staying outside both the G7 and G20 frameworks
B) Strengthening ties with middle powers to diversify partnerships beyond US-China rivalry
C) Reducing military dependence on both Russia and the United States
D) Pursuing bilateral FTAs with countries outside the G2 bloc
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Strengthening ties with middle powers to diversify partnerships beyond US China rivalry
42. China’s ‘String of Pearls’ strategy primarily refers to:
A) A network of free trade agreements with Indian Ocean littoral states
B) A chain of Chinese-backed ports and strategic facilities across the Indian Ocean Region
C) A chain of Chinese-financed satellite communication stations
D) Chinese naval patrols along major Indo-Pacific shipping lanes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) A chain of Chinese-backed ports and strategic facilities across the Indian Ocean Region
43. As per UDISE+ Report 2025–26, total student enrolment in India’s schools stood at:
A) 22.5 crore
B) 24.72 crore
C) 26.1 crore
D) 28.3 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 24.72 crore
44. What percentage of India’s school teachers are women, as per UDISE+ 2025–26?
A) 44.2%
B) 48.4%
C) 54.9%
D) 61.3%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 54.9%
45. The Pupil–Teacher Ratio benchmark set by the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 is:
A) 25:1
B) 30:1
C) 35:1
D) 40:1
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 30:1
46. Internet connectivity as of UDISE+ 2025–26 was available in what percentage of schools?
A) 50.1%
B) 58.7%
C) 67.4%
D) 75.2%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 67.4%
47. Every student in UDISE+ is assigned a Permanent Education Number (PEN). The primary purpose of PEN is to:
A) Replace Aadhaar for all school-related services
B) Track a student’s educational journey and prevent duplicate enrolments
C) Link a student’s performance with Unified Scholarship Portal
D) Enable biometric attendance in government schools
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Track a student’s educational journey and prevent duplicate enrolments
48. Under the World Bank Income Group Classification 2026, India’s national per capita income of US$2,760 places it in the:
A) Low-Income Economy
B) Lower-Middle-Income Economy
C) Upper-Middle-Income Economy
D) High-Income Economy
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Lower-Middle-Income Economy
49. The Upper-Middle-Income threshold in the World Bank’s 2026 classification is:
A) US$1,175–US$4,635
B) US$4,636–US$14,375
C) US$5,000–US$15,000
D) US$6,000–US$12,000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) US$4,636–US$14,375
50. The World Bank calculates GNI per capita using the Atlas Method, which uses the average exchange rate over how many years?
A) One year
B) Two years
C) Three years
D) Five years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Three years
51. The Gini coefficient of per capita income across Indian States increased from 0.230 in 1994–95 to 0.261 in 2025–26, indicating:
A) Narrowing regional income disparities
B) Widening regional economic inequality among States
C) Improvement in national income distribution
D) Convergence in State per capita incomes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Widening regional economic inequality among States
52. The Teesta River originates from:
A) Gangotri Glacier, Uttarakhand
B) Tso Lhamo Lake and the Teesta Khangtse Glacier, North Sikkim
C) Gurudongmar Lake, Sikkim
D) Zemu Glacier, East Sikkim
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Tso Lhamo Lake and the Teesta Khangtse Glacier, North Sikkim
53. What percentage of the Teesta River basin lies in India versus Bangladesh?
A) 70% India, 30% Bangladesh
B) 75% India, 25% Bangladesh
C) 83% India, 17% Bangladesh
D) 90% India, 10% Bangladesh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 83% India, 17% Bangladesh
54. The 2011 draft India–Bangladesh Teesta water-sharing agreement proposed allocating what percentage to Bangladesh?
A) 25%
B) 30%
C) 37.5%
D) 42.5%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 37.5%
55. The strategic concern about the Teesta River Comprehensive Management Project involving China centres on proximity to the:
A) Brahmaputra River valley
B) Siliguri Corridor (Chicken’s Neck)
C) Kaladan Multimodal Transit Transport Corridor
D) Bangladesh–India Border Roads
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Siliguri Corridor (Chicken’s Neck)
56. Kamarajar Port (formerly Ennore Port) is India’s first:
A) Major port on the Bay of Bengal
B) Corporatised major port operating under the Companies Act
C) Automated container terminal in India
D) Deep-sea port with 18-metre draft capability
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Corporatised major port operating under the Companies Act
57. A ‘Capesize’ bulk carrier is defined as a vessel with a carrying capacity of up to:
A) 50,000 DWT
B) 1,00,000 DWT
C) 1,70,000 DWT
D) 2,50,000 DWT
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1,70,000 DWT
58. Quasars are powered by:
A) Nuclear fusion reactions in exceptionally massive stars
B) Supermassive black holes accreting surrounding gas and dust at galactic centres
C) Collisions between two neutron stars
D) Dark matter annihilation near galactic cores
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Supermassive black holes accreting surrounding gas and dust at galactic centres
59. The Euclid Space Telescope, which discovered two of the earliest known quasars, is operated by:
A) NASA
B) ISRO
C) JAXA
D) European Space Agency (ESA)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) European Space Agency (ESA)
60. Akash Tarang, approved by the Defence Acquisition Council, is an indigenous:
A) Surface-to-Air Missile system
B) Anti-UAV Electronic Warfare System
C) Hypersonic cruise missile
D) High-altitude reconnaissance drone
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Anti-UAV Electronic Warfare System
61. India’s first integrated technique to reconstruct the topside ionosphere maps electron density up to an altitude of approximately:
A) 300 km
B) 500 km
C) 800 km
D) 1,000 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer : D) 1,000 km
62. The ionosphere is formed primarily due to:
A) Cosmic ray bombardment of upper atmosphere
B) Geomagnetic field interactions with solar wind
C) Solar ultraviolet (UV) radiation and X-rays ionising atmospheric gases
D) Volcanic outgassing and chemical reactions in the stratosphere
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Solar ultraviolet (UV) radiation and X-rays ionising atmospheric gases
63. The ionosphere extends from approximately:
A) 10 km to 500 km
B) 60 km to over 1,000 km
C) 100 km to 800 km
D) 200 km to 2,000 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 60 km to over 1,000 km
64. Which characteristic of the ionosphere enables long-distance radio communication?
A) Its transparency to all electromagnetic waves
B) Its ability to reflect or refract certain radio waves back toward Earth
C) Its permanent cloud cover preventing signal leakage into space
D) Its high oxygen concentration amplifying radio signals
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Its ability to reflect or refract certain radio waves back toward Earth
65. The Rules of Origin (RoO) under a Free Trade Agreement primarily serve to:
A) Determine the quality standards of traded goods
B) Establish the economic nationality of a product for preferential tariff purposes
C) Regulate the quantity of goods that can be exported
D) Set minimum prices for goods traded under the agreement
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Establish the economic nationality of a product for preferential tariff purposes
66. Under the India–UK CETA Rules of Origin, which of the following activities CANNOT confer originating status on a product?
A) Substantial transformation through significant industrial processing
B) Complete production using only domestic inputs
C) Simple washing, sorting, or repackaging operations
D) Meeting prescribed local value-addition requirements
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Simple washing, sorting, or repackaging operations
67. The agency responsible for issuing Certificates of Origin to eligible Indian exporters under the India-UK CETA is:
A) CBIC
B) DGFT
C) RBI
D) SEBI
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) DGFT
68. The 1949 Armistice Line (Green Line) that forms the basis of the proposed Palestinian state borders refers to the ceasefire line established after the:
A) Six-Day War (1967)
B) Yom Kippur War (1973)
C) 1948 Arab-Israeli War
D) Oslo Accords (1993)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1948 Arab-Israeli War
69. UNSC Resolution 242 (1967), foundational to the Two-State Solution framework, introduced the rinciple of:
A) International military presence in Palestinian territories
B) Land for Peace
C) Right of Return for all Palestinian refugees
D) Shared sovereignty over Jerusalem
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Land for Peace
70. In 2024, the International Court of Justice (ICJ) concluded in its Advisory Opinion that Israel’s continued occupation of Palestinian territories since 1967 is:
A) Justified under international humanitarian law
B) Unlawful under international law
C) A political matter beyond the ICJ’s jurisdiction
D) Conditionally legal pending final status negotiations
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Unlawful under international law
71. Under the Oslo II Accord (1995), which category of the West Bank remains under full Israeli administrative and security control?
A) Area A (18%)
B) Area B (22%)
C) Area C (60%)
D) Area D (reserved zone)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Area C (60%)
72. Palestine was granted Non-Member Observer State status at the United Nations under which UNGA Resolution?
A) Resolution 3236 (1974)
B) Resolution 43/177 (1988)
C) Resolution 67/19 (2012)
D) Resolution 77/25 (2022)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Resolution 67/19 (2012)
73. The Right to be Forgotten (RTBF) gained global recognition through a landmark 2014 judgment of the European Court of Justice in the case:
A) Schrems v. Data Protection Commissioner
B) Google Spain SL v. AEPD
C) Facebook v. Hamburg Data Protection Authority
D) Digital Rights Ireland v. Minister for Communications
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Google Spain SL v. AEPD
74. The RTBF is codified as the ‘Right to Erasure’ under which international instrument?
A) OECD Privacy Guidelines
B) Council of Europe Convention 108
C) EU General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)
D) UN Personal Data Protection Framework
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) EU General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)
75. In India, the RTBF derives its constitutional basis from which Supreme Court judgment?
A) K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017)
B) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978)
C) Shreya Singhal v. Union of India (2015)
D) PUCL v. Union of India (2004)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017)
76. Section 12 of the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 recognises a Right to Erasure, but its application to publicly accessible judicial records remains:
A) Clearly settled by the Supreme Court
B) Legally uncertain
C) Explicitly excluded by the Act
D) Subject to State legislation only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Legally uncertain
77. A key challenge in enforcing RTBF in the digital age is:
A) Lack of legal awareness among citizens
B) Decentralised internet architecture, archived web pages, and AI data retention
C) High cost of filing RTBF applications in courts
D) Absence of technology platforms operating in India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Decentralised internet architecture, archived web pages, and AI data retention
78. India’s Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in higher education for 2023–24 stands at:
A) 25.0
B) 28.4
C) 30.0
D) 33.5
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 30.0
79. A Gender Parity Index (GPI) greater than 1 indicates:
A) Equal participation of males and females in higher education
B) Higher participation of males over females
C) Higher participation of females over males
D) Inability to compute gender-disaggregated data
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Higher participation of females over males
80. Among STEM students in 2023–24, what percentage are female?
A) 33%
B) 39%
C) 44%
D) 51%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 44%
81. Total student enrolment in higher education in 2023–24 reached 4.50 crore, representing a increase of approximately what percentage since 2014–15?
A) 18.6%
B) 24.3%
C) 31.5%
D) 42.2%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 31.5%
82. In the Performance Grading Index (PGI) 2.0 Report 2025–26, which State/UT became the first to enter the ‘Uttam-3’ performance band?
A) Kerala
B) Delhi
C) Punjab
D) Chandigarh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Chandigarh
83. The performance gap between the highest and lowest scoring States in PGI reduced from 51% (2017–18) to what level in 2025–26?
A) 20.5%
B) 25.8%
C) 31.4%
D) 38.7%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 31.4%
84. PGI 2.0 identifies which aspect as the most significant persistent challenge despite improvements in governance and infrastructure?
A) Teacher absenteeism
B) Learning outcomes remaining largely stagnant
C) Declining school enrolment in rural areas
D) Inadequate digital infrastructure in government schools
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Learning outcomes remaining largely stagnant
85. According to UNCTAD’s World Investment Report 2026, global FDI flows in 2025 reached:
A) USD 1.2 trillion
B) USD 1.4 trillion
C) USD 1.6 trillion
D) USD 2.0 trillion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) USD 1.6 trillion
86. India’s FDI inflows in 2025 increased by 44%, reaching approximately:
A) USD 25 billion
B) USD 32 billion
C) USD 39 billion
D) USD 50 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) USD 39 billion
87. As per WIR 2026, India advanced to become the __ largest recipient of FDI globally.
A) 8th
B) 10th
C) 11th
D) 15th
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 11th
88. India’s outward FDI increased by 50% to USD 36 billion in 2025, making India the __ largest source of overseas investment.
A) 14th
B) 16th
C) 18th
D) 22nd
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 18th
89. The Guwahati Declaration was adopted at the meeting of BRICS Heads of Anti-Drug Agencies, hosted by:
A) Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
B) Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB)
C) Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI)
D) Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB)
90. Which of the following emerging drug threats is specifically highlighted in the Guwahati Declaration as a growing challenge?
A) Increased cultivation of natural opium in border regions
B) Synthetic drugs, New Psychoactive Substances, and virtual asset misuse by drug networks
C) Cross-border trafficking of alcohol and tobacco products
D) Diversion of pharmaceutical opioids for recreational use only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Synthetic drugs, New Psychoactive Substances, and virtual asset misuse by drug networks
91. Kerala became the first Indian State to establish a Department of Senior Citizens’ Welfare. India’s population aged 60 years and above is projected to increase to nearly how many million by 2036?
A) 150 million
B) 180 million
C) 230 million
D) 280 million
Show Answer
Correct Answer : C) 230 million
92. By 2036, approximately what fraction of Indians is expected to be a senior citizen?
A) One in five
B) One in seven
C) One in ten
D) One in twelve
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) One in seven
93. According to the IMF, population ageing could reduce India’s annual GDP growth by nearly how many basis points between 2025 and 2050?
A) 30 basis points
B) 50 basis points
C) 70 basis points
D) 100 basis points
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 70 basis points
94. The Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana (PMVVY) is implemented through:
A) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
B) Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC)
C) State Bank of India (SBI)
D) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC)
95. The Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana (RVY) primarily targets:
A) All senior citizens above 75 years
B) Economically disadvantaged senior citizens with age-related disabilities
C) Senior citizens in urban slums only
D) Retired government employees above 80 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Economically disadvantaged senior citizens with age-related disabilities
96. The 3rd India–Australia Annual Summit was held in:
A) Canberra
B) Sydney
C) Melbourne
D) Brisbane
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Melbourne
97. The India–Australia Civil Nuclear Agreement finalised during the Summit operationalises which earlier pact?
A) The 2009 Joint Declaration on Security
B) The 2014 civil nuclear pact
C) The 2016 Civil Nuclear Transfer to India Act
D) The 2020 Comprehensive Strategic Partnership Agreement
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) The 2014 civil nuclear pact
98. India’s exports to Australia increased from USD 4 billion (2020–21) to approximately how much in 2024–25?
A) USD 5.5 billion
B) USD 7.0 billion
C) USD 8.5 billion
D) USD 10 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) USD 8.5 billion
99. The PACTS partnership launched between India and Australia focuses on:
A) Pharmaceutical and Agricultural Cooperation and Trade Standards
B) Cyber, Critical Technologies and Supply Chains
C) Peacekeeping, Anti-Terrorism and Counter-Security
D) Port and Airfield Connectivity and Trade Support
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Cyber, Critical Technologies and Supply Chains
100. India is Australia’s _ largest trading partner and _ largest destination for refined petroleum exports.
A) Third and Second
B) Fourth and Third
C) Fifth and Fourth
D) Sixth and Fifth
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Fifth and Fourth
101. India’s ‘G Minus Two’ strategy in the Indo-Pacific refers to:
A) Staying outside both the G7 and G20 frameworks
B) Strengthening ties with middle powers to diversify partnerships beyond US-China rivalry
C) Reducing military dependence on both Russia and the United States
D) Pursuing bilateral FTAs with countries outside the G2 bloc
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Strengthening ties with middle powers to diversify partnerships beyond US China rivalry
102. China’s ‘String of Pearls’ strategy primarily refers to:
A) A network of free trade agreements with Indian Ocean littoral states
B) A chain of Chinese-backed ports and strategic facilities across the Indian Ocean Region
C) A chain of Chinese-financed satellite communication stations
D) Chinese naval patrols along major Indo-Pacific shipping lanes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) A chain of Chinese-backed ports and strategic facilities across the Indian Ocean Region
103. As per UDISE+ Report 2025–26, total student enrolment in India’s schools stood at:
A) 22.5 crore
B) 24.72 crore
C) 26.1 crore
D) 28.3 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 24.72 crore
104. What percentage of India’s school teachers are women, as per UDISE+ 2025–26?
A) 44.2%
B) 48.4%
C) 54.9%
D) 61.3%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 54.9%
105. The Pupil–Teacher Ratio benchmark set by the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 is:
A) 25:1
B) 30:1
C) 35:1
D) 40:1
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 30:1
106. Internet connectivity as of UDISE+ 2025–26 was available in what percentage of schools?
A) 50.1%
B) 58.7%
C) 67.4%
D) 75.2%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 67.4%
107. Every student in UDISE+ is assigned a Permanent Education Number (PEN). The primary purpose of PEN is to:
A) Replace Aadhaar for all school-related services
B) Track a student’s educational journey and prevent duplicate enrolments
C) Link a student’s performance with Unified Scholarship Portal
D) Enable biometric attendance in government schools
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Track a student’s educational journey and prevent duplicate enrolments
108. Under the World Bank Income Group Classification 2026, India’s national per capita income of US$2,760 places it in the:
A) Low-Income Economy
B) Lower-Middle-Income Economy
C) Upper-Middle-Income Economy
D) High-Income Economy
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Lower-Middle-Income Economy
109. The Upper-Middle-Income threshold in the World Bank’s 2026 classification is:
A) US$1,175–US$4,635
B) US$4,636–US$14,375
C) US$5,000–US$15,000
D) US$6,000–US$12,000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) US$4,636–US$14,375
110. The World Bank calculates GNI per capita using the Atlas Method, which uses the average exchange rate over how many years?
A) One year
B) Two years
C) Three years
D) Five years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Three years
111. The Gini coefficient of per capita income across Indian States increased from 0.230 in 1994–95 to 0.261 in 2025–26, indicating:
A) Narrowing regional income disparities
B) Widening regional economic inequality among States
C) Improvement in national income distribution
D) Convergence in State per capita incomes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Widening regional economic inequality among States
112. The Teesta River originates from:
A) Gangotri Glacier, Uttarakhand
B) Tso Lhamo Lake and the Teesta Khangtse Glacier, North Sikkim
C) Gurudongmar Lake, Sikkim
D) Zemu Glacier, East Sikkim
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Tso Lhamo Lake and the Teesta Khangtse Glacier, North Sikkim
113. What percentage of the Teesta River basin lies in India versus Bangladesh?
A) 70% India, 30% Bangladesh
B) 75% India, 25% Bangladesh
C) 83% India, 17% Bangladesh
D) 90% India, 10% Bangladesh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 83% India, 17% Bangladesh
114. The 2011 draft India–Bangladesh Teesta water-sharing agreement proposed allocating what percentage to Bangladesh?
A) 25%
B) 30%
C) 37.5%
D) 42.5%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 37.5%
115. The strategic concern about the Teesta River Comprehensive Management Project involving China centres on proximity to the:
A) Brahmaputra River valley
B) Siliguri Corridor (Chicken’s Neck)
C) Kaladan Multimodal Transit Transport Corridor
D) Bangladesh–India Border Roads
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Siliguri Corridor (Chicken’s Neck)
116. Kamarajar Port (formerly Ennore Port) is India’s first:
A) Major port on the Bay of Bengal
B) Corporatised major port operating under the Companies Act
C) Automated container terminal in India
D) Deep-sea port with 18-metre draft capability
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Corporatised major port operating under the Companies Act
117. A ‘Capesize’ bulk carrier is defined as a vessel with a carrying capacity of up to:
A) 50,000 DWT
B) 1,00,000 DWT
C) 1,70,000 DWT
D) 2,50,000 DWT
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1,70,000 DWT
118. Quasars are powered by:
A) Nuclear fusion reactions in exceptionally massive stars
B) Supermassive black holes accreting surrounding gas and dust at galactic centres
C) Collisions between two neutron stars
D) Dark matter annihilation near galactic cores
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Supermassive black holes accreting surrounding gas and dust at galactic centres
119. The Euclid Space Telescope, which discovered two of the earliest known quasars, is operated by:
A) NASA
B) ISRO
C) JAXA
D) European Space Agency (ESA)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) European Space Agency (ESA)
120. Akash Tarang, approved by the Defence Acquisition Council, is an indigenous:
A) Surface-to-Air Missile system
B) Anti-UAV Electronic Warfare System
C) Hypersonic cruise missile
D) High-altitude reconnaissance drone
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Anti-UAV Electronic Warfare System
121. The constitutional provision empowering Parliament to remove a Supreme Court judge is:
A) Article 124(2)
B) Article 124(4)
C) Article 218
D) Article 217(1)
Show Answer
Correct Answer : B) Article 124(4)
122. A motion for judicial removal requires signatures of at least _ Lok Sabha members, or _ Rajya Sabha members.
A) 50 LS and 25 RS
B) 75 LS and 40 RS
C) 100 LS and 50 RS
D) 150 LS and 75 RS
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 100 LS and 50 RS
123. The three-member Judges Inquiry Committee constituted under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 comprises a Supreme Court judge or Chief Justice, a Chief Justice of a High Court, and:
A) The Solicitor General of India
B) A retired High Court Judge
C) A distinguished jurist
D) A Member of Parliament
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) A distinguished jurist
124. For judicial removal to succeed in Parliament, the motion must pass by:
A) Simple majority of both Houses
B) Two-thirds of total membership of the House concerned
C) Majority of the total membership AND two-thirds of members present and voting
D) Three-fourths of members present and voting in both Houses simultaneously
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Majority of the total membership AND two-thirds of members present and voting
125. India’s In-House Judicial Mechanism was introduced following which landmark judgment?
A) Gopal Chandra Misra (1978)
B) C. Ravichandran Iyer (1995)
C) K. Veeraswami v. Union of India (1991)
D) P.V. Narsimha Rao v. State (1998)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) C. Ravichandran Iyer (1995)
126. As per the Gopal Chandra Misra (1978) principle, a judge’s resignation is:
A) Effective only after Presidential acceptance
B) A unilateral act that does not require Presidential acceptance
C) Valid only after the Speaker acknowledges it in the House
D) Subject to CJI’s approval before it takes effect
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) A unilateral act that does not require Presidential acceptance
127. Which provision of the Constitution extends the same removal procedure applicable to Supreme Court judges to High Court judges?
A) Article 214
B) Article 216
C) Article 218
D) Article 220
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Article 218
128. The Geneva Conventions Act, 1960 gives domestic legal effect to India’s obligations under which international instrument?
A) The Hague Conventions, 1907
B) The 1949 Geneva Conventions
C) The Rome Statute, 1998
D) The UN Charter, 1945
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) The 1949 Geneva Conventions
129. Under Section 3 of the Geneva Conventions Act, 1960, the penalty for wilful killing of a protected person is:
A) Imprisonment up to 14 years
B) Imprisonment up to 25 years
C) Death penalty or life imprisonment
D) Death penalty only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Death penalty or life imprisonment
130. Section 4 of the Geneva Conventions Act, 1960 empowers Indian courts to try any person found in India for offences under the Act regardless of:
A) Time of the offence
B) Nationality of the accused or place of the offence
C) Whether a State of War has been formally declared
D) Whether India has an extradition treaty with the country concerned
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Nationality of the accused or place of the offence
131. Article 146 of the Fourth Geneva Convention obligates every State Party to search for persons alleged to have committed grave breaches and either prosecute them or:
A) Detain them indefinitely pending ICJ referral
B) Extradite them to another State willing to prosecute
C) Transfer them to the International Criminal Court
D) Impose economic sanctions on the accused’s home country
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Extradite them to another State willing to prosecute
132. The OECD-FAO Agricultural Outlook 2026–2035 projects global agriculture and fisheries production to increase by approximately what percentage by 2035?
A) 7%
B) 10%
C) 13%
D) 18%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 13%
133. India and Southeast Asia are expected to account for what percentage of global growth in food consumption?
A) 25%
B) 31%
C) 39%
D) 47%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 39%
134. Agricultural greenhouse gas emissions are projected to increase by approximately what percentage by 2035 as per the Outlook?
A) 3.5%
B) 6.5%
C) 10%
D) 15%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 6.5%
135. The OECD-FAO Agricultural Outlook primarily supports monitoring progress towards which Sustainable Development Goal?
A) SDG 1 – No Poverty
B) SDG 2 – Zero Hunger
C) SDG 3 – Good Health and Well-being
D) SDG 13 – Climate Action
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) SDG 2 – Zero Hunger
136. The 36th NATO Summit 2026 was held in:
A) Brussels, Belgium
B) Warsaw, Poland
C) Ankara, Türkiye
D) London, United Kingdom
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Ankara, Türkiye
137. NATO members reaffirmed their commitment to increase defence expenditure to __ of GDP by 2035 at the Ankara Summit.
A) 2%
B) 3%
C) 4%
D) 5%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 5%
138. The NATO Drone Edge Initiative pledged how much over five years for counter-UAS and drone defence technologies?
A) USD 10 billion
B) USD 25 billion
C) USD 40 billion
D) USD 60 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) USD 40 billion
139. Article 5 of the Washington Treaty (NATO’s collective defence clause) has been formally invoked how many times?
A) Never
B) Once (after 9/11 attacks)
C) Twice (after 9/11 and post-Crimea annexation)
D) Three times
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Once (after 9/11 attacks)
140. China’s LineShine displaced which supercomputer from the top position on the global rankings in 2026?
A) Frontier (USA)
B) Fugaku (Japan)
C) El Capitan (USA)
D) Summit (USA)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) El Capitan (USA)
141. The standard benchmark used to rank supercomputers globally is:
A) SPEC CPU Benchmark
B) High-Performance Linpack (HPL) Benchmark
C) STREAM Memory Benchmark
D) TPC-C Transaction Processing Benchmark
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) High-Performance Linpack (HPL) Benchmark
142. India’s AI supercomputer AIRAWAT-PSAI is hosted by:
A) IIT Bombay
B) ISRO
C) Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), Pune
D) National Informatics Centre (NIC)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), Pune
143. The WSIS Prize 2026 is a global awards programme led by:
A) UNESCO
B) UNDP
C) International Telecommunication Union (ITU)
D) World Economic Forum (WEF)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) International Telecommunication Union (ITU)
144. The Samriddh Gram Initiative, which won the WSIS Prize 2026, uses which programme as its digital backbone?
A) DigiLocker
B) BharatNet
C) PM-WANI
D) UMANG
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) BharatNet
145. The Samriddh Gram Initiative was initially launched in which State?
A) Uttar Pradesh
B) Rajasthan
C) Madhya Pradesh
D) Chhattisgarh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Madhya Pradesh
146. The Pinaka LRGR-120 has a range of up to:
A) 37.5 km
B) 60 km
C) 90 km
D) 120 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 120 km
147. The Pinaka LRGR-120 guidance system integrates an Inertial Navigation System (INS) with which Indian satellite navigation system?
A) GAGAN
B) NavIC (IRNSS)
C) IRNAV
D) BHARATPOS
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) NavIC (IRNSS)
148. The Pinaka MBRL system is capable of launching how many rockets in approximately 44 seconds?
A) 6
B) 9
C) 12
D) 16
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 12
149. Indira Point, India’s southernmost point, is located on:
A) Little Andaman Island
B) Great Nicobar Island
C) Car Nicobar Island
D) Nicobar Island
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Great Nicobar Island
150. Indira Point was formerly known as:
A) Galathea Point
B) Campbell Point
C) Pygmalion Point
D) Katchall Point
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Pygmalion Point
151. The PM of India’s visit to Auckland marked the first visit by an Indian Prime Minister to New Zealand in nearly:
A) Two decades
B) Three decades
C) Four decades
D) Five decades
Show Answer
Correct Answer : C) Four decades
152. The India–New Zealand Roadmap to 2030 outlines cooperation across how many broad pillars?
A) Four
B) Five
C) Six
D) Eight
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Six
153. The bilateral trade target under the India–New Zealand FTA aims to double goods and services trade to:
A) NZ$3 billion
B) NZ$5 billion
C) NZ$7 billion
D) NZ$10 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) NZ$7 billion
154. New Zealand joined the Maritime Security pillar of India’s Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI), with initial cooperation focused on combating:
A) Nuclear proliferation at sea
B) Illegal, Unreported and Unregulated (IUU) fishing
C) Piracy along the Strait of Malacca
D) Narcotics trafficking in the Pacific
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Illegal, Unreported and Unregulated (IUU) fishing
155. The Kiwifruit Action Plan under the India–New Zealand partnership will establish two Centres of Excellence in:
A) Himachal Pradesh and Assam
B) Nagaland and Uttarakhand
C) Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh
D) Meghalaya and Manipur
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Nagaland and Uttarakhand
156. India’s National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR) will collaborate with which institution on Antarctic research?
A) Victoria University of Wellington
B) University of Otago
C) University of Auckland
D) University of Canterbury
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) University of Canterbury
157. New Zealand joined which India-led global alliance on sustainable energy during the PM’s visit?
A) International Solar Alliance (ISA)
B) Global Biofuels Alliance (GBA)
C) Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI)
D) One Sun One World One Grid (OSOWOG)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Global Biofuels Alliance (GBA)
158. A cooperation framework established during the visit linked New Zealand Maritime Museum with which Indian institution?
A) National Maritime Foundation, New Delhi
B) National Maritime Heritage Complex, Lothal
C) Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala
D) Central Maritime Archaeology Organisation, Goa
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) National Maritime Heritage Complex, Lothal
159. India’s first indigenous hydrogen-powered train is set to operate on which route?
A) Delhi–Meerut Corridor
B) Pune–Nashik Route
C) Jind–Sonipat Route in Haryana
D) Coimbatore–Ooty Heritage Route
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Jind–Sonipat Route in Haryana
160. The technology used in hydrogen-powered trains to generate electricity is:
A) Alkaline Fuel Cells
B) Proton Exchange Membrane (PEM) Fuel Cells
C) Solid Oxide Fuel Cells (SOFC)
D) Molten Carbonate Fuel Cells (MCFC)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Proton Exchange Membrane (PEM) Fuel Cells
161. The ONLY byproduct of energy generation in a hydrogen-powered train is:
A) Carbon dioxide
B) Nitrogen oxides
C) Water vapour
D) Hydrogen peroxide
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Water vapour
162. The fuel-cell stacks in hydrogen trains are maintained at what optimal operating temperature?
A) 20–40°C
B) 60–80°C
C) 100–120°C
D) 150–200°C
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 60–80°C
163. The battery type used in hydrogen trains for energy storage and regenerative braking is:
A) Lithium-ion (Li-ion)
B) Nickel-Metal Hydride (NiMH)
C) Lithium Iron Phosphate (LiFePO4)
D) Lead-acid batteries
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Lithium Iron Phosphate (LiFePO4)
164. Each hydrogen trainset can potentially prevent approximately how many tonnes of CO2 emissions annually?
A) 250 tonnes
B) 450 tonnes
C) 650 tonnes
D) 893 tonnes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 893 tonnes
165. India’s hydrogen-powered train is described as the world’s longest and most powerful of its kind. Indian Railways’ Net Zero target is set for:
A) 2027
B) 2030
C) 2035
D) 2047
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 2030
166. Hydrogen possesses a high gravimetric energy density of approximately:
A) 40 MJ/kg
B) 80 MJ/kg
C) 120 MJ/kg
D) 200 MJ/kg
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 120 MJ/kg
167. The Paizhen Fault is located in which region?
A) Western Tibet, near Lhasa
B) Eastern Himalayan region of south-eastern Tibet
C) Northern Tibetan Plateau near Xinjiang
D) Yunnan Province, southwestern China
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Eastern Himalayan region of south-eastern Tibet
168. The Paizhen Fault has remained geologically active since:
A) Holocene Epoch (~11,000 years ago)
B) Late Pleistocene (~100,000 years ago)
C) Early Pleistocene (~2.6 million years ago)
D) Miocene Epoch (~5 million years ago)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Early Pleistocene (~2.6 million years ago)
169. The Medog Hydropower Project is being constructed on the Yarlung Tsangpo River approximately how far upstream of its entry into Arunachal Pradesh?
A) 20 km
B) 35 km
C) 50 km
D) 80 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 50 km
170. The Paizhen Fault is formed due to the collision between which two tectonic plates?
A) Pacific Plate and Eurasian Plate
B) Indian Plate and Eurasian Plate
C) Arabian Plate and Eurasian Plate
D) Indo-Australian Plate and Pacific Plate
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Indian Plate and Eurasian Plate
171. Which category of downstream risk is most immediately cited from a dam failure at the Medog Hydropower Project?
A) Tsunami waves in the Bay of Bengal
B) Flash flooding affecting regions in India and Bangladesh
C) Earthquake amplification in the Assam valley
D) Glacial lake outburst floods in Bhutan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Flash flooding affecting regions in India and Bangladesh
172. The recent amendment to the Drugs Rules, 1945 withdrew licensing exemptions for formulations containing more than __ ethyl alcohol in quantities exceeding 30 ml.
A) 5% v/v
B) 8% v/v
C) 10% v/v
D) 12% v/v
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 12% v/v
173. Schedule K of the Drugs Rules, 1945 specifies categories of drugs that are:
A) Banned for manufacture in India
B) Exempt from certain licensing and regulatory provisions
C) Reserved exclusively for government hospitals
D) Mandatorily tested by the Central Drugs Laboratory
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Exempt from certain licensing and regulatory provisions
174. The Drugs Rules, 1945 are framed under which legislation?
A) Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954
B) Essential Commodities Act, 1955
C) Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940
D) Pharmacy Act, 1948
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940
175. World Population Day is observed annually on:
A) 5 June
B) 11 July
C) 15 August
D) 1 October
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 11 July
176. World Population Day was established by:
A) UNFPA in 1994
B) WHO in 1980
C) UNDP in 1989
D) UN General Assembly in 1990
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) UNDP in 1989
177. The theme of World Population Day 2026 was:
A) ‘A World of 8 Billion: Towards a Resilient Future’
B) ‘Realizing the hopes and aspirations of young people – today and for the future’
C) ‘Leaving No One Behind: Reproductive Rights for All’
D) ‘Population, Prosperity and Planet’
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) ‘Realizing the hopes and aspirations of young people – today and for the future’
178. India’s Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI) was launched by PM Modi in:
A) 2017 at Manila
B) 2018 at Singapore
C) 2019 at Bangkok
D) 2020 at Kuala Lumpur
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2019 at Bangkok
179. The Mutual Recognition Arrangement (MRA) operationalised under the India-New Zealand Customs Cooperation Arrangement primarily benefits:
A) Student visa applicants from both countries
B) Trusted traders through faster customs clearance
C) Maritime workers seeking competency recognition
D) Agricultural exporters of kiwifruit only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Trusted traders through faster customs clearance
180. Which component of India’s hydrogen train stores hydrogen on-board?
A) Underground cryogenic storage tanks
B) Roof-mounted high-pressure composite cylinders
C) Under-carriage liquid hydrogen tanks
D) Bogie-mounted metal hydride storage systems
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Roof-mounted high-pressure composite cylinders
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