Find the current affairs quiz 10 July 2026 by Exam Charcha.
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Current Affairs Quiz – 10 July 2026 (Test Now)
1. India’s first integrated technique to reconstruct the topside ionosphere maps electron density up to an altitude of approximately:
A) 300 km
B) 500 km
C) 800 km
D) 1,000 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer : D) 1,000 km
2. The ionosphere is formed primarily due to:
A) Cosmic ray bombardment of upper atmosphere
B) Geomagnetic field interactions with solar wind
C) Solar ultraviolet (UV) radiation and X-rays ionising atmospheric gases
D) Volcanic outgassing and chemical reactions in the stratosphere
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Solar ultraviolet (UV) radiation and X-rays ionising atmospheric gases
3. The ionosphere extends from approximately:
A) 10 km to 500 km
B) 60 km to over 1,000 km
C) 100 km to 800 km
D) 200 km to 2,000 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 60 km to over 1,000 km
4. Which characteristic of the ionosphere enables long-distance radio communication?
A) Its transparency to all electromagnetic waves
B) Its ability to reflect or refract certain radio waves back toward Earth
C) Its permanent cloud cover preventing signal leakage into space
D) Its high oxygen concentration amplifying radio signals
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Its ability to reflect or refract certain radio waves back toward Earth
5. The Rules of Origin (RoO) under a Free Trade Agreement primarily serve to:
A) Determine the quality standards of traded goods
B) Establish the economic nationality of a product for preferential tariff purposes
C) Regulate the quantity of goods that can be exported
D) Set minimum prices for goods traded under the agreement
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Establish the economic nationality of a product for preferential tariff purposes
6. Under the India–UK CETA Rules of Origin, which of the following activities CANNOT confer originating status on a product?
A) Substantial transformation through significant industrial processing
B) Complete production using only domestic inputs
C) Simple washing, sorting, or repackaging operations
D) Meeting prescribed local value-addition requirements
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Simple washing, sorting, or repackaging operations
7. The agency responsible for issuing Certificates of Origin to eligible Indian exporters under the India-UK CETA is:
A) CBIC
B) DGFT
C) RBI
D) SEBI
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) DGFT
8. The 1949 Armistice Line (Green Line) that forms the basis of the proposed Palestinian state borders refers to the ceasefire line established after the:
A) Six-Day War (1967)
B) Yom Kippur War (1973)
C) 1948 Arab-Israeli War
D) Oslo Accords (1993)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1948 Arab-Israeli War
9. UNSC Resolution 242 (1967), foundational to the Two-State Solution framework, introduced the rinciple of:
A) International military presence in Palestinian territories
B) Land for Peace
C) Right of Return for all Palestinian refugees
D) Shared sovereignty over Jerusalem
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Land for Peace
10. In 2024, the International Court of Justice (ICJ) concluded in its Advisory Opinion that Israel’s continued occupation of Palestinian territories since 1967 is:
A) Justified under international humanitarian law
B) Unlawful under international law
C) A political matter beyond the ICJ’s jurisdiction
D) Conditionally legal pending final status negotiations
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Unlawful under international law
11. Under the Oslo II Accord (1995), which category of the West Bank remains under full Israeli administrative and security control?
A) Area A (18%)
B) Area B (22%)
C) Area C (60%)
D) Area D (reserved zone)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Area C (60%)
12. Palestine was granted Non-Member Observer State status at the United Nations under which UNGA Resolution?
A) Resolution 3236 (1974)
B) Resolution 43/177 (1988)
C) Resolution 67/19 (2012)
D) Resolution 77/25 (2022)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Resolution 67/19 (2012)
13. The Right to be Forgotten (RTBF) gained global recognition through a landmark 2014 judgment of the European Court of Justice in the case:
A) Schrems v. Data Protection Commissioner
B) Google Spain SL v. AEPD
C) Facebook v. Hamburg Data Protection Authority
D) Digital Rights Ireland v. Minister for Communications
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Google Spain SL v. AEPD
14. The RTBF is codified as the ‘Right to Erasure’ under which international instrument?
A) OECD Privacy Guidelines
B) Council of Europe Convention 108
C) EU General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)
D) UN Personal Data Protection Framework
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) EU General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)
15. In India, the RTBF derives its constitutional basis from which Supreme Court judgment?
A) K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017)
B) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978)
C) Shreya Singhal v. Union of India (2015)
D) PUCL v. Union of India (2004)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017)
16. Section 12 of the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 recognises a Right to Erasure, but its application to publicly accessible judicial records remains:
A) Clearly settled by the Supreme Court
B) Legally uncertain
C) Explicitly excluded by the Act
D) Subject to State legislation only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Legally uncertain
17. A key challenge in enforcing RTBF in the digital age is:
A) Lack of legal awareness among citizens
B) Decentralised internet architecture, archived web pages, and AI data retention
C) High cost of filing RTBF applications in courts
D) Absence of technology platforms operating in India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Decentralised internet architecture, archived web pages, and AI data retention
18. India’s Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in higher education for 2023–24 stands at:
A) 25.0
B) 28.4
C) 30.0
D) 33.5
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 30.0
19. A Gender Parity Index (GPI) greater than 1 indicates:
A) Equal participation of males and females in higher education
B) Higher participation of males over females
C) Higher participation of females over males
D) Inability to compute gender-disaggregated data
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Higher participation of females over males
20. Among STEM students in 2023–24, what percentage are female?
A) 33%
B) 39%
C) 44%
D) 51%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 44%
21. Total student enrolment in higher education in 2023–24 reached 4.50 crore, representing a increase of approximately what percentage since 2014–15?
A) 18.6%
B) 24.3%
C) 31.5%
D) 42.2%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 31.5%
22. In the Performance Grading Index (PGI) 2.0 Report 2025–26, which State/UT became the first to enter the ‘Uttam-3’ performance band?
A) Kerala
B) Delhi
C) Punjab
D) Chandigarh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Chandigarh
23. The performance gap between the highest and lowest scoring States in PGI reduced from 51% (2017–18) to what level in 2025–26?
A) 20.5%
B) 25.8%
C) 31.4%
D) 38.7%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 31.4%
24. PGI 2.0 identifies which aspect as the most significant persistent challenge despite improvements in governance and infrastructure?
A) Teacher absenteeism
B) Learning outcomes remaining largely stagnant
C) Declining school enrolment in rural areas
D) Inadequate digital infrastructure in government schools
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Learning outcomes remaining largely stagnant
25. According to UNCTAD’s World Investment Report 2026, global FDI flows in 2025 reached:
A) USD 1.2 trillion
B) USD 1.4 trillion
C) USD 1.6 trillion
D) USD 2.0 trillion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) USD 1.6 trillion
26. India’s FDI inflows in 2025 increased by 44%, reaching approximately:
A) USD 25 billion
B) USD 32 billion
C) USD 39 billion
D) USD 50 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) USD 39 billion
27. As per WIR 2026, India advanced to become the __ largest recipient of FDI globally.
A) 8th
B) 10th
C) 11th
D) 15th
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 11th
28. India’s outward FDI increased by 50% to USD 36 billion in 2025, making India the __ largest source of overseas investment.
A) 14th
B) 16th
C) 18th
D) 22nd
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 18th
29. The Guwahati Declaration was adopted at the meeting of BRICS Heads of Anti-Drug Agencies, hosted by:
A) Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
B) Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB)
C) Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI)
D) Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB)
30. Which of the following emerging drug threats is specifically highlighted in the Guwahati Declaration as a growing challenge?
A) Increased cultivation of natural opium in border regions
B) Synthetic drugs, New Psychoactive Substances, and virtual asset misuse by drug networks
C) Cross-border trafficking of alcohol and tobacco products
D) Diversion of pharmaceutical opioids for recreational use only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Synthetic drugs, New Psychoactive Substances, and virtual asset misuse by drug networks
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