Practice the May 2026 Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the third week of May 2026.
The Current Affairs Quiz of 15 to 21 May features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.
3rd Week of May 2026: Current Affairs Quiz
1. The Scheme for Promotion of Surface Coal/Lignite Gasification Projects was approve by which body and supports India’s target of gasifying how much coal by 2030?
A) Parliament; 50 million tonnes
B) Union Cabinet; 100 million tonnes
C) NITI Aayog; 150 million tonnes
D) Ministry of Coal; 200 million tonnes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Union Cabinet; 100 million tonnes
2. Under the scheme, eligible projects may receive financial incentives of up to what percentage of the cost of plant and machinery?
A) 10%
B) 15%
C) 20%
D) 25%
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) 20%
3. What is the maximum incentive cap for a single project under the Coal/Lignite Gasification Scheme?
A) ₹2,000 crore
B) ₹3,500 crore
C) ₹5,000 crore
D) ₹7,500 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ₹5,000 crore
4. The current scheme builds upon the National Coal Gasification Mission launched in which year?
A) 2018
B) 2019
C) 2021
D) 2023
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2021
5. Lignite differs from higher grades of coal primarily in that it has:
A) Higher carbon content and lower moisture
B) Lower carbon content, lower calorific value and higher moisture content
C) Higher calorific value and negligible moisture
D) The same carbon content as bituminous coal
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Lower carbon content, lower calorific value and higher moisture
content
6.In which of the following states is lignite NOT significantly distributed in India?
A) Tamil Nadu
B) Gujarat
C) Rajasthan
D) Jharkhand
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Jharkhand
7. The syngas produced through coal gasification can be used for which of the following applications?
A) Synthetic fuels and fertilisers only
B) Chemicals, industrial feedstock, synthetic fuels and fertilisers
C) Nuclear fuel rods and biofuels only
D) Aviation turbine fuel exclusively
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Chemicals, industrial feedstock, synthetic fuels and fertilisers
8. The UNDP report ‘Who Pays the Price? Gender Inequality and Sovereign Debt’ was released under which UNDP initiative?
A) GENDERACT
B) EQUANOMICS
C) WOMENRISE
D) FISCALGENDER
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) EQUANOMICS
9. According to the UNDP report, how many women’s jobs face immediate risk due to hig sovereign debt servicing pressures?
A) ~25 million
B) ~40 million
C) ~55 million
D) ~70 million
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ~55 million
10. The report projects that high sovereign debt is associated with a rise in maternal mortality by approximately:
A) 12.5%
B) 22%
C) 32.5%
D) 45%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 32.5%
11. According to the UNDP report, women’s per capita income is projected to decline by approximately what percentage due to sovereign debt burdens?
A) ~5%
B) ~10%
C) ~17%
D) ~25%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ~17%
12. Which of the following is a key recommendation of the UNDP EQUANOMICS report?
A) Imposing a global tax on sovereign borrowings to fund gender equality
B) Incorporating gender impact analysis into sovereign debt management frameworks
C) Banning austerity measures in developing nations
D) Creating a new UN body exclusively for women’s fiscal protection
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Incorporating gender impact analysis into sovereign debt management
frameworks
13. Sirhind Fateh Diwas is observed annually from 12–14 May to commemorate the 1710 conquest of Sirhind, which led to the establishment of the first sovereign Sikh state with its
capital at:
A) Amritsar
B) Anandpur Sahib
C) Lohgarh
D) Lahore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Lohgarh
14. Baba Banda Singh Bahadur’s original name before becoming a disciple of Guru Gobind Singh was:
A) Ratan Das
B) Lachhman Dev
C) Madho Das
D) Hari Singh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Lachhman Dev
15. In the Battle of Chappar Chiri (1710), Banda Singh Bahadur defeated which Mughal official?
A) Aurangzeb
B) Farrukhsiyar
C) Wazir Khan
D) Zulfiqar Khan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Wazir Khan
16. Which of the following administrative reforms did Banda Singh Bahadur implement in territories under his control?
A) Abolition of Zamindari system and granting land ownership to farmers
B) Introduction of Mughal-style revenue collection
C) Establishment of a Sikh Sharia court system
D) Creation of a permanent Mughal-aligned jagirdari system
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Abolition of Zamindari system and granting land ownership to farmers
17. Banda Singh Bahadur was captured after an eight-month siege at which location in 1715?
A) Anandpur Sahib
B) Gurdas Nangal
C) Sirhind
D) Samana
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Gurdas Nangal
18. Banda Singh Bahadur was executed in 1716 on the orders of which Mughal Emperor?
A) Aurangzeb
B) Bahadur Shah I
C) Jahandar Shah
D) Farrukhsiyar
Show Answer
Correct Answer:D) Farrukhsiyar
19. The National Testing Agency (NTA) was established in which year and is registered under which Act?
A) 2014; Companies Act, 2013
B) 2017; Societies Registration Act, 1860
C) 2019; Autonomous Bodies Act, 2015
D) 2016; Public Institutions Act, 1958
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 2017; Societies Registration Act, 1860
20. NTA functions under which Ministry of the Government of India?
A) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
B) Ministry of Science and Technology
C) Ministry of Education
D) Prime Minister’s Office
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Ministry of Education
21. According to the reports, how many out of fourteen major examinations conducted by NTA have reportedly faced issues like paper leaks and security breaches?
A) 2 out of 14
B) 3 out of 14
C) 5 out of 14
D) 7 out of 14
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 5 out of 14
22. The Radhakrishnan Committee recommended a ‘Hybrid Examination Delivery Model’ which proposes:
A) Full online computer-based testing only
B) Encrypted question papers digitally transmitted to secure local printing facilities
C) Complete outsourcing of printing to private agencies
D) Handwritten examinations to prevent digital leaks
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Encrypted question papers digitally transmitted to secure local printing
facilities
23. The Radhakrishnan Committee recommended ‘Dynamic Question Encryption’ primarily to:
A) Reduce examination fees for students
B) Generate randomly unique question paper combinations at the time of examination to reduce leak risks
C) Allow students to choose their question paper difficulty level
D) Standardise all questions across regional languages
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Generate randomly unique question paper combinations at the time of
examination to reduce leak risks
24. Blue Moon MK1, also referred to as ‘Endurance’, is developed by which company in partnership with NASA?
A) SpaceX
B) Boeing
C) Blue Origin
D) Lockheed Martin
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Blue Origin
25.Blue Moon MK1 is classified as which type of spacecraft?
A) Crewed lunar orbiter
B) Unmanned lunar cargo lander
C) Mars exploration rover
D) Deep space communication satellite
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Unmanned lunar cargo lander
26. Blue Moon MK1 is planned to be launched aboard which rocket?
A) Samsung Electronics, South Korea
B) Intel Corporation, USA
C) Powerchip Semiconductor Manufacturing Corporation (PSMC), Taiwan
D) TSMC, Taiwan
Show Answer
Correct Answer:D) New Glenn heavy-lift rocket
27. Blue Moon MK1 supports which NASA programme that seeks to re-establish human missions to the Moon?
A) Apollo Next
B) Artemis Programme
C) Lunar Gateway Initiative
D) Project Constellation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Artemis Programme
28. The Swadeshi Platform was launched by which entity to strengthen market access for grassroots producers?
A) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
B) NPCI Digital India
C) DigiHaat
D) GeM (Government e-Marketplace)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) DigiHaat
29. The Swadeshi Platform operates within the framework of which digital commerce ecosystem?
A) GSTN (Goods and Services Tax Network)
B) Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC)
C) Unified Payments Interface (UPI) ecosystem
D) National e-Governance Plan (NeGP)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC)
30. DigiHaat functions as a subsidiary of which entity and is classified under which legal structure?
A) Ministry of Commerce; Government Department
B) Nirmit Bharat; Section 8 not-for-profit entity
C) DPIIT; Statutory Body
D) NASSCOM; Industry Association
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Nirmit Bharat; Section 8 not-for-profit entity
31. LEADS stands for which full form and was launched in which year?
A) Logistics Enhancement Across Different States; 2015
B) Logistics Ease Across Different States; 2018
C) Logistics Efficiency Assessment for Developing States; 2019
D) Logistics Evaluation Across Diverse Sectors; 2020
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Logistics Ease Across Different States; 2018
32. The LEADS framework draws inspiration from which international index?
A) IMF Global Competitiveness Index
B) World Economic Forum Infrastructure Index
C) World Bank Logistics Performance Index (LPI)
D) UNCTAD Trade Facilitation Index
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) World Bank Logistics Performance Index (LPI)
33. The LEADS 2025 edition replaced the earlier three-tier classification with a new four-tier model. Which of the following is NOT one of the new four categories?
A) Exemplars
B) Accelerators
C) Champions
D) Growth-Seekers
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Champions
34. In LEADS 2025, approximately what percentage of weightage was assigned to measurable and evidence-based indicators?
A) 35%
B) 45%
C) 59%
D) 72%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 59%
35. Which of the following states was classified as an ‘Exemplar’ in LEADS 2025?
A) Gujarat
B) West Bengal
C) Rajasthan
D) Uttar Pradesh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Uttar Pradesh
36.LEAPS stands for which full form?
A) Logistics Excellence, Advancement and Performance Shield
B) Logistics Efficiency and Performance Standards
C) Logistics Evaluation and Promotion Scheme
D) Logistics Enhancement, Awards and Priority Systems
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Logistics Excellence, Advancement and Performance Shield
37. The concept of the ‘Thucydides Trap’ refers to:
A) Economic recession caused by trade wars between two major powers
B) Heightened risk of conflict when a rising power challenges an established dominant power
C) Military alliance formed by smaller nations against a dominant power
D) Diplomatic isolation of a rising power by existing powers
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Heightened risk of conflict when a rising power challenges an established dominant power
38.The Thucydides Trap concept originates from Thucydides’ analysis of which ancient conflict?
A) Greco-Persian Wars (Athens vs. Persia)
B) Peloponnesian War (Athens vs. Sparta)
C) Macedonian Wars (Macedonia vs. Rome)
D) Punic Wars (Rome vs. Carthage)
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Peloponnesian War (Athens vs. Sparta)
39. In the Thucydides Trap framework applied to the modern China–US context, which roles do the two powers play?
A) China – Established dominant power; USA – Rising challenger
B) China – Rising power; USA – Established dominant power
C) Both are viewed as equally dominant powers in transition
D) China – Military power; USA – Economic power
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) China – Rising power; USA – Established dominant power
40. Which of the following is cited as a key criticism of the Thucydides Trap theory?
A) It overestimates the role of trade in causing wars
B) It oversimplifies international politics by implying conflict becomes unavoidable during power transitions
C) It ignores military power as a factor in interstate conflicts
D) It was developed without empirical historical evidence
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) It oversimplifies international politics by implying conflict becomes unavoidable during power transitions
41.The Indian Ocean Dialogue (IOD) is classified as which type of diplomatic forum?
A) Track 1 (official government-to-government)
B) Track 2 (academic and think-tank only)
C) Track 1.5 (combining policymakers with strategic experts and academics)
D) Track 3 (civil society and NGO level)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Track 1.5 (combining policymakers with strategic experts and academics)
42. The Indian Ocean Dialogue was launched in which year as an initiative of IORA?
A) 2010
B) 2013
C) 2016
D) 2018
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 2013
43.India has assumed the Chairship of IORA for which term?
A) 2023–2025
B) 2024–2026
C) 2025–2027
D) 2026–2028
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) 2025–2027
44.The Indian Council of World Affairs (ICWA), which co-organised the 10th IOD, was established in which year?
A) 1935
B) 1943
C) 1947
D) 1952
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) 1943
45. IORA stands for which full form and promotes cooperation among countries bordering which ocean?
A) Indian Ocean Regional Assembly; Indian Ocean
B) Indian Ocean Rim Association; Indian Ocean
C) Indo-Pacific Ocean Research Association; Pacific Ocean
D) Indian Ocean Regional Alliance; Indo-Pacific
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Indian Ocean Rim Association; Indian Ocean
46. ‘Kallakkadal’ is a coastal phenomenon that refers to:
A) Tsunami waves generated by underwater earthquakes
B) Sudden and unusually intense swell surges causing unexpected coastal flooding
C) Seasonal cyclonic storm surges during the monsoon
D) Tidal bores caused by gravitational pull of the moon
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Sudden and unusually intense swell surges causing unexpected coastal flooding
47. The term Kallakkadal originates from Malayalam. What does it literally mean?
A) ‘The angry sea’
B) ‘The sea that arrives like a thief’
C) ‘The silent wave’
D) ‘The killer flood’
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) ‘The sea that arrives like a thief‘
48.Kallakkadal swell surges are generated by:
A) Local cyclones along the Kerala coast
B) Underwater volcanic eruptions near the Andaman Islands
C) Distant storms occurring in the southern Indian Ocean
D) Strong monsoon winds from the Arabian Sea
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) Distant storms occurring in the southern Indian Ocean
49.Which feature makes Kallakkadal particularly challenging to forecast?
A) It occurs during peak cyclone season with multiple competing weather systems
B) It occurs without local storm activity, strong coastal winds, or visible warning signs
C) Its wave height cannot be measured by existing tide gauges
D) It is irregular and occurs only once every decade
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) It occurs without local storm activity, strong coastal winds, or visible warning signs
50. The Coastal Flood Monitoring System to strengthen Kallakkadal forecasting was installed near which harbour?
A) Kochi Harbour
B) Vizhinjam Harbour
C) Kollam Harbour
D) Mangaluru Harbour
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) Kollam Harbour
51.The Mizoram Ginger Mission was launched by which Ministry?
A) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
B) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
C) Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER)
D) Ministry of Food Processing Industries
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER)
52. The Mizoram Ginger Mission supports which broader regional product promotion strategy?
A) ‘Make in Northeast’ Initiative
B) ‘Brand Northeast’ Strategy
C) ‘Northeast Organic’ Campaign
D) ‘Aatmanirbhar Northeast’ Programme
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) ‘Brand Northeast’ Strategy
53. . Which of the following is NOT listed among other prominent ‘Brand Northeast’ products alongside Mizo Ginger?
A) Lakadong Turmeric
B) Kiwi from Arunachal Pradesh
C) Queen Pineapple from Tripura
D) Assam Green Tea
Show Answer
Correct Answer:D) Assam Green Tea
54.The IP Catalyst Initiative was launched by which Ministry?
A) Ministry of Science and Technology
B) Ministry of Commerce and Industry (DPIIT)
C) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
D) NITI Aayog
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
55.The IP Catalyst initiative is being implemented by which nodal body?
A) National Informatics Centre (NIC)
B) Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC)
C) Software Technology Parks of India (STPI)
D) Digital India Corporation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC)
56.Patent filings in India’s Electronics and IT sector during FY 2025–26 crossed how many filings, reflecting a 52% rise?
A) 75,000
B) 1.10 lakh
C) 1.43 lakh
D) 1.75 lakh
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) 1.43 lakh
57. The Bharatiya Bhasha Summer Camp (BBSC) was organised by which Ministry for students from which classes?
A) Ministry of Culture; Classes 6 to 12
B) Ministry of Education; Classes 1 to 12
C) Ministry of Women and Child Development; Classes 3 to 10
D) Ministry of Skill Development; Classes 8 to 12
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Ministry of Education; Classes 1 to 12
58. A notable first-time inclusion in the Bharatiya Bhasha Summer Camp 2026 was:
A) Introduction of Sanskrit as a compulsory language
B) Incorporation of Indian Sign Language (ISL)
C) Addition of foreign languages like French and Mandarin
D) Integration of coding and digital literacy sessions
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Incorporation of Indian Sign Language (ISL)
59. Lormalzi (donanemab), approved in India, is the country’s first disease-modifying therapy for which disease?
A) Parkinson’s disease
B) Multiple Sclerosis
C) Huntington’s disease
D) Early-stage Alzheimer’s disease
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Early-stage Alzheimer’s disease
60.Donanemab (Lormalzi) works through which mechanism?
A) Stimulating dopamine production in the brain
B) Blocking acetylcholine breakdown in neuronal synapses
C) Targeting and clearing amyloid-beta plaques in the brain as a monoclonal antibody
D) Reducing neuroinflammation via cytokine suppression
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Targeting and clearing amyloid-beta plaques in the brain as a monoclonal antibody
61. India–UAE diplomatic relations were established in which year, and bilateral ties were elevated to a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership in which year?
A) 1947; 2005
B) 1972; 2017
C) 1980; 2020
D) 1991; 2015
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 1972; 2017
62. . India–UAE bilateral merchandise trade crossed which landmark figure in FY 2025–26?
A) USD 50 billion
B) USD 75 billion
C) USD 100 billion
D) USD 150 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) USD 100 billion
63. UAE holds which rank among India’s crude oil suppliers, LNG suppliers, and LPG suppliers respectively?
A) 2nd; 2nd; 2nd
B) 3rd; 2nd; 1st
C) 4th; 3rd; 1st
D) 5th; 4th; 2nd
Show Answer
Correct Answer: : C) 4th; 3rd; 1st
64. An MoU was signed during PM Modi’s UAE visit between Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves Limited and which company, to store up to 30 million barrels of crude oil?
A) Saudi Aramco
B) Qatar Petroleum
C) Abu Dhabi National Oil Company (ADNOC)
D) Kuwait Petroleum Corporation
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) Abu Dhabi National Oil Company (ADNOC)
65. A term sheet was signed during the UAE visit to set up 8 Exaflop Super Computing Clusters, involving a partnership between which two entities?
A) ISRO and UAE Space Agency
B) Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) and G42
C) DRDO and Abu Dhabi Defence Authority
D) NASSCOM and Mubadala Investment Company
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) and G42
66.The MoU for establishing a Ship Repair Cluster at Vadinar was signed between which two organisations during PM Modi’s UAE visit?
A) ONGC and ADNOC
B) Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL) and Drydocks World (DDW)
C) Mazagon Dock and DP World
D) Hindustan Shipyard Limited and Abu Dhabi Ports
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL) and Drydocks World (DDW
67. Abu Dhabi Investment Authority and National Infrastructure and Investment Fund agreed to explore investments of up to how much in India’s infrastructure sector?
A) USD 500 million
B) USD 1 billion
C) USD 5 billion
D) USD 10 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) USD 1 billion
68.India’s first Human-Elephant Conflict (HEC) Research Centre is being established in which state and at which location?
A) Odisha; Simlipal Tiger Reserve
B) Jharkhand; Palamu Tiger Reserve
C) Assam; Kaziranga National Park
D) Chhattisgarh; Achanakmar Tiger Reserve
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Jharkhand; Palamu Tiger Reserve
69. Approximately how many people die annually in elephant-related incidents in India?
A) ~200
B) ~350
C) ~500
D) ~750
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) ~500
70. Project Elephant was launched by the Government of India in which year?
A) 1985
B) 1988
C) 1992
D) 1998
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1992
71.The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has identified approximately how many elephant corridors across India?
A) ~50
B) ~100
C) ~150
D) ~200
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ~150
72. Project RE-HAB, implemented by KVIC, uses which innovative mechanism to deter elephants from entering farms?
A) Solar-powered electric fencing
B) Bee boxes whose buzzing sound deters elephants
C) Chilli smoke barriers
D) Motion-sensor floodlights
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Bee boxes whose buzzing sound deters elephants
73. According to the WHO World Health Statistics Report 2026, new HIV infections declined by approximately what percentage between 2010 and 2024?
A) ~20%
B) ~30%
C) ~40%
D) ~55%
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) ~40%
74.Despite progress in other diseases, global malaria incidence increased by what percentage since 2015 according to the report?
A) 3.5%
B) 5.2%
C) 8.5%
D) 12.3%
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) 8.5%
75.Air pollution causes approximately how many deaths annually worldwide according to the WHO 2026 report?
A) ~2 million
B) ~4.2 million
C) ~6.6 million
D) ~9 million
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) ~6.6 million
76.The Universal Health Coverage (UHC) service index improved from 68 to what figure between 2015 and 2023?
A) 69
B) 70
C) 71
D) 73
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 71
77.The WHO report estimates COVID-19 caused approximately how many excess deaths between 2020 and 2023?
A) 7 million
B) 12.5 million
C) 18.3 million
D) 22.1 million
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 22.1 million
78.Since 2000, maternal mortality declined by approximately how much, and under-five mortality reduced by approximately how much according to the WHO report?
A) 20%; 30%
B) 30%; 45%
C) 40%; 51%
D) 50%; 60%
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) 40%; 51%
79.The ‘Lion’ Species Spotlight Programme was launched at which national park, and by whom?
A) Jim Corbett National Park; PM Narendra Modi
B) Gir National Park; Bhupender Yadav
C) Sariska Tiger Reserve; Minister of State for Environment
D) Ranthambore Tiger Reserve; Chief Wildlife Warden of Gujarat
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Gir National Park; Bhupender Yadav
80. The International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) is dedicated to the conservation of how many major big cat species? Name them.
A) 5 species: Tiger, Lion, Leopard, Snow Leopard, Cheetah
B) 7 species: Lion, Tiger, Leopard, Snow Leopard, Cheetah, Jaguar, Puma
C) 6 species: Tiger, Lion, Leopard, Cheetah, Jaguar, Clouded Leopard
D) 8 species: Tiger, Lion, Leopard, Snow Leopard, Cheetah, Jaguar, Puma, Cougar
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) 7 species: Lion, Tiger, Leopard, Snow Leopard, Cheetah, Jaguar, Puma
81.India will host the first-ever IBCA Summit in which city and in which month?
A) Mumbai; September 2026
B) New Delhi; June 2026
C) Bengaluru; August 2026
D) Ahmedabad; October 2026
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) New Delhi; June 2026
82. The Asiatic lion population in the Greater Gir Landscape reached how many in 2025, marking a 32% rise compared to 2020?
A) 674
B) 750
C) 891
D) 960
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 891
83. Which wildlife sanctuary is being developed as a secondary habitat for Asiatic lions beyond Gir?
A) Velavadar Blackbuck Sanctuary
B) Barda Wildlife Sanctuary
C) Narayan Sarovar Sanctuary
D) Jessore Sloth Bear Sanctuary
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Barda Wildlife Sanctuary
84.Kalam & Kavach 3.0 was organised by which Ministry and what was its theme?
A) Ministry of Home Affairs; ‘Digital Defence India’
B) Ministry of Defence; ‘Taking JAI Forward With I²’
C) Ministry of External Affairs; ‘Strategic Autonomy 2030’
D) PMO; ‘Aatmanirbhar Defence Vision
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Ministry of Defence; ‘Taking JAI Forward With I²’
85.In the theme of Kalam & Kavach 3.0, ‘JAI’ stands for which three concepts?
A) Jointness, AI, Innovation
B) Justice, Aatmanirbharta, Integration
C) Jointness, Aatmanirbharta, Innovation
D) Justice, Automation, Indigenisation
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) Jointness, Aatmanirbharta, Innovation
86.In the theme of Kalam & Kavach 3.0, ‘I²’ stands for which two concepts?
A) Innovation and Integration
B) Indigenisation and International Collaboration
C) Intelligence and Infrastructure
D) Integration and Investment
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Indigenisation and International Collaboration
87. India and UAE cooperate under which trilateral framework involving France?
A) QUAD Plus
B) I2U2
C) UAE–France–India Trilateral Framework
D) G3 Energy Forum
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) UAE–France–India Trilateral Framework
88. I2U2, of which India and UAE are members, also includes which other two countries?
A) UK and France
B) Israel and USA
C) Saudi Arabia and Jordan
D) Germany and Japan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Israel and USA
89. The approximate number of Indians residing in the UAE, forming its largest expatriate community, is:
A) ~1.5 million
B) ~2.5 million
C) ~3.5 million
D) ~5 million
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ~3.5 million
90.Which of the following statements about Gir National Park is INCORRECT?
A) It is located across Junagadh, Gir Somnath and Amreli districts of Gujarat
B) It is the world’s only natural habitat of the Asiatic Lion
C) It is also home to Bengal tigers and snow leopards
D) It has rich biodiversity including leopards, crocodiles and diverse bird species
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) It is also home to Bengal tigers and snow leopards
91. The Bhojshala–Kamal Maula Complex is located in which district and state of India?
A) Ujjain, Madhya Pradesh
B) Dhar, Madhya Pradesh
C) Indore, Madhya Pradesh
D) Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Dhar, Madhya Pradesh
92.The Bhojshala complex is historically associated with which dynasty and which ruler?
A) Chandela dynasty and Yashovarman
B) Paramara dynasty and Raja Bhoj
C) S9olanki dynasty and Kumarpal
D) Rashtrakuta dynasty and Amoghavarsha
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Paramara dynasty and Raja Bhoj
93. Hindus claim Bhojshala was originally a temple dedicated to which deity, also known as Vagdevi?
A) Goddess Lakshmi
B) Goddess Durga
C) Goddess Saraswati
D) Goddess Parvati
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Goddess Saraswati
94.Under a 2003 ASI arrangement, what was the arrangement for worship at the Bhojshala Kamal Maula complex?
A) Only Hindus were permitted to worship on all days
B) Both communities were permitted to offer worship on separate designated days
C) The site was sealed and no worship was permitted
D) Only Muslims were permitted to offer Friday prayers
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Both communities were permitted to offer worship on separate designated days
95.The Sanskrit inscriptions at Bhojshala mention which Paramara rulers?
A) Bhoja, Munja and Sindhuraja
B) Udayaditya, Naravarman and Arjunavarma Deva
C) Vakpati, Siyaka and Harsha
D) Devapala, Vairisimha and Vikramaditya
Show Answer
Correct Answer:: B) Udayaditya, Naravarman and Arjunavarma Deva
96.The Anaimangalam Copper Plates were returned to India by which country, and during which PM’s visit to which city?
A) France; during PM Modi’s visit to Paris
B) Netherlands; during PM Modi’s visit to The Hague
C) UK; during PM Modi’s visit to London
D) Germany; during PM Modi’s visit to Berlin
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Netherlands; during PM Modi’s visit to The Hague
97. The Anaimangalam Copper Plates are 11th-century royal charters commissioned by which Chola ruler?
A) Kulottunga Chola I
B) Rajaraja Chola I (later engraved under Rajendra Chola I)
C) Rajendra Chola II
D) Vikrama Chola
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Rajaraja Chola I (later engraved under Rajendra Chola I)
98.The inscriptions on the Anaimangalam Copper Plates record grants made to which monastery?
A) Nalanda Mahavihara
B) Vikramashila Vihara
C) Chulamanivarma Vihara Buddhist monastery
D) Odantapuri Vihara
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) Chulamanivarma Vihara Buddhist monastery
99. The Chola dynastic emblem displayed on the bronze loop of the Anaimangalam Copper Plates features symbols representing which three dynasties?
A) Tiger (Cholas), Elephant (Pallavas), Bow (Rashtrakutas)
B) Tiger (Cholas), Fish (Pandyas), Bow (Cheras)
C) Lion (Cholas), Tiger (Pandyas), Sword (Cheras)
D) Bull (Cholas), Fish (Pandyas), Lotus (Hoysalas)
Show Answer
Correct Answer:: B) Tiger (Cholas), Fish (Pandyas), Bow (Cheras)
100. The Anaimangalam Copper Plates were acquired around 1700 CE by which Dutch individual, during whose colonial rule?
A) Jan Pieterszoon Coen; VOC rule over Bengal
B) Florentius Camper; Dutch East India Company rule over the Coromandel Coast
C) Abel Tasman; Dutch rule over Goa
D) Cornelis de Houtman; VOC rule over Malabar
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Florentius Camper; Dutch East India Company rule over the Coromandel Coast
101. The WHO declared the Ebola outbreak in DR Congo a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC). The current outbreak is linked to which virus strain?
A) Zaire virus (deadliest strain)
B) Sudan virus
C) Bundibugyo virus
D) Reston virus
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Bundibugyo virus
102. The outbreak was detected in which province of DR Congo?
A) Kasai Province
B) Kivu Province
C) Katanga Province
D) Ituri Province
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Ituri Province
103. Ebola Virus Disease (EVD) was first identified in which year and near which geographic feature in present-day DR Congo?
A) 1967; Congo River
B) 1972; Ubangi River
C) 1976; Ebola River
D) 1980; Lualaba River
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) 1976; Ebola River
104.Ebola viruses belong to which genus under which family?
A) Ebolavirus genus; Paramyxoviridae family
B) Orthoebolavirus genus; Filoviridae family
C) Marburgvirus genus; Rhabdoviridae family
D) Alphavirus genus; Togaviridae family
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Orthoebolavirus genus; Filoviridae family
105.Which of the following is NOT among the six known species of Orthoebolaviruses?
A) Bombali virus
B) Bundibugyo virus
C) Reston virus
D) Nipah virus
Show Answer
Correct Answer:D) Nipah virus
106.Which of the following vaccines has been developed against Ebola?
A) Covaxin and Covishield
B) Ervebo, Zabdeno and Mvabea
C) Sputnik V and Janssen
D) BCG and OPV
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Ervebo, Zabdeno and Mvabea
107.India assumed the Chairmanship of the Common Criteria Development Board (CCDB) for the 2026–2028 period. What does CCDB primarily manage?
A) Cybersecurity protocols for military communications
B) Common Criteria (CC) framework for IT product security evaluation and Common Methodology for
IT Security Evaluation (CEM)
C) International data privacy standards for governments
D) Global internet governance and domain name systems
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Common Criteria (CC) framework for IT product security evaluation and Common Methodology for IT Security Evaluation (CEM)
108.The Common Criteria Recognition Arrangement (CCRA) includes how many certificate authorising nations and certificate-consuming nations?
A) 15 authorising; 10 consuming
B) 20 authorising; 18 consuming
C) 25 authorising; 20 consuming
D) 30 authorising; 25 consuming
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) 20 authorising; 18 consuming
109.India has been a certificate-authorising nation under CCRA since which year?
A) 2008
B) 2010
C) 2013
D) 2016
Show Answer
Correct Answer:: C) 2013
110.Which Ministry’s directorate serves as India’s nodal agency for the CCRA?
A) Standardisation Testing and Quality Certification Directorate under MeitY
B) Cyber Security Division under Ministry of Home Affairs
C) National Informatics Centre under Ministry of Electronics
D) DRDO under Ministry of Defence
Show Answer
Correct Answer:A) Standardisation Testing and Quality Certification Directorate under MeitY
111.The Afsluitdijk Dam in the Netherlands is how long, and what did it transform the saline Zuiderzee inlet into?
A) 18 km long; transformed into the Rhine estuary
B) 25 km long; transformed into the Wadden Sea
C) 32 km long; transformed into the freshwater IJsselmeer lake
D) 45 km long; transformed into the North Sea Lagoon
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 32 km long; transformed into the freshwater IJsselmeer lake
112. The India–Netherlands cooperation on water management inspired by the Afsluitdijk Dam visit is particularly relevant for which proposed Indian project?
A) Ken–Betwa River Link Project
B) Kalpasar Project in Gujarat (dam across the Gulf of Khambhat)
C) Polavaram Multipurpose Project in Andhra Pradesh
D) Dibang Multipurpose Project in Arunachal Pradesh
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Kalpasar Project in Gujarat (dam across the Gulf of Khambhat)
113. India is the world’s largest producer of jaggery, contributing over what percentage of global production?
A) 40%
B) 55%
C) 70%
D) 85%
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) 70%
114.Which state is the largest producer of jaggery in India as of 2024, contributing 48.5% of national production?
A) Maharashtra
B) Karnataka
C) Gujarat
D) Uttar Pradesh
Show Answer
Correct Answer:D) Uttar Pradesh
115.Sugarcane is processed into which three products, of which jaggery is the most naturally processed form?
A) Ethanol, Molasses and Refined Sugar
B) Jaggery, Khandsari and Refined Sugar
C) Jaggery, Glucose and High-Fructose Corn Syrup
D) Brown Sugar, White Sugar and Molasses
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Jaggery, Khandsari and Refined Sugar
116.Jaggery exports increased by what percentage in value between 2015–16 and 2024–25?
A) 45.5%
B) 76.2%
C) 106.5%
D) 132.8%
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) 106.5%
117. Which state became the first in India to complete all deregulation priority areas under the National Compliance Reduction and Deregulation Initiative?
A) Gujarat
B) Tamil Nadu
C) Tripura
D) Maharashtra
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Tripura
118. The National Compliance Reduction and Deregulation Initiative is led by which body?
A) NITI Aayog
B) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
C) Cabinet Secretariat
D) Ministry of Finance
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Cabinet Secretariat
119. Triacetone Triperoxide (TATP), popularly called ‘Mother of Satan’, is composed of which three chemicals?
A) Nitroglycerin, Sulphuric Acid and Glycerine
B) Acetone, Hydrogen Peroxide and Acid Catalysts
C) RDX, TNT and Aluminium Powder
D) Ammonium Nitrate, Fuel Oil and Urea
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Acetone, Hydrogen Peroxide and Acid Catalysts
120.India’s first satellite-tagged Ganges softshell turtle was released into which river at Kaziranga National Park, and the initiative was led by which institution?
A) Ganga River; Zoological Survey of India (ZSI)
B) Brahmaputra River; Wildlife Institute of India (WII)
C) Godavari River; ICAR
D) Mahanadi River; BNHS
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Brahmaputra River; Wildlife Institute of India (WII)
121. The World Press Freedom Index (WPFI) is compiled annually by which organisation?
A) International IDEA
B) Reporters Without Borders (RSF)
C) UNESCO
D) Committee to Protect Journalists (CPJ
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Reporters Without Borders (RSF)
122.India ranked which position out of 180 countries in the World Press Freedom Index 2026?
A) 131st
B) 142nd
C) 157th
D) 165th
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) 157th
123.Freedom of the press in India is implicitly protected under which Article of the Indian Constitution?
A) Article 14
B) Article 19(1)(a)
C) Article 21
D) Article 32
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Article 19(1)(a)
124.Article 361A of the Indian Constitution safeguards which of the following?
A) Freedom of the press to publish government criticism
B) Substantially true reports of legislative proceedings
C) Right of journalists to protect source identity
D) Media freedom from pre-censorship by the state
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Substantially true reports of legislative proceedings
125.In which landmark case did the Supreme Court link press freedom directly with Article 19(1)(a)?
A) Indian Express Newspapers v. Union of India
B) Romesh Thappar v. State of Madras
C) Sakal Papers v. Union of India
D) Bennet Coleman v. Union of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Romesh Thappar v. State of Madras
126.The Press Council of India was established under which Act and primarily regulates which type of media?
A) Press Council Act, 1965; electronic media
B) Press Council Act, 1978; print media
C) Press Regulation Act, 1982; online media
D) Information Technology Act, 2000; digital media
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Press Council Act, 1978; print media
127. India’s defence production reached a record value in FY 2024–25. What was this figure?
A) ₹85,000 crore
B) ₹1.10 lakh crore
C) ₹1.54 lakh crore
D) ₹2.00 lakh crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) ₹1.54 lakh crore
128.Despite record domestic production, India remains the world’s _ largest arms importer according to SIPRI.
A) 1st
B) 2nd
C) 3rd
D) 4th
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) 2nd
129. The Defence Acquisition Procedure (DAP) 2020 prioritises which procurement category, abbreviated as ‘Buy Indian-IDDM’?
A) Imported Defence Direct to Ministry
B) Indigenously Designed, Developed and Manufactured
C) International Defence and Domestic Manufacturing
D) Indigenously Derived and Domestically Modified
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Indigenously Designed, Developed and Manufactured
130. Under India’s liberalised FDI policy in defence, what are the automatic route and government approval route limits respectively?
A) 49% automatic; 74% government approval
B) 51% automatic; 100% government approval
C) 74% automatic; 100% government approval
D) 26% automatic; 49% government approval
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 74% automatic; 100% government approval
131. India’s two Defence Industrial Corridors are located in which states?
A) Gujarat and Maharashtra
B) Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
C) Rajasthan and Andhra Pradesh
D) Karnataka and Telangana
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
132. The iDEX (Innovations for Defence Excellence) initiative promotes innovation among which entities?
A) Only DRDO laboratories and OFB units
B) Foreign defence OEMs and joint ventures
C) Startups, MSMEs and defence innovators
D) PSUs and state governments
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Startups, MSMEs and defence innovators
133.India and the Netherlands upgraded bilateral ties to a Strategic Partnership and adopted a roadmap for which period?
A) 2025–2030
B) 2026–2030
C) 2026–2031
D) 2027–2032
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) 2026–2030
134. Which Dutch company partnered with Tata Electronics to strengthen India’s semiconductor fabrication ecosystem?
A) Philips
B) NXP Semiconductors
C) ASML
D) IMEC
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) ASML
135.The ‘Brain Bridge’ Initiative under the India–Netherlands roadmap focuses on which areas?
A) Sports diplomacy and cultural exchange
B) Semiconductor research, talent development and advanced technology collaboration between Dutch universities and IITs/IISc
C) Agricultural technology and food security
D) Maritime law and port management
Show Answer
Correct Answerr: B) Semiconductor research, talent development and advanced technology
collaboration between Dutch universities and IITs/IISc
136. Which of the following correctly describes The Hague’s significance in the Netherlands?
A) Official capital and financial centre
B) Seat of government and parliament; hosts International Court of Justice and International Criminal Court
C) Largest port in Europe and trade hub
D) Technology and semiconductor manufacturing hub
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Seat of government and parliament; hosts International Court of Justice and International Criminal Court
137.India and the Netherlands agreed to support which Indian proposal under counter terrorism cooperation?
A) UNSC permanent membership for India
B) Comprehensive Convention on International Terrorism
C) Global Anti-Terrorism Treaty under G20
D) UN Resolution on Digital Terrorism
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Comprehensive Convention on International Terrorism
138. PM Modi was conferred which honour by Norway during his visit to Oslo?
A) Order of the Polar Star
B) Grand Cross of the Royal Norwegian Order of Merit
C) Knight of St. Olav
D) Companion of the Nordic Peace Medal
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Grand Cross of the Royal Norwegian Order of Merit
139. The India-Nordic Summit platform is unique because India is the only country outside which nation with which all five Nordic nations maintain a dedicated multilateral summit framework?
A) Germany
B) China
C) United States
D) United Kingdom
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) United States
140.The five sovereign Nordic nations are:
A) Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway, Sweden
B) Denmark, Finland, Norway, Sweden, Estonia
C) Iceland, Norway, Sweden, Latvia, Lithuania
D) Denmark, Norway, Sweden, Netherlands, Belgium
Show Answer
Correct Answer:A) Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway, Sweden
141.Saab, which became the first foreign company to receive 100% FDI approval in India’s defence sector, manufactures which product under Make in India?
A) Gripen fighter jet
B) Carl-Gustaf M4
C) RBS-70 missile system
D) A-26 submarine
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Carl-Gustaf M4
142. India cooperates with Norway through the Himadri Research Station. What is the primary research focus of this station?
A) Deep-sea marine biodiversity in Arctic waters
B) Impact of Arctic ice melt on the Indian monsoon system
C) Tracking polar bear migration patterns
D) Monitoring submarine volcanic activity near Svalbard
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Impact of Arctic ice melt on the Indian monsoon system
143. Withholding tax is best described as:
A) Tax levied on import of goods crossing Indian customs
B) A tax deducted at source (TDS) before income such as interest, dividends or royalties is paid to the recipient
C) A surcharge on corporate profits remitted abroad
D) An export duty on technology-related services
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) A tax deducted at source (TDS) before income such as interest,
dividends or royalties is paid to the recipient
144.Foreign investors currently pay up to what percentage withholding tax on income like interest from Indian government bonds?
A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 15%
D) 20%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 20%
145.Reducing withholding tax on government bonds is expected to achieve which macroeconomic objective?
A) Reduce fiscal deficit directly
B) Attract more foreign capital into debt markets, strengthen the rupee and improve forex reserve position
C) Increase domestic savings rate
D) Reduce inflation by controlling money supply
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Attract more foreign capital into debt markets, strengthen the rupee
and improve forex reserve position
146.The UAE announced investments of how much in India during PM Modi’s visit?
A) USD 1 billion
B) USD 2 billion
C) USD 5 billion
D) USD 10 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) USD 5 billion
147.A long-term LPG supply pact was signed during PM Modi’s UAE visit between which two entities?
A) BPCL and QatarEnergy
B) Indian Oil Corporation (IOC) and ADNOC
C) HPCL and Emirates National Oil Company
D) ONGC and Abu Dhabi Ports
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Indian Oil Corporation (IOC) and ADNOC
148. Captagon was initially developed for medical treatment of which conditions?
A) Hypertension and diabetes
B) ADHD and Narcolepsy
C) Tuberculosis and malaria
D) Depression and schizophrenia
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) ADHD and Narcolepsy
149.Captagon’s main active component is Fenetylline. When metabolised in the body, it breaks down into which two compounds?
A) Morphine and Codeine
B) Methamphetamine and Caffeine
C) Amphetamine and Theophylline
D) Cocaine and Nicotine
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Amphetamine and Theophylline
150.Under which Indian legislation is Captagon classified as a psychotropic substance?
A) Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860
B) Prevention of Illicit Traffic in Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1988
C) Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act, 1985
D) Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act, 1985
151. Section 43D(5) of UAPA, added through the 2008 Amendment, directs courts to deny bail if case records indicate accusations are prima facie true. This creates which key departure from ordinary criminal law?
A) It removes the right to legal representation for accused
B) It indirectly shifts the burden onto the accused at the bail stage, weakening the presumption of innocence
C) It permanently denies bail rights to all UAPA accused
D) It transfers jurisdiction from High Courts to Special NIA Courts
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) It indirectly shifts the burden onto the accused at the bail stage, weakening the presumption of innocence
152.Under UAPA, investigation can continue for up to how many days before filing a chargesheet, thereby delaying default/statutory bail?
A) 60 days
B) 90 days
C) 180 days
D) 365 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) 180 days
153. In which case did the Supreme Court rule that Article 21 protections, especially the right to speedy trial, cannot be overridden by statutory bail restrictions under UAPA?
A) NIA v. Zahoor Ahmad Shah Watali (2019)
B) Union of India v. K.A. Najeeb (2021)
C) Vernon Gonsalves v. State of Maharashtra (2023)
D) Angela Harish Sontakke v. State of Maharashtra (2016)
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Union of India v. K.A. Najeeb (2021)
154.The NIA v. Zahoor Ahmad Shah Watali (2019) judgment is significant because it held that:
A) Bail should be liberally granted in UAPA cases to protect fundamental rights
B) Prosecution evidence should largely be accepted at face value during bail hearings, making bail under UAPA extremely difficult
C) UAPA provisions are unconstitutional for denying anticipatory bail
D) Courts must independently verify all evidence before denying bail under UAPA
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Prosecution evidence should largely be accepted at face value during bail hearings, making bail under UAPA extremely difficult
155.Section 43D(4) of UAPA bars which type of bail for offences punishable under the Act?
A) Regular bail by Sessions Court
B) Default bail under Section 167 CrPC
C) Anticipatory bail
D) Interim bail during appeal
Show Answer
Correct Answer:: C) Anticipatory bail
156.The Citizenship (Amendment) Rules, 2026 were notified by which Ministry and amend
which earlier rules?
A) Ministry of External Affairs; Citizenship Rules 2003
B) Ministry of Home Affairs; Citizenship Rules 2009
C) Ministry of Law and Justice; Citizenship Rules 2015
D) Ministry of Finance; Citizenship Acquisition Rules 2005
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Ministry of Home Affairs; Citizenship Rules 2009
157. Under the Citizenship (Amendment) Rules 2026, applicants seeking citizenship under CAA must submit an affidavit disclosing passports of which three countries?
A) China, Nepal and Sri Lanka
B) Pakistan, Afghanistan and Bangladesh
C) Myanmar, Bangladesh and Nepal
D) Pakistan, Iran and Afghanistan
Show Answer
Correct Answer:: B) Pakistan, Afghanistan and Bangladesh
158.After approval of Indian citizenship under the 2026 rules, a foreign passport must be surrendered within how many days?
A) 7 days
B) 15 days
C) 30 days
D) 60 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer:: B) 15 days
159. Citizenship provisions in India are governed by which Articles of the Indian Constitution?
A) Articles 1 to 4
B) Articles 5 to 11
C) Articles 12 to 18
D) Articles 19 to 22
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Articles 5 to 11
160. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to regulate citizenship through law?
A) Article 5
B) Article 9
C) Article 11
D) Article 14
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) Article 11
161. The Right to Information Act, 2005 defines a ‘public authority’ under which Section?
A) Section 2(f)
B) Section 2(h)
C) Section 4(1)
D) Section 8(1)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Section 2(h)
162. In Zee Telefilms Ltd. v. Union of India (2005), the Supreme Court held that merely performing public functions does NOT make a body ‘State’ under Article 12. What three-part test was emphasised?
A) Constitutional status, Public funding and Democratic accountability
B) Government must exercise financial, functional and administrative domination
C) Public importance, Monopoly position and Use of public resources
D) Parliamentary creation, Government ownership and Revenue generation from public
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Government must exercise financial, functional and administrative
domination
163.In Supreme Court v. Subhash Chandra Agarwal (2019), the Supreme Court held that which office is a public authority under RTI?
A) Prime Minister’s Office
B) Office of Chief Justice of India
C) BCCI President’s Office
D) Election Commission of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Office of Chief Justice of India
164. Section 8(1) of the RTI Act provides exemptions from disclosure on which grounds?
A) National security, sovereignty and integrity, trade secrets, privacy and strategic interests
B) Political sensitivity, media confidentiality and corporate secrecy
C) Personal preferences of the government department concerned
D) Any information that a public authority deems commercially sensitive
Show Answer
Correct Answer:A) National security, sovereignty and integrity, trade secrets, privacy and strategic interests
165.India and Sweden elevated bilateral relations to a Strategic Partnership with a Joint Action Plan for which period?
A) 2025–2029
B) 2026–2030
C) 2027–2031
D) 2026–2032
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) 2026–2030
166. The Sweden–India Technology and AI Corridor (SITAC) was launched to connect which entities?
A) Startups, AI ecosystems, innovation hubs and research institutions
B) Defence PSUs, semiconductor firms and space agencies
C) Agricultural cooperatives, dairy federations and food tech startups
D) State governments, port authorities and logistics companies
Show Answer
Correct Answer:A) Startups, AI ecosystems, innovation hubs and research institutions
167.Sweden is India’s third largest trading partner in which region?
A) Europe
B) South Asia
C) Asia
D) Indo-Pacific
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Asia
168. A Privilege Notice is derived from which Article of the Indian Constitution?
A) Article 75
B) Article 105
C) Article 122
D) Article 143
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Article 105
169.Under Rajya Sabha rules, privilege notices are governed by which Rule number?
A) Rule 105
B) Rule 149
C) Rule 187
D) Rule 222
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Rule 187
170.The Privileges Committee of Rajya Sabha consists of how many members and is chaired by whom?
A) 15 members; Vice President
B) 10 members; Deputy Chairman
C) 12 members; Chairman
D) 8 members; Leader of Opposition
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) 10 members; Deputy Chairman
171. The Countercyclical Capital Buffer (CCyB) is part of which international banking regulatory framework?
A) Basel I norms
B) Basel II norms
C) Basel III norms
D) OECD Financial Stability Framework
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Basel III norms
172.CCyB was introduced in India by RBI in which year?
A) 2010
B) 2012
C) 2015
D) 2018
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) 2015
173. The primary indicator used to decide CCyB activation is:
A) Inflation rate deviation from RBI target
B) Credit-to-GDP gap (deviation of credit growth from long-term GDP trends)
C) Current Account Deficit as percentage of GDP
D) Non-Performing Asset (NPA) ratio of scheduled commercial banks
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Credit-to-GDP gap (deviation of credit growth from long-term GDP trends)
174. In the Maratha Empire’s peak expansion, influence stretched from Attock (present-day Pakistan) to Cuttack and from the Gulf of Khambhat to beyond which river in the south?
A) Krishna River
B) Godavari River
C) Kaveri River
D) Mahanadi River
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Kaveri River
175.The Battle of Patan (1790) was fought under the command of Benoît de Boigne (serving Mahadji Shinde). It defeated which alliance?
A) Sikh–Afghan alliance
B) Rajput–Mughal alliance
C) British–Hyderabad alliance
D) Mysore–Travancore alliance
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Rajput–Mughal alliance
176.The International Booker Prize 2026 was won by which novel, and what is its historical significance?
A) ‘The Memory Police’ by Yoko Ogawa; first Japanese work to win
B) ‘Taiwan Travelogue’ by Yang Shuang-zi; first Mandarin Chinese-translated work to win
C) ‘Tomb of Sand’ by Geetanjali Shree; first Hindi-translated work to win
D) ‘Prophet Song’ by Paul Lynch; first Irish novel to win
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) ‘Taiwan Travelogue’ by Yang Shuang-zi; first Mandarin Chinese translated work to win
177.SHE-MART stands for which full form and is implemented under which scheme?
A) Self Help Enterprises – Marketing Avenues for Rural Transformation; DAY-NRLM
B) Sustainable Home Entrepreneurs – Market and Retail Training; PM-JANMAN
C) Small Home Enterprises – Marketing and Retail Technology; PMEGP
D) SHG Help Enterprises – Marketing and Revenue Transformation; PMFBY
Show Answer
Correct Answer:A) Self Help Enterprises – Marketing Avenues for Rural Transformation; DAY-NRLM
178. SMILE is a joint space mission between ESA and which partner organisation?
A) ISRO (India)
B) JAXA (Japan)
C) Chinese Academy of Sciences (CAS)
D) NASA (USA)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Chinese Academy of Sciences (CAS)
179.SMILE’s key scientific distinction is that it provides the first-ever simultaneous imaging of Earth’s magnetosphere using which two methods?
A) Infrared and Radar imaging
B) X-ray and Ultraviolet imaging
C) Gamma-ray and LiDAR imaging
D) Optical and Microwave imaging
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) X-ray and Ultraviolet imaging
180.The UNESCO Guillermo Cano World Press Freedom Prize 2026 was awarded to which organisation?
A) Reporters Without Borders (RSF)
B) Committee to Protect Journalists (CPJ)
C) Sudanese Journalists Syndicate (SJS)
D) International Federation of Journalists (IFJ)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Sudanese Journalists Syndicate (SJS)
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