Practice the July 2026 Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the third week of July 2026.
The Current Affairs Quiz of 15 to 21 July features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.
3rd Week of July 2026: Current Affairs Quiz
1. The Supreme Court’s judgment upholding the mineral royalty framework reaffirmed which earlier landmark ruling?
A) MADA v. SAIL (2024)
B) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973)
C) State of Rajasthan v. Union of India (2012)
D) Hingir Rampur Coal v. State of Orissa (1961)
Show Answer
Correct Answer : A) MADA v. SAIL (2024)
2. Under the Supreme Court’s ruling, mineral royalty is classified as:
A) A tax levied by the Central Government
B) A fee for service rendered
C) Not a tax, allowing States to impose separate taxes on mineral-bearing lands
D) A cess payable to the District Mineral Foundation only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Not a tax, allowing States to impose separate taxes on mineral-bearing lands
3. Under the MMDR Act, 1957, royalties are calculated on the basis of:
A) Fixed rate per tonne regardless of sale price
B) Average Sale Price (ASP) of minerals — an Ad Valorem basis
C) Annual production capacity of the mine
D) International benchmark prices set by NMET
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Average Sale Price (ASP) of minerals — an Ad Valorem basis
4. The Average Sale Price (ASP) under the Minerals Concession Rules, 2016 includes which components?
A) Royalty, Environmental Compensation Cess, and Export Duty
B) Royalty, DMF contributions, and NMET contributions
C) Royalty, GST on minerals, and State cess
D) Royalty, Customs duty, and Central excise
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Royalty, DMF contributions, and NMET contributions
5. The District Mineral Foundation (DMF) was established under which amendment to the MMDR Act?
A) MMDR Amendment Act, 2010
B) MMDR Amendment Act, 2015
C) MMDR Amendment Act, 2018
D) MMDR Amendment Act, 2021
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) MMDR Amendment Act, 2015
6. The National Mineral Exploration Trust (NMET) receives what percentage of royalty payments from mining leaseholders?
A) 0.5%
B) 1%
C) 2%
D) 5%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2%
7. The effective mining tax burden in India, as raised under the current framework, is approximately:
A) 25–30%
B) 40–45%
C) 60–65%
D) 75–80%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 60–65%
8. Despite constituting over 42% of the agricultural workforce, women own land in only what fraction of rural landholding households?
A) 5–8%
B) 12–16%
C) 20–25%
D) 30–35%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 12–16%
9. In salaried employment, women earn approximately what percentage of men’s wages?
A) 56%
B) 64%
C) 76%
D) 85%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 76%
10. Among self-employed workers, women’s earnings are approximately what percentage of men’s earnings?
A) 36%
B) 50%
C) 64%
D) 72%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) 36%
11. Women spend approximately how many times more time on unpaid domestic and caregiving work than men in India?
A) Three times
B) Five times
C) Eight times
D) Ten times
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Eight times
12. The Female Labour Force Participation Rate (FLFPR) as per PLFS 2023–24 stands at:
A) 28.3%
B) 35.9%
C) 41.7%
D) 48.2%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 41.7%
13. The primary institutional barrier preventing women from accessing formal credit is:
A) Low educational qualifications
B) Lack of immovable property ownership required as collateral
C) Absence of government guarantee schemes for women
D) Restrictions imposed by the RBI on women-led SHGs
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Lack of immovable property ownership required as collateral
14. OTT platforms in India are currently regulated under which framework?
A) Cable Television Networks (Regulation) Act, 1995
B) Cinematograph Act, 1952
C) IT (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021
D) Broadcasting Regulation Act, 2023
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) IT (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021
15. Unlike theatrical films, OTT content in India:
A) Requires prior certification from CBFC before release
B) Does not require prior CBFC certification before release
C) Must be approved by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting before streaming
D) Is regulated exclusively under the Cinematograph Act, 1952
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Does not require prior CBFC certification before release
16. The three-tier grievance redressal mechanism under the OTT framework places Government Oversight at:
A) Level I
B) Level II
C) Level III
D) It operates as a parallel system
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Level III
17. In Shreya Singhal v. Union of India (2015), the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of Section 69A of the IT Act by holding that its statutory safeguards:
A) Adequately protect against arbitrary censorship
B) Require mandatory pre-decisional hearings in all cases
C) Apply only to obscene content and not political speech
D) Must be reviewed by a Parliamentary Standing Committee annually
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Adequately protect against arbitrary censorship
18. The ‘Streisand Effect’ in the context of OTT content regulation refers to:
A) Legal remedy available to celebrities against unwanted online publicity
B) Unintended increase in content’s reach due to attempts to suppress or remove it
C) An OTT platform’s algorithmic recommendation of previously removed content
D) The amplification of misinformation through social media sharing
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Unintended increase in content’s reach due to attempts to suppress or remove it
19. The UN’s first scientific report on AI was prepared by:
A) UNESCO’s AI Ethics Committee
B) Independent International Scientific Panel on Artificial Intelligence
C) UN High-Level Expert Group on AI
D) WHO-ITU Joint AI Safety Commission
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Independent International Scientific Panel on Artificial Intelligence
20. According to the UN AI Panel Report, the United States accounts for approximately what percentage of global AI computing infrastructure?
A) 40%
B) 55%
C) 65%
D) 75%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 75%
21. The UN AI Panel Report highlights the ‘Global Compute Divide’, which refers to:
A) Differences in AI regulation between developed and developing countries
B) Highly concentrated AI computing infrastructure limiting many countries’ sovereign AI
capabilities
C) Unequal internet connectivity preventing AI access in rural areas
D) Digital literacy gaps between urban and rural populations globally
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Highly concentrated AI computing infrastructure limiting many countries’ sovereign AI capabilities
22. The UN’s first dedicated multistakeholder platform on AI governance, at which the report was released, is called:
A) Global AI Safety Summit
B) AI for Good Forum
C) Global Dialogue on AI Governance
D) UN AI Standards Conference
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Global Dialogue on AI Governance
23. The SwaYaan initiative, under which NIDAR 2.0 is launched, aims to transform India into a global drone hub by:
A) 2025
B) 2027
C) 2030
D) 2035
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2030
24. NIDAR stands for:
A) National Indigenisation Drive for Autonomous Rotorcraft
B) National Innovation Challenge for Drone Application and Research
C) National Initiative for Drone Advancement and Research
D) National Innovation Drive for Autonomous Research
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) National Innovation Challenge for Drone Application and Research
25. Earendil-1 is designed to provide nighttime illumination by:
A) Deploying high-powered LED arrays in low orbit
B) Reflecting sunlight onto designated areas on Earth using a deployable thin-film mirror
C) Generating solar power and beaming it as laser illumination to Earth
D) Using nuclear-powered searchlights mounted on a geostationary platform
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Reflecting sunlight onto designated areas on Earth using a deployable thin-film mirror
26. A key environmental concern about Earendil-1 and similar space-based illumination satellites is:
A) Increased risk of satellite collisions in LEO
B) Disruption of astronomical observations and natural dark skies (light pollution)
C) Excessive heating of the upper atmosphere
D) Interference with ground-based radio communications
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Disruption of astronomical observations and natural dark skies (light pollution)
27. The Japanese term ‘Nemawashi’ literally translates to:
A) ‘Building from the ground up’
B) ‘Going around the roots’
C) ‘Patience in all things’
D) ‘Harmony through consensus’
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) ‘Going around the roots’
28. Beyond horticulture, Nemawashi is used in Japanese business and governance to describe:
A) Hierarchical decision-making by senior executives only
B) Informal consultation and consensus-building among stakeholders before major decisions
C) Rapid prototyping and iterative product development
D) Strict adherence to predetermined plans without deviation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Informal consultation and consensus-building among stakeholders before major decisions
29. France officially declared 14 July as its National Day in:
A) 1789
B) 1830
C) 1880
D) 1900
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1880
30. The Jodhpuri Mojari, recently granted a GI tag, is primarily crafted by which community of Jodhpur?
A) Bishnoi community
B) Jat community
C) Jinagar (Jingar) community
D) Meghwal community
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Jinagar (Jingar) community
31. Guru Ravidas, whose teachings the Ravidassia community follows, was a prominent saint of which movement?
A) Sufi Movement
B) Bhakti Movement
C) Arya Samaj Movement
D) Prarthana Samaj Movement
Show Answer
Correct Answer : B) Bhakti Movement
32. The ideal society envisioned by Guru Ravidas, free from caste hierarchy and suffering, is called:
A) Halemi Raj
B) Ram Rajya
C) Begampura
D) Sachkhand
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Begampura
33. The most influential religious institution of the Ravidassia community, Dera Sachkhand Ballan, is located in:
A) Haryana
B) Delhi
C) Uttar Pradesh
D) Punjab
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Punjab
34. The Ravidassia community formally declared itself a separate religion in:
A) 2005
B) 2009
C) 2010
D) 2015
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2010
35. The principal religious text of the Ravidassia community is:
A) Guru Granth Sahib
B) Amritbani Guru Ravidass Ji
C) Bani Baba Sahib Ji
D) Adi Granth
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Amritbani Guru Ravidass Ji
36. The Defence Technology and Trade Initiative (DTTI) between India and the US was launched in:
A) 2008
B) 2010
C) 2012
D) 2016
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2012
37. The Initiative on Critical and Emerging Technology (iCET) between India and the US was launched in:
A) 2019
B) 2020
C) 2022
D) 2023
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2022
38. The India–U.S. Defence Acceleration Ecosystem (INDUS-X), launched in 2023, operates the
__ Launchpad enabling Indian startups to access the US defence market.
A) India-to-America (I2A)
B) Bharat-to-US (B2US)
C) India-US Tech Bridge (IUTB)
D) iStart Launchpad
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) India-to-America (I2A)
39. Under the GE F414 Fighter Engine Programme, the technology transfer to India through HAL provides approximately:
A) 40% technology transfer
B) 60% technology transfer
C) 80% technology transfer
D) 100% technology transfer
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 80% technology transfer
40. India was designated a ‘Major Defence Partner’ of the United States in:
A) 2012
B) 2014
C) 2016
D) 2018
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2016
41. The Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement (BECA) primarily enables India to access:
A) Advanced jet engine manufacturing technology
B) High-quality geospatial and satellite intelligence
C) Nuclear submarine propulsion technology
D) Stealth aircraft radar-absorbing materials
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) High-quality geospatial and satellite intelligence
42. The Security of Supply Arrangement (SOSA) between India and the US, signed in 2024, primarily aims to:
A) Restrict Indian purchase of Russian military equipment
B) Establish priority access to defence supplies during emergencies
C) Mandate joint military exercises in the Indian Ocean
D) Replace Foreign Military Sales with direct commercial contracts
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Establish priority access to defence supplies during emergencies
43. The amendment empowering India to ban imports of goods produced through forced labour was made to:
A) Customs Act, 1962
B) Import-Export Control Order, 1955
C) Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) 2023
D) Special Economic Zones Act, 2005
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) 2023
44. The DGFT (Directorate General of Foreign Trade) is an attached office of which Ministry?
A) Ministry of Finance
B) Ministry of Labour and Employment
C) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
D) Ministry of External Affairs
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
45. The ILO Forced Labour Convention that India’s new policy aligns with was adopted in:
A) 1919
B) 1930
C) 1948
D) 1957
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 1930
46. The investigation by the USTR that prompted India’s forced labour import ban is termed a __ investigation.
A) Section 232
B) Section 301
C) Section 337
D) Section 421
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Section 301
47. Trial in absentia in India is provided under which Section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023?
A) Section 84
B) Section 173
C) Section 310
D) Section 356
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Section 356
48. Under the BNSS, trial in absentia applies only to offences punishable with imprisonment of at least:
A) 5 years
B) 7 years
C) 10 years
D) 14 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 10 years
49. Before commencing trial in absentia, the court must issue two consecutive arrest warrants separated by at least:
A) 15 days
B) 30 days
C) 45 days
D) 60 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 30 days
50. A proclaimed offender convicted in absentia cannot file an appeal after how many years from the date of judgment?
A) 1 year
B) 2 years
C) 3 years
D) 5 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 3 years
51. The Draft National Health Research Policy, 2026 proposes increasing government expenditure on health research to what percentage of GDP by 2047?
A) 0.05%
B) 0.072%
C) 0.10%
D) 0.15%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 0.15%
52. The three-tier governance framework under the Draft National Health Research Policy designates which institution as the principal scientific and technical body?
A) Department of Health Research
B) National Health Systems Resource Centre
C) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
D) National Health Authority
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
53. The National Research Integrity Office (NRIO), proposed under the Draft Policy, primarily aims to:
A) Fund health research in underprivileged districts
B) Promote research ethics and integrity in health research
C) Regulate clinical trials of new drugs and medical devices
D) Administer ICMR fellowships and scholarships
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Promote research ethics and integrity in health research
54. The Index of Services Production (ISP) serves as the services-sector counterpart to which existing economic indicator?
A) Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
B) Index of Industrial Production (IIP)
C) Consumer Price Index (CPI)
D) Gross Value Added (GVA) quarterly estimates
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Index of Industrial Production (IIP)
55. The ISP uses which year as its base year?
A) 2011–12
B) 2017–18
C) 2022–23
D) 2024–25
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 2024–25
56. The ISP employs which index methodology to measure real output while eliminating the impact of price changes?
A) Paasche Price Index
B) Fisher Ideal Index
C) Fixed-weight Laspeyres Volume Index
D) Divisia Quantity Index
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Fixed-weight Laspeyres Volume Index
57. According to the first trial ISP for April 2026, which sector registered the fastest growth?
A) Telecommunications (22.8%)
B) Real Estate Activities (27.7%)
C) Retail Trade (30.8%)
D) Accommodation & Food Services (37.2%)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Accommodation & Food Services (37.2%)
58. The NAMASTE Scheme is jointly implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and which other Ministry?
A) Ministry of Labour and Employment
B) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
C) Ministry of Jal Shakti
D) Ministry of Rural Development
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
59. The Crew Module Uprighting System (CMUS) uses which technology to restore the capsule to an upright position after sea splashdown?
A) Electro-mechanical actuators
B) Stored cold-gas propulsion system
C) Hydraulic inflation system
D) Gyroscopic stabilisation system
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Stored cold-gas propulsion system
60. The India–UK Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement (CETA) and the Double Contribution Convention (DCC) came into force on:
A) 1 April 2026
B) 1 July 2026
C) 15 July 2026
D) 1 August 2026
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 15 July 2026
61. The Jagannath Rath Yatra involves a procession from the Jagannath Temple to which temple?
A) Lingaraj Temple
B) Gundicha Temple
C) Konark Sun Temple
D) Meenakshi Temple
Show Answer
Correct Answer : B) Gundicha Temple
62. Who performs the Chhera Pahara ritual before the Rath Yatra procession begins?
A) The Chief Priest
B) The Governor of Odisha
C) The Gajapati King of Puri
D) The Shankarachary
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) The Gajapati King of Puri
63. What is the name of Lord Balabhadra’s chariot in the Rath Yatra?
A) Nandighosha
B) Taladhwaja
C) Darpadalana
D) Devadalana
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Taladhwaja
64. On which day of the festival is the Bahuda Yatra (return journey) celebrated?
A) Fifth day
B) Seventh day
C) Ninth day
D) Tenth day
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Tenth day
65. The India–Australia Civil Nuclear Cooperation Agreement (CNCA) was signed in which year?
A) 2012
B) 2014
C) 2016
D) 2018
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 2014
66. Australia’s uranium reserves account for what share of global uranium resources?
A) One-fifth
B) One-fourth
C) More than one-third
D) One-half
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) More than one-third
67. The Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) is a voluntary grouping of how many nuclear supplier countries?
A) 38
B) 42
C) 48
D) 54
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 48
68. India’s target for achieving Net Zero emissions is:
A) 2050
B) 2060
C) 2070
D) 2080
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2070
69. The Mobile Phone Manufacturing Scheme (MPMS) has replaced which earlier scheme?
A) SPECS
B) PLI-LSEM
C) M-SIPS
D) EMC 2.0
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) PLI-LSEM
70. What is the budgetary outlay approved for the Mobile Phone Manufacturing Scheme (MPMS)?
A) ₹40,000 crore
B) ₹50,000 crore
C) ₹62,500 crore
D) ₹75,000 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ₹62,500 crore
71. The MPMS will be implemented over which period?
A) FY 2024–25 to FY 2028–29
B) FY 2025–26 to FY 2029–30
C) FY 2026–27 to FY 2030–31
D) FY 2027–28 to FY 2031–32
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) FY 2026–27 to FY 2030–31
72. What is the maximum Design and Innovation Incentive offered under MPMS on eligible sales?
A) 1.5%
B) 2.25%
C) 3%
D) 5%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 3%
73. The amendment empowering India to ban imports of goods produced through forced labour was made to:
A) Customs Act, 1962
B) Import-Export Control Order, 1955
C) Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) 2023
D) Special Economic Zones Act, 2005
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) 2023
74. The DGFT (Directorate General of Foreign Trade) is an attached office of which Ministry?
A) Ministry of Finance
B) Ministry of Labour and Employment
C) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
D) Ministry of External Affairs
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
75. The ILO Forced Labour Convention that India’s new policy aligns with was adopted in:
A) 1919
B) 1930
C) 1948
D) 1957
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 1930
76. The investigation by the USTR that prompted India’s forced labour import ban is termed a __ investigation.
A) Section 232
B) Section 301
C) Section 337
D) Section 421
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Section 301
77. Trial in absentia in India is provided under which Section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023?
A) Section 84
B) Section 173
C) Section 310
D) Section 356
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Section 356
78. Under the BNSS, trial in absentia applies only to offences punishable with imprisonment of at least:
A) 5 years
B) 7 years
C) 10 years
D) 14 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 10 years
79. Before commencing trial in absentia, the court must issue two consecutive arrest warrants separated by at least:
A) 15 days
B) 30 days
C) 45 days
D) 60 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 30 days
80. A proclaimed offender convicted in absentia cannot file an appeal after how many years from the date of judgment?
A) 1 year
B) 2 years
C) 3 years
D) 5 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 3 years
81. The Draft National Health Research Policy, 2026 proposes increasing government expenditure on health research to what percentage of GDP by 2047?
A) 0.05%
B) 0.072%
C) 0.10%
D) 0.15%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 0.15%
82. The three-tier governance framework under the Draft National Health Research Policy designates which institution as the principal scientific and technical body?
A) Department of Health Research
B) National Health Systems Resource Centre
C) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
D) National Health Authority
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
83. The National Research Integrity Office (NRIO), proposed under the Draft Policy, primarily aims to:
A) Fund health research in underprivileged districts
B) Promote research ethics and integrity in health research
C) Regulate clinical trials of new drugs and medical devices
D) Administer ICMR fellowships and scholarships
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Promote research ethics and integrity in health research
84. The Index of Services Production (ISP) serves as the services-sector counterpart to which existing economic indicator?
A) Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
B) Index of Industrial Production (IIP)
C) Consumer Price Index (CPI)
D) Gross Value Added (GVA) quarterly estimates
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Index of Industrial Production (IIP)
85. The ISP uses which year as its base year?
A) 2011–12
B) 2017–18
C) 2022–23
D) 2024–25
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 2024–25
86. The ISP employs which index methodology to measure real output while eliminating the impact of price changes?
A) Paasche Price Index
B) Fisher Ideal Index
C) Fixed-weight Laspeyres Volume Index
D) Divisia Quantity Index
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Fixed-weight Laspeyres Volume Index
87. According to the first trial ISP for April 2026, which sector registered the fastest growth?
A) Telecommunications (22.8%)
B) Real Estate Activities (27.7%)
C) Retail Trade (30.8%)
D) Accommodation & Food Services (37.2%)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Accommodation & Food Services (37.2%)
88. The NAMASTE Scheme is jointly implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and which other Ministry?
A) Ministry of Labour and Employment
B) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
C) Ministry of Jal Shakti
D) Ministry of Rural Development
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
89. The Crew Module Uprighting System (CMUS) uses which technology to restore the capsule to an upright position after sea splashdown?
A) Electro-mechanical actuators
B) Stored cold-gas propulsion system
C) Hydraulic inflation system
D) Gyroscopic stabilisation system
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Stored cold-gas propulsion system
90. The India–UK Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement (CETA) and the Double Contribution Convention (DCC) came into force on:
A) 1 April 2026
B) 1 July 2026
C) 15 July 2026
D) 1 August 2026
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 15 July 2026
91. The Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT), 1970 recognises which countries as nuclear-weapon states?
A) US, Russia, UK, France and China
B) US, Russia, China, India and Pakistan
C) US, UK, France, Germany and Japan
D) Russia, China, India, Israel and Pakistan
Show Answer
Correct Answer : A) US, Russia, UK, France and China
92. India joined the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) in which year?
A) 1948
B) 1957
C) 1968
D) 1974
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 1957
93. The Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT) was opened for signature in which year?
A) 1968
B) 1985
C) 1996
D) 2000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1996
94. The Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons (TPNW) came into effect in which year?
A) 2017
B) 2019
C) 2021
D) 2023
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2021
95. India received a waiver from which body in 2008, enabling civilian nuclear trade despite not being an NPT signatory?
A) IAEA
B) Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)
C) UN Security Council
D) Missile Technology Control Regime
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)
96. India joined the Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) in which year?
A) 2008
B) 2016
C) 2017
D) 2018
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 2016
97. India joined the Wassenaar Arrangement, which regulates conventional arms and dual-use goods, in which year?
A) 2016
B) 2017
C) 2018
D) 2019
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 2017
98. Approximately what share of the world’s nuclear arsenals is possessed jointly by the US and Russia?
A) Around 60%
B) Around 75%
C) Nearly 90%
D) Nearly 100%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Nearly 90%
99. Russia suspended its participation in which treaty in 2023, weakening binding limits on nuclear arsenals?
A) NPT
B) CTBT
C) New START
D) TPNW
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) New START
100. The 7th Governing Body Meeting of National CAMPA was held in which city?
A) Chennai
B) Coimbatore
C) Bengaluru
D) Hyderabad
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Coimbatore
101. The Aastha Van Sanrakshan Yojana (AVSY), approved with a corpus of ₹3,000 crore, aims to conserve how many sacred groves?
A) 10,000
B) 12,500
C) 15,000
D) 20,000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 15,000
102. The MISHTI Programme has been extended until which year, with an additional ₹500 crore approved?
A) 2027
B) 2028
C) 2029
D) 2030
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2029
103. CAMPA was established under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, which came into force in which year?
A) 2016
B) 2017
C) 2018
D) 2019
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2018
104. The ad hoc CAMPA was constituted in 2006 by the Supreme Court through orders in which case?
A) Vishaka case
B) T.N. Godavarman case
C) Kesavananda Bharati case
D) M.C. Mehta case
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) T.N. Godavarman case
105. Under the CAMPA fund distribution formula, what percentage goes to State Compensatory Afforestation Funds?
A) 70%
B) 80%
C) 90%
D) 95%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 90%
106. K. Kamaraj was born on 15 July 1903 in which town?
A) Madurai
B) Virudhunagar
C) Tirunelveli
D) Sivakasi
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Virudhunagar
107. K. Kamaraj served as Chief Minister of Madras State during which period?
A) 1950–1957
B) 1954–1963
C) 1963–1967
D) 1967–1972
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 1954–1963
108. Which scheme, introduced by Kamaraj in 1956, later influenced India’s Midday Meal Scheme?
A) Free Noon Meal Scheme
B) Kula Kalvi Thittam
C) Kamaraj Plan
D) Compulsory Primary Education Scheme
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Free Noon Meal Scheme
109. The Kamaraj Plan (1963) proposed that senior Congress ministers should:
A) Contest elections from two seats
B) Resign from government positions to strengthen the party
C) Form a coalition government
D) Retire from active politics
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Resign from government positions to strengthen the party
110. K. Kamaraj was posthumously awarded the Bharat Ratna in which year?
A) 1971
B) 1975
C) 1976
D) 1980
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1976
111. Which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) has replaced Section 309 of the IPC relating to attempt to commit suicide?
A) Section 103
B) Section 226
C) Section 302
D) Section 318
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Section 226
112. Which Article of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to assemble peaceably and without arms, relevant to hunger strikes?
A) Article 19(1)(a)
B) Article 19(1)(b)
C) Article 21
D) Article 32
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Article 19(1)(b)
113. The National Research Integrity Office (NRIO), proposed under the Draft Policy, primarily aims to:
A) Fund health research in underprivileged districts
B) Promote research ethics and integrity in health research
C) Regulate clinical trials of new drugs and medical devices
D) Administer ICMR fellowships and scholarships
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Promote research ethics and integrity in health research
114. ICAR’s 98th Foundation Day roadmap, ‘Developed Agriculture and Prosperous Farmers,’ is aligned with which national vision?
A) Atmanirbhar Bharat 2035
B) Viksit Bharat 2047
C) Digital India 2030
D) Make in India 2025
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Viksit Bharat 2047
115. Under the ICAR roadmap, what is the target amount of internal revenue to be generated by 2029?
A) ₹5,000 crore
B) ₹7,500 crore
C) ₹10,000 crore
D) ₹15,000 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ₹10,000 crore
116. ICAR was originally established in 1929 as the:
A) Central Agricultural Research Institute
B) Imperial Council of Agricultural Research
C) National Agricultural Research Counci
D) Royal Commission on Agriculture
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Imperial Council of Agricultural Research
117. Who serves as the ex officio President of the ICAR Society?
A) Prime Minister of India
B) Union Agriculture Minister
C) Cabinet Secretary
D) Director General of ICAR
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Union Agriculture Minister
118. According to recent research, the Indian tectonic plate’s underthrusting beneath the Asian Plate occurred approximately during which period?
A) 10 to 5 million years ago
B) 20 to 10 million years ago
C) 45 to 20 million years ago
D) 65 to 45 million years ago
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 45 to 20 million years ago
119. According to the study, why does western Tibet have a more rugged, dissected terrain compared to central Tibet?
A) Higher rainfall in western Tibet
B) The Indian Plate penetrated farther beneath western Tibet
C) Volcanic activity unique to western Tibet
D) Greater glacial erosion in western Tibet
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) The Indian Plate penetrated farther beneath western Tibet
120. Project GIANT, a five-year international research initiative (2025–2030) studying Greenland’s melting glaciers, is led by which organisation?
A) NASA
B) British Antarctic Survey (BAS)
C) NOAA
D) European Space Agency
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) British Antarctic Survey (BAS)
121. By which date does India aim to achieve a fully digital Criminal Justice System (CJS)?
A) 1 January 2026
B) 1 July 2026
C) 1 July 2027
D) 1 January 2028
Show Answer
Correct Answer : C) 1 July 2027
122. The Interoperable Criminal Justice System (ICJS) integrates which institutions through a unified digital platform?
A) Only police and courts
B) Police, courts, prisons, prosecution, and forensic labs
C) Only prisons and forensic labs
D) Police and prosecution only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Police, courts, prisons, prosecution, and forensic labs
123. The principle of ‘Audi Alteram Partem’, which underlies the Criminal Justice System, refers to:
A) Right to legal aid
B) Right to a fair hearing
C) Right against self-incrimination
D) Right to bail
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Right to a fair hearing
124. Which 2023 law shifts the focus of criminal law from a purely punitive approach to a justice oriented one?
A) Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)
B) Indian Evidence Act
C) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)
D) Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)
125. Under the digitisation reforms, forensic investigation is mandatory for offences punishable with imprisonment of:
A) 3 years or more
B) 5 years or more
C) 7 years or more
D) 10 years or more
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 7 years or more
126. According to the content, what percentage of FIRs are currently digitally transmitted to courts?
A) 36%
B) 46%
C) 56%
D) 66%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 2016
127. Which institution acts as the apex rural development financial institution in India, providing refinance and supervising RRBs and Cooperative Banks?
A) RBI
B) SIDBI
C) NABARD
D) SEBI
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) NABARD
128. As per NABARD’s Rural Economic Conditions and Sentiments Survey (May 2026), what percentage of rural households relied exclusively on formal credit sources?
A) 41%
B) 51%
C) 61%
D) 77.2%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 51%
129. Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) are listed under which schedule of the RBI Act, 1934?
A) First Schedule
B) Second Schedule
C) Third Schedule
D) Fourth Schedule
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Second Schedule
130. How many Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) currently operate across India?
A) 11
B) 22
C) 28
D) 32
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 28
131. Under Priority Sector Lending (PSL), what is the sub-target for small and marginal farmers?
A) 7%
B) 10%
C) 14%
D) 18%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 10%
132. The Modified Interest Subvention Scheme (MISS) provides short-term crop loans through the Kisan Credit Card at what interest rate?
A) 4%
B) 7%
C) 9%
D) 12%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 7%
133. How many Self-Help Groups (SHGs) have organised over 10.05 crore rural women, as per the content?
A) 50.90 lakh
B) 70.90 lakh
C) 90.90 lakh
D) 1.05 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 90.90 lakh
134. By March 2025, what percentage of villages had a banking outlet within a 5 km radius, as per the Jan Dhan Darshak App data?
A) 92.5%
B) 95.8%
C) 99.92%
D) 100%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 99.92%
135. Corporate Average Fuel Economy (CAFE) norms are notified by which body under the Energy Conservation Act, 2001?
A) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
B) Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE)
C) Central Pollution Control Board
D) NITI Aayog
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE)
136. The Draft CAFE-III Norms will be applicable during which period?
A) FY 2025–26 to FY 2029–30
B) FY 2026–27 to FY 2030–31
C) FY 2027–28 to FY 2031–32
D) FY 2028–29 to FY 2032–33
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) FY 2027–28 to FY 2031–32
137. CAFE-III norms apply to which category of vehicles?
A) M1 category passenger vehicles
B) N1 category commercial vehicles
C) Two-wheelers only
D) Heavy goods vehicles
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) M1 category passenger vehicles
138. Manufacturers selling fewer than how many vehicles annually are exempt from CAFE-III norms?
A) 500
B) 1,000
C) 2,000
D) 5,000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 1,000
139. Under CAFE-III, what is the targeted fleet-average fuel consumption by FY32?
A) 3.996 litres/100 km
B) 3.673 litres/100 km
C) 3.3273 litres/100 km
D) 2.998 litres/100 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 3.3273 litres/100 km
140. Under CAFE-III’s Super Credits system, how many credits are assigned to Battery Electric Vehicles (BEVs)?
A) 1.1 credits
B) 1.6 credits
C) 2.5 credits
D) 3.0 credits
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 3.0 credits
141. The PARIVARTAN Scheme aims to replace old polluting commercial vehicles across which region?
A) Mumbai Metropolitan Region
B) National Capital Region (NCR)
C) Bengaluru Metropolitan Area
D) Chennai Metropolitan Area
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) National Capital Region (NCR)
142. Which agency provides financial support/funding for the PARIVARTAN Scheme?
A) NABARD
B) National Capital Region Planning Board (NCRPB)
C) Ministry of Finance
D) Asian Development Bank
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) National Capital Region Planning Board (NCRPB)
143. Under PARIVARTAN, what interest subvention is offered on vehicle loans?
A) 3%
B) 5%
C) 7%
D) 10%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 5%
144. What is the minimum discount OEMs are required to offer under the PARIVARTAN Scheme?
A) 5%
B) 8%
C) 10%
D) 12%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 8%
145. The CapaCITIES Programme, which recently completed 10 years, was launched in which year?
A) 2014
B) 2015
C) 2016
D) 2018
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2016
146. CapaCITIES is funded by which agency?
A) World Bank
B) Swiss Agency for Development and Cooperation (SDC)
C) USAID
D) Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Swiss Agency for Development and Cooperation (SDC)
147. Which institution serves as the knowledge partner for the CapaCITIES Programme?
A) NITI Aayog
B) National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA)
C) TERI
D) Indian Institute of Public Administration
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA)
148. What does CRCAP, introduced under CapaCITIES, stand for?
A) City Resource and Conservation Action Plan
B) Climate Resilient City Action Plan
C) Carbon Reduction and Climate Adaptation Programme
D) City Renewal and Climate Action Policy
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Climate Resilient City Action Plan
149. INS Mahendragiri, commissioned into the Eastern Fleet, is built under which project?
A) Project 15B
B) Project 17A
C) Project 75
D) Project 28
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Project 17A
150. INS Mahendragiri was constructed by which shipyard?
A) Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE)
B) Cochin Shipyard Limited
C) Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL)
D) Hindustan Shipyard Limited
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL)
151. India’s notice to Pakistan seeking to renegotiate the Indus Waters Treaty pertains to the treaty signed in which year?
A) 1950
B) 1960
C) 1972
D) 1985
Show Answer
Correct Answer : B) 1960
152. Which body’s recommendations (2021) called for climate-responsive renegotiation of the Indus Waters Treaty?
A) Standing Committee on External Affairs
B) Standing Committee on Water Resources
C) NITI Aayog
D) Central Water Commission
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Standing Committee on Water Resources
153. Which projects were recommended to be accelerated to improve utilisation of India’s permissible water share under the IWT?
A) Sardar Sarovar and Tehri
B) Ujh and Shahpurkandi
C) Polavaram and Indira Sagar
D) Bhakra and Nangal
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Ujh and Shahpurkandi
154. Under the Indus Waters Treaty, India has permissible rights over which rivers?
A) Ravi, Beas and Sutlej
B) Indus, Jhelum and Chenab
C) Ganga, Yamuna and Brahmaputra
D) Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Indus, Jhelum and Chenab
155. The recent amendment to India’s tax treaty with Sri Lanka incorporates which anti-abuse measure?
A) General Anti-Avoidance Rule (GAAR)
B) Principal Purpose Test (PPT)
C) Limitation of Benefits (LOB)
D) Advance Pricing Agreement (APA)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Principal Purpose Test (PPT)
156. The Principal Purpose Test (PPT) is associated with which international framework?
A) WTO Trade Facilitation Agreement
B) OECD–G20 Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (BEPS)
C) IMF Article IV Consultation
D) UNCTAD Investment Framework
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) OECD–G20 Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (BEPS)
157. The amended India–Sri Lanka tax treaty protocol entered into force on which date?
A) 1 April 2026
B) 19 June 2026
C) 1 July 2026
D) 31 March 2027
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 19 June 2026
158. From which date will the amended India–Sri Lanka tax treaty apply to income earned in India?
A) 1 January 2027
B) 1 April 2027
C) 19 June 2027
D) 1 April 2028
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 1 April 2027
159. Under which scheme has the Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana (PMAGY) now been integrated as a component?
A) PM-JANMAN
B) PM-AJAY
C) PM-DAKSH
D) PM-SVANidhi
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) PM-AJAY
160. What is the minimum Scheduled Caste population percentage required for a village to be eligible under PMAGY?
A) 25%
B) 30%
C) 40%
D) 50%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 40%
161. How much funding per village is provided under PMAGY for infrastructure development?
A) ₹10 lakh
B) ₹15 lakh
C) ₹20 lakh
D) ₹25 lakh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ₹20 lakh
162. PM-AJAY’s ‘Grants-in-Aid’ component provides a capital subsidy of up to how much for SC households?
A) ₹25,000 or 50% of asset cost
B) ₹50,000 or 50% of asset cost
C) ₹75,000 or 40% of asset cost
D) ₹1,00,000 or 60% of asset cost
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) ₹50,000 or 50% of asset cost
163. Which ministry administers both PMAGY and PM-AJAY?
A) Ministry of Rural Development
B) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
C) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
D) Ministry of Minority Affairs
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
164. The Special Intervention under PM-NAPS for the North-Eastern Region has been extended through which fiscal year?
A) FY 2025–26
B) FY 2026–27
C) FY 2027–28
D) FY 2028–29
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) FY 2026–27
165. Under PM-NAPS, the Centre reimburses what percentage of the stipend, subject to a maximum of ₹1,500 per month?
A) 15%
B) 20%
C) 25%
D) 30%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 20%
166. Which agency implements Designated Trades under PM-NAPS?
A) National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC)
B) Directorate General of Training (DGT)
C) Ministry of Labour and Employment
D) Sector Skill Councils
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Directorate General of Training (DGT)
167. Under the National Anti-Doping framework, NADA has transitioned from a registered society into:
A) A private trust
B) A statutory authority
C) An advisory committee
D) A non-profit foundation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) A statutory authority
168. The ‘Strict Liability Principle’ under the National Anti-Doping Act holds athletes responsible for prohibited substances:
A) Only if intent is proven
B) Only in case of negligence
C) Irrespective of intent, negligence or fault
D) Only if support personnel are also involved
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Irrespective of intent, negligence or fault
169. Who chairs the National Anti-Doping Appeal Panel?
A) A retired Supreme Court judge
B) A retired High Court judge
C) The Sports Minister
D) The Director General of NADA
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) A retired High Court judge
170. Vikram-1, India’s first privately developed orbital rocket, was launched by which company?
A) Agnikul Cosmos
B) Skyroot Aerospace
C) Bellatrix Aerospace
D) Dhruva Space
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Skyroot Aerospace
171. India’s private space startup ecosystem has grown from one startup in 2014 to how many in 2026?
A) More than 200
B) More than 300
C) More than 400
D) More than 500
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) More than 400
172. India aims to develop a space economy worth how much by 2040?
A) USD 40 billion
B) USD 60 billion
C) USD 100 billion
D) USD 150 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) USD 100 billion
173. Which body functions as the single-window regulator for space activities under the Indian Space Policy, 2023?
A) ISRO
B) IN-SPACe
C) NSIL
D) DRDO
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) IN-SPACe
174. Under the Indian Space Policy 2023, what is the automatic FDI limit in satellite manufacturing and operations?
A) 49%
B) 51%
C) 74%
D) 100%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 74%
175. NSIL, defined as the commercial arm of ISRO, had launched how many satellites as of July 2026?
A) 101
B) 121
C) 141
D) 161
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 141
176. Vikram-1’s launch makes India the third country, after which two nations, to possess private sector orbital launch capability?
A) Russia and China
B) United States and China
C) United States and Russia
D) China and Japan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) United States and China
177. What is the payload capacity of Vikram-1 to Low Earth Orbit (LEO)?
A) Up to 150 kg
B) Up to 250 kg
C) Up to 350 kg
D) Up to 500 kg
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Up to 350 kg
178. NITI Aayog’s Investment Friendliness Index assesses States and UTs across how many critical pillars?
A) 5
B) 6
C) 8
D) 10
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 8
179. In the Investment Friendliness Index, which states are ranked as ‘Top Performers’ with scores above 50?
A) Karnataka, Kerala, Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan
B) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Goa and Odisha
C) Delhi, UP, Bihar, MP and Assam
D) West Bengal, Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Bihar
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Goa and Odisha
180. What is the highest peak of Mount Olympus, recently nominated for the UNESCO World Heritage List?
A) Mytikas – 2,917.7 metres
B) Skolio – 2,911 metres
C) Stefani – 2,905 metres
D) Profitis Ilias – 2,803 metres
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Mytikas – 2,917.7 metres
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