Practice the May 2026 Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the second week of May 2026.
The Current Affairs Quiz of 8 to 14 May features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.
2nd Week of May 2026: Current Affairs Quiz
1. India and Vietnam elevated bilateral ties to which new status during the state visit of To Lam?
A) Comprehensive Strategic Partnership
B) Enhanced Comprehensive Strategic Partnership
C) Special Strategic Partnership
D) Special Comprehensive Partnership
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Enhanced Comprehensive Strategic Partnership
2. Vietnam is India’s _ largest trading partner in ASEAN.
A) 2nd
B) 3rd
C) 4th
D) 5th
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 4th
3. What bilateral trade target was set between India and Vietnam by 2030?
A) USD 10 billion
B) USD 18 billion
C) USD 25 billion
D) USD 30 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) USD 25 billion
4. Which joint military exercise is conducted between India and Vietnam for their armies?
A) Sahyog
B) VINBAX
C) Shakti
D) MITRA SHAKTI
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) VINBAX
5. The Archaeological Survey of India is involved in restoration work at which UNESCO World Heritage Site in Vietnam?
A) Ha Long Bay
B) Hoi An Ancient Town
C) My Son Sanctuary
D) Phong Nha-Ke Bang National Park
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) My Son Sanctuary
6. India’s first Urban Testbed and Aerosol Observatory was inaugurated in which city under Mission Mausam?
A) Mumbai
B) Pune
C) Bengaluru
D) Chennai
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Chennai
7. The Urban Testbed and Aerosol Observatory was developed by which institution?
A) Indian Meteorological Department (IMD)
B) Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM) at SRM Institute
C) National Centre for Medium Range Weather Forecasting (NCMRWF)
D) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM) at SRM Institute
8. Mission Mausam is a flagship initiative of which Ministry?
A) Ministry of Science and Technology
B) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
C) Ministry of Earth Sciences
D) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Ministry of Earth Sciences
9. Aerosols are best defined as:
A) Greenhouse gases emitted from industrial chimneys
B) Tiny solid or liquid particles suspended in the atmosphere such as dust, smoke, and soot
C) High-altitude ozone molecules that absorb UV radiation
D) Water vapour condensed at ground level forming fog
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Tiny solid or liquid particles suspended in the atmosphere such as dust, smoke, and soot
10. In the Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India (2023) case, the Supreme Court directed that CEC appointments be made by a committee comprising PM, Leader of Opposition, and:
A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
B) Chief Justice of India (CJI)
C) Vice President of India
D) Attorney General of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Chief Justice of India (CJI)
11. Under the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment) Act, 2023, the CJI was replaced in the Selection Committee by:
A) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
B) The Vice President of India
C) A Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister
D) The Chief Justice of the Delhi High Court
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) A Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister
12. Article 324(2) of the Indian Constitution provides that CEC and ECs are appointed by the President, subject to:
A) Approval of the Supreme Court collegium
B) Any law made by Parliament
C) Recommendations of the Prime Minister alone
D) Concurrent resolution of both Houses of Parliament
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Any law made by Parliament
13. Under the 2023 Act, what is the tenure of the CEC and Election Commissioners?
A) 5 years or until age 62, whichever is earlier
B) 6 years or until age 65, whichever is earlier
C) 4 years or until age 60, whichever is earlier
D) 6 years or until age 70, whichever is earlier
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 6 years or until age 65, whichever is earlier
14. In the S.R. Bommai v. Union of India case, the Supreme Court held that in a hung assembly situation, majority must be tested:
A) At the Governor’s discretion based on letters of support
B) By the Speaker of the Assembly alone
C) On the floor of the House
D) Through a Presidential reference to the Supreme Court
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) On the floor of the House
15. Under a Floor Test, the majority is calculated based on:
A) Total strength of the House
B) Total elected members excluding nominated members
C) MLAs present and voting (abstentions reduce effective majority required)
D) Two-thirds of total House membership
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) MLAs present and voting (abstentions reduce effective majority required)
16. The Methane Alert and Response System (MARS) was launched at which COP and in which year?
A) COP26, Glasgow, 2021
B) COP27, Sharm el-Sheikh, 2022
C) COP28, Dubai, 2023
D) COP29, Baku, 2024
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) COP27, Sharm el-Sheikh, 2022
17. MARS is developed under which body of the United Nations?
A) UNFCCC Secretariat
B) International Methane Emissions Observatory (IMEO) of UNEP
C) UN Environment Assembly (UNEA)
D) World Meteorological Organization (WMO)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) International Methane Emissions Observatory (IMEO) of UNEP
18. The Global Methane Pledge aims to reduce global methane emissions by what percentage by 2030 compared to 2020 levels?
A) 20%
B) 25%
C) 30%
D) 40%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 30%
19. According to ASUSE 2025, the total number of unincorporated sector establishments in India reached:
A) 5.64 crore
B) 6.77 crore
C) 7.92 crore
D) 9.10 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 7.92 crore
20. Which three states together account for over one-third of total employment in the unincorporated sector as per ASUSE 2025?
A) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu
B) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Maharashtra
C) Rajasthan, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh
D) Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Maharashtra
21. Electronic Gold Receipts (EGRs) are recognised as legal securities under which Act?
A) Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992
B) Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956
C) Depositories Act, 1996
D) Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956
22. Which quality standard must gold backing EGRs conform to?
A) BIS Hallmark Standard
B) ISO 9001 Gold Certification
C) London Bullion Market Association (LBMA) Good Delivery Standard or India Good Delivery
Standard
D) World Gold Council Responsible Mining Standard
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) London Bullion Market Association (LBMA) Good Delivery Standard or India Good Delivery Standard
23. ANEEL (Advanced Nuclear Energy for Enriched Life) fuel combines Thorium with which type of uranium?
A) Highly Enriched Uranium (HEU – >90% U-235)
B) Natural Uranium (~0.7% U-235)
C) HALEU (High-Assay Low-Enriched Uranium, 5%–20% U-235)
D) Depleted Uranium (<0.3% U-235)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) HALEU (High-Assay Low-Enriched Uranium, 5%–20% U-235)
24. ANEEL fuel is compatible with which type of nuclear reactors that India already operates?
A) Boiling Water Reactors (BWRs)
B) Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs)
C) Fast Breeder Reactors (FBRs)
D) Molten Salt Reactors (MSRs)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs)
25. India’s largest thorium reserves are found along the coastal sands of which states?
A) Gujarat, Maharashtra and Goa
B) Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Odisha
C) Andhra Pradesh, West Bengal and Orissa
D) Karnataka, Telangana and Puducherry
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Odisha
26. India’s first commercial-grade wafer fabrication facility at Dholera is developed by Tata Electronics in partnership with which company?
A) Samsung Electronics, South Korea
B) Intel Corporation, USA
C) Powerchip Semiconductor Manufacturing Corporation (PSMC), Taiwan
D) TSMC, Taiwan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Powerchip Semiconductor Manufacturing Corporation (PSMC), Taiwan
27. Under ISM 2.0, India aims to achieve what percentage of semiconductor self-sufficiency by 2029?
A) 50–55%
B) 60–65%
C) 70–75%
D) 80–85%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 70–75%
28. The term ‘Hantavirus’ originates from which river where the virus was first identified in the 1970s?
A) Hanoi River, Vietnam
B) Hantan River
C) Han River, South Korea
D) Huang He River, China
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Han River, South Korea
29. Which unique strain of Hantavirus is known to spread through human-to-human transmission?
A) Seoul Strain
B) Sin Nombre Strain
C) Andes Strain
D) Hantaan Strain
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Andes Strain
30. Who won the Pulitzer Prize in the Illustrated Reporting and Commentary category for the report ‘trAPPed’ on digital arrest scams?
A) Barkha Dutt and Rajdeep Sardesai
B) Anand RK and Suparna Sharma
C) Ravish Kumar and Arfa Khanum
D) Siddharth Varadarajan and Rana Ayyub
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Anand RK and Suparna Sharma
31. The National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) was established in which year and on whose recommendations?
A) 1980, National Police Commission and Ribeiro Committee
B) 1986, Tandon Committee and National Police Commission
C) 1990, Malimath Committee
D) 1975, Dharam Vira Commission
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 1986, Tandon Committee and National Police Commission
32. The Crime in India 2024 Report is significant because it is the first edition to include offences under which legislation alongside the IPC?
A) Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA)
B) Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)
C) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)
D) Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)
33. According to Crime in India 2024, what was India’s crime rate per lakh population — the lowest since 2019?
A) 380.5
B) 418.9
C) 448.3
D) 465.2
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 418.9
34. Cybercrime cases crossed what landmark figure for the first time in 2024?
A) 50,000 cases
B) 75,000 cases
C) 1 lakh cases
D) 1.5 lakh cases
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 1 lakh cases
35. Among crimes against women in 2024, which category accounted for the largest share (~42%)?
A) Rape
B) Kidnapping and Abduction
C) Assault on women with intent to outrage modesty
D) Cruelty by husband or relatives
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Cruelty by husband or relatives
36. According to the Crime in India 2024 report, drug overdose deaths increased by approximately what percentage?
A) 20%
B) 35%
C) ~50%
D) 75%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) ~50%
37. Delhi recorded the highest juvenile crime rate in 2024. What was this rate per lakh population?
A) 7.9
B) 21.4
C) 35.2
D) 41.6
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) 41.6
38. India currently has approximately how many schools and teachers as per the NITI Aayog 2026 report?
A) 10 lakh schools and 75 lakh teachers
B) 14.71 lakh schools and 1.01 crore teachers
C) 18 lakh schools and 1.2 crore teachers
D) 12 lakh schools and 85 lakh teachers
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 14.71 lakh schools and 1.01 crore teachers
39. What percentage of Indian schools provide continuous education from Grades 1–12?
A) ~2%
B) ~5%
C) ~10%
D) ~15%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) ~5%
40. The Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) at the higher secondary level in India currently stands at:
A) 42.6%
B) 52.3%
C) 58.4%
D) 72.1%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 58.4%
41. According to the NITI Aayog report, the enrolment share in government schools declined from 71% (2005) to what figure in 2024–25?
A) 55.3%
B) 49.24%
C) 44.7%
D) 38.5%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 49.24%
42. Among Grade 5 students in low-fee private schools, what percentage cannot read a Grade 2-level text?
A) 20%
B) 28%
C) 35%
D) 45%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 35%
43. The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) for sugarcane is fixed under which legal order?
A) Sugar Development Fund Act, 1982
B) Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966 under Essential Commodities Act, 1955
C) Agricultural Produce Marketing Committee Act
D) Minimum Wages Act, 1948
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966 under Essential Commodities Act, 1955
44. Which body recommends the FRP to the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA)?
A) NITI Aayog
B) Reserve Bank of India
C) Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)
D) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)
45. FRP is linked to the ‘sugar recovery rate’. What does this term mean?
A) Rate at which sugar prices recover after market crash
B) Percentage of sugar extracted from sugarcane by mills
C) Percentage of farmers receiving FRP on time
D) Rate of return on investment in sugarcane farming
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Percentage of sugar extracted from sugarcane by mills
46. Which of the following is a key distinction between FRP and MSP?
A) FRP covers 22 major crops; MSP covers only sugarcane
B) FRP is not legally binding; MSP is legally enforceable
C) FRP is legally binding on sugar mills; MSP is not legally enforceable on private buyers
D) Both FRP and MSP are legally binding and enforceable
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) FRP is legally binding on sugar mills; MSP is not legally enforceable on private buyers
47. The sugar season in India, for which FRP is fixed, runs during which months?
A) January–December
B) April–March
C) October–September
D) June–May
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) October–September
48. The Major Port Authorities Act, 2021 replaced which earlier legislation governing India’s major ports?
A) Ports Act, 1908
B) Major Port Trusts Act, 1963
C) Indian Ports Act, 1908 and Major Port Act, 1982
D) Merchant Shipping Act, 1958
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Major Port Trusts Act, 1963
49. India’s first corporatised port is Kamarajar Port Limited. It was formerly known as:
A) Vishakhapatnam Port
B) Kandla Port
C) Ennore Port
D) Paradip Port
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Ennore Port
50. Kamarajar Port became India’s first corporatised port in which year?
A) 1991
B) 1995
C) 2001
D) 2008
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2001
51. Under the ‘Landlord Port Model’, which of the following correctly describes the division of roles?
A) Port authority owns and operates all cargo terminals; private firms handle only maintenance
B) Port authority owns and regulates infrastructure; private operators manage cargo terminals and operations
C) Private companies own all infrastructure; port authority only provides regulatory oversight
D) Central government owns infrastructure; state government manages operations
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Port authority owns and regulates infrastructure; private operators manage cargo terminals and operations
52. The primary objective of corporatisation of ports is to improve:
A) Defence readiness and naval capacity of ports
B) Efficiency, competitiveness, financial autonomy and commercial decision-making
C) Tourism and hospitality at port cities
D) Government revenue through increased port taxes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Efficiency, competitiveness, financial autonomy and commercial decision-making
53. Operation Sindoor was launched by India in response to which terrorist attack?
A) 2016 Uri Attack
B) 2019 Pulwama Attack
C) 2025 Pahalgam Terror Attack
D) 2024 Rajouri Attack
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2025 Pahalgam Terror Attack
54. India’s Operation Sindoor targeted terrorist infrastructure in Pakistan and Pakistan- Occupied Kashmir (PoK). It was classified as:
A) A full-scale military invasion
B) A focused, measured and non-escalatory strike on terrorist camps
C) A naval blockade of Pakistani ports
D) A cyber warfare operation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A focused, measured and non-escalatory strike on terrorist camps
55.India’s response to Pakistan’s retaliatory actions included defensive use of which indigenous air defence system?
A) Prithvi Air Defence (PAD)
B) S-400 Triumf
C) Akash Missile System and the integrated air defence network
D) Barak-8 Naval Defence System
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Akash Missile System and the integrated air defence network
56. Pakistan’s use of Turkish-origin Bayraktar TB2 drones during the conflict highlighted which emerging strategic concern for India?
A) Dependence on foreign GPS systems
B) Growing use of unmanned aerial systems (UAS) and drone warfare in South Asia
C) Vulnerability of Indian naval fleet to air attacks
D) Weakness in India’s satellite communication infrastructure
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Growing use of unmanned aerial systems (UAS) and drone warfare in South Asia
57. India’s Indus Waters Treaty (IWT) stance was put on hold following the Pahalgam attack. The IWT was originally signed in which year and brokered by which organisation?
A) 1955; United Nations
B) 1960; World Bank
C) 1965; International Court of Justice
D) 1972; SAARC
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 1960; World Bank
58. NCRB functions under which ministry and primarily serves as:
A) Ministry of Law; apex court data repository
B) Ministry of Home Affairs; India’s central repository of crime and criminal data
C) Ministry of Justice; oversight body for judiciary
D) Prime Minister’s Office; national security data hub
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Ministry of Home Affairs; India’s central repository of crime and criminal data
59. The secondary level dropout rate in India according to the NITI Aayog School Education Report 2026 is:
A) 0.3%
B) 5.2%
C) 11.5%
D) 18.3%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 11.5%
60. Which country’s drones were reportedly used by Pakistan in retaliatory actions during Operation Sindoor, raising India’s concerns about third-party military technology transfer to adversaries?
A) China
B) Iran
C) Turkey
D) North Korea
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Turkey
61. The concept of ‘Separate Electorate’ was first introduced in colonial India under which reforms and for which community?
A) Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, for Sikhs
B) Morley-Minto Reforms, for Muslims
C) Government of India Act 1919, for Scheduled Castes
D) Simon Commission Recommendations, for Christians
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Morley-Minto Reforms, for Muslims
62. The ‘Communal Award’ (1932) expanded separate electorates to which community?
A) Sikhs and Christians
B) Women and minorities
C) Depressed Classes (Scheduled Castes)
D) Anglo-Indians and Backward Classes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Depressed Classes (Scheduled Castes)
63. India’s Constitution rejected separate electorates and adopted which system instead?
A) Proportional Representation with reserved lists
B) Joint Electorate with Universal Adult Franchise
C) Cumulative Voting System
D) Mixed Member Proportional System
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Joint Electorate with Universal Adult Franchise
64. ‘Affective Polarisation’ in the context of electoral politics refers to:
A) Political parties moving towards ideological extremes
B) Voters increasingly distrusting and emotionally opposing rival political groups
C) Geographic segregation of voter populations across states
D) Partisan media creating one-sided narratives
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Voters increasingly distrusting and emotionally opposing rival political groups
65. The concept of ‘Psychological Secession’ in the context of electoral polarisation implies:
A) Demand for separate statehood by a minority community
B) A community gradually stopping to view itself as a participant in a shared national political project
C) Boycott of elections by marginalised groups
D) Formation of ethnically exclusive political parties
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A community gradually stopping to view itself as a participant in a shared national political project
66. India consolidated how many central labour laws into four labour codes?
A) 17
B) 22
C) 29
D) 35
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 29
67. Under the new Labour Code Rules, Basic salary + DA + retaining allowance must constitute at least what percentage of total CTC?
A) 30%
B) 40%
C) 50%
D) 60%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 50%
68. The Labour Code Rules cap weekly working hours at 48, while allowing daily working hours to extend up to 12 hours. This enables:
A) 6-day workweek model
B) A potential 4-day workweek model
C) Mandatory overtime for all industrial workers
D) Compulsory shift rotation among workers
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A potential 4-day workweek model
69. Under the Labour Code Rules, Gig & Platform Workers aggregators must contribute what percentage of turnover to a social security fund?
A) 0.5–1%
B) 1–2%
C) 2–5%
D) 5–10%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 1–2%
70. A Grievance Redressal Committee (GRC) must be constituted by establishments employing how many or more workers?
A) 10 workers
B) 20 workers
C) 50 workers
D) 100 workers
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 20 workers
71. Which of the following is the correct list of the four Labour Codes?
A) Code on Wages, Industrial Relations Code, OSH Code, Code on Social Security
B) Code on Wages, MSME Code, Industrial Relations Code, Social Welfare Code
C) Industrial Relations Code, Minimum Wages Code, Social Security Code, Factory Code
D) Code on Wages, Code on Employment, Code on Safety, Code on Welfare
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Code on Wages, Industrial Relations Code, OSH Code, Code on Social Security
72. NMSA is one of the eight missions under which national framework?
A) National Development Mission (NDM)
B) National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC)
C) National Food Security Mission (NFSM)
D) Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana (PMKSY)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC)
73. Since 2022–23, NMSA has been integrated with which scheme, giving states greater implementation flexibility?
A) PM-KISAN
B) PMFBY
C) PM-RKVY
D) NFSM
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) PM-RKVY
74. Under NMSA, the ‘Rainfed Area Development (RAD)’ component promotes which approach?
A) Mono-cropping with high-yield seed varieties
B) Integrated Farming Systems combining crops, livestock, horticulture, fisheries and agroforestry
C) Canal irrigation exclusively in arid zones
D) Precision agriculture using satellite-based data
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Integrated Farming Systems combining crops, livestock, horticulture, fisheries and agroforestry
75. Under NMSA, the sub-mission for agroforestry — ‘Har Medh Par Ped’ — encourages:
A) Wetland conservation around farmlands
B) Tree plantation on farm boundaries and bunds
C) Conversion of agricultural land to forest reserves
D) Planting of fruit orchards in tribal districts
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Tree plantation on farm boundaries and bunds
76. The National Panchayat Awards 2025 recognise Panchayat performance across how many themes of Localised Sustainable Development Goals (LSDGs)?
A) 5 themes
B) 7 themes
C) 9 themes
D) 12 themes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 9 themes
77. The National Panchayat Awards are awarded under which framework?
A) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY)
B) Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA)
C) Jal Jeevan Mission
D) National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA)
78. Which state won the highest number of National Panchayat Awards 2025?
A) Odisha
B) Andhra Pradesh
C) Tamil Nadu
D) Karnataka
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Karnataka
79. The ‘Nanaji Deshmukh Puraskar’ under National Panchayat Awards is given for:
A) Excellence in digital governance
B) Overall holistic performance
C) Best performance in water conservation
D) Outstanding achievement in women empowerment
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Overall holistic performance
80. The ‘Swachh Sagar, Surakshit Sagar’ campaign is implemented under which scheme?
A) SAGARMALA Scheme
B) Blue Economy Mission
C) PRITHVI Scheme of Ministry of Earth Sciences
D) AMRIT Scheme of Ministry of Environment
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) PRITHVI Scheme of Ministry of Earth Sciences
81. Which body supports the Swachh Sagar, Surakshit Sagar campaign under the Ministry of Earth Sciences?
A) National Institute of Oceanography (NIO)
B) National Centre for Coastal Research (NCCR)
C) Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS)
D) Centre for Marine Living Resources and Ecology (CMLRE)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) National Centre for Coastal Research (NCCR)
82. The PRITHVI scheme acronym stands for which of the following?
A) Planetary Research Initiative for Terrain Hydrological and Volcanic Investigations
B) PRITHvi VIgyan – Earth sciences umbrella scheme of Ministry of Earth Sciences
C) Programme for Research in Terrestrial Habitat and Vital Information
D) Priority Research Institute for Topography, Hydrology and Volcanism in India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) PRITHvi VIgyan – Earth sciences umbrella scheme of Ministry of Earth Sciences
83. Which of the following is NOT a component of the PRITHVI scheme?
A) ACROSS – Atmosphere & Climate Research
B) O-SMART – Ocean Services
C) PACER – Polar Science
D) RAPIDS – River and Precipitation Data Systems
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) RAPIDS – River and Precipitation Data Systems
84. The post of Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) was created in which year?
A) 2017
B) 2018
C) 2019
D) 2020
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2019
85. The creation of the post of CDS was recommended by which two committees?
A) Naresh Chandra Committee and Shekatkar Committee
B) Kargil Review Committee and Shekatkar Committee (2016)
C) Naresh Chandra Committee and Kargil Review Committee
D) Shekatkar Committee and Raman Committee
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Kargil Review Committee and Shekatkar Committee (2016)
86.The CDS also serves as the Secretary of which department?
A) Department of Defence Production
B) Department of Defence Research and Development
C) Department of Military Affairs (DMA)
D) Department of Ex-Servicemen Welfare
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Department of Military Affairs (DMA)
87. Bara Imambara is also known as Asafi Imambara. It was built by which Nawab of Awadh in 1784?
A) Nawab Shuja-ud-Daula
B) Nawab Wajid Ali Shah
C) Nawab Asaf-ud-Daula
D) Nawab Saadat Ali Khan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Nawab Asaf-ud-Daula
88.The Rumi Darwaza is also known as the ‘Turkish Gate’ because it was modelled after which structure?
A) Hagia Sophia, Istanbul
B) Topkapi Palace Gate, Istanbul
C) The Sublime Porte (Bab-i-Humayun) of Constantinople
D) Blue Mosque entrance, Istanbul
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) The Sublime Porte (Bab-i-Humayun) of Constantinople
89. The SEEDS initiative (Supply of Equipment for Efficient Development of SMEs) is implemented by which Ministry of India?
A) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
B) Ministry of MSME
C) Ministry of External Affairs
D) Ministry of Finance
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Ministry of External Affairs
90. India-supported SEEDS projects were recently inaugurated in which country?
A) Guyana
B) Trinidad and Tobago
C) Suriname
D) Mauritius
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Trinidad and Tobago
91. Under which legislation is the production or smuggling of high-quality counterfeit currency treated as a terrorist act in India?
A) Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA)
B) Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA)
C) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)
D) Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA)
92. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), which Sections (178–182) prescribe the punishment for counterfeit currency offences?
A) Only fines; imprisonment is not prescribed
B) Life imprisonment, imprisonment or heavy fines for manufacturing, possession and circulation
C) Maximum 7 years imprisonment only
D) Deportation and asset confiscation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Life imprisonment, imprisonment or heavy fines for manufacturing, possession and circulation
93. India’s currency in circulation has crossed which landmark figure, creating a vast cash ecosystem prone to counterfeit infiltration?
A) ₹20 lakh crore
B) ₹30 lakh crore
C) ₹42 lakh crore
D) ₹55 lakh crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) ₹42 lakh crore
94. ‘Super Notes’ or HQ-FICN (High Quality Fake Indian Currency Notes) are dangerous primarily because:
A) They are printed on government-issued paper
B) They closely replicate genuine currency in paper quality, printing precision and security features
C) They contain embedded microchips
D) They are produced by state-sponsored foreign entities only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) They closely replicate genuine currency in paper quality, printing precision and security features
95. The RBI campaign ‘Paisa Bolta Hai’ is primarily aimed at:
A) Encouraging digital payments
B) Educating citizens on identifying security features in genuine banknotes
C) Promoting savings and financial literacy
D) Reducing reliance on cash transactions
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Educating citizens on identifying security features in genuine banknotes
96. India’s external sector position in mid-2025 is being compared to which historically vulnerable phase?
A) 1991 BoP Crisis
B) 2008 Global Financial Crisis impact on India
C) 2013 ‘Fragile Five’ phase
D) 2020 COVID-19 forex shock
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2013 ‘Fragile Five’ phase
97. The IMF projected India’s Current Account Deficit (CAD) for 2026 at approximately:
A) $40 billion (~1% of GDP)
B) $60 billion (~1.5% of GDP)
C) $84.5 billion (~2% of GDP)
D) $110 billion (~2.5% of GDP)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) $84.5 billion (~2% of GDP)
98. The ‘vicious cycle of import dependence’ creates which chain of economic consequences?
A) Rising exports → Stronger rupee → Cheaper imports → Wider trade surplus
B) Rising imports → Higher dollar demand → Rupee depreciation → Costlier imports → Wider trade deficit
C) Rising imports → Lower inflation → Stronger rupee → Reduced forex outflows
D) Rising imports → Higher FDI inflows → Stronger rupee → Trade surplus
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Rising imports → Higher dollar demand → Rupee depreciation → Costlier imports → Wider trade deficit
99. The Reserve Tranche Position (RTP) is one component of India’s Forex Reserves. It refers to:
A) India’s gold deposited with the IMF
B) Special allocations of SDRs during global crises
C) India’s quota-based reserve entitlement with IMF, withdrawable without conditions
D) Indian government bonds held by foreign central banks
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) India’s quota-based reserve entitlement with IMF, withdrawable without conditions
100. The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) is conducted by which body?
A) Reserve Bank of India
B) Ministry of Labour and Employment
C) National Statistical Office (NSO) under MoSPI
D) NITI Aayog
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) National Statistical Office (NSO) under MoSPI
101. According to PLFS Jan–March 2026, the overall unemployment rate increased to:
A) 3.5%
B) 4.2%
C) 5.0%
D) 6.6%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 5.0%
102. As per PLFS Jan–March 2026, the share of rural employment in agriculture declined from 58.5% to:
A) 50.2%
B) 53.4%
C) 55.8%
D) 57.1%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 55.8%
103. The Female Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) as per PLFS Jan–March 2026 stood at:
A) 28.3%
B) 31.5%
C) 34.7%
D) 40.2%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 34.7%
104. Which of the following correctly describes the ‘Worker Population Ratio (WPR)’?
A) Ratio of employed persons to total labour force
B) Ratio of employed persons to total population of working age
C) Ratio of salaried workers to total workforce
D) Ratio of formal sector workers to informal sector workers
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Ratio of employed persons to total population of working age
105. The European Central Bank (ECB) was established in which year and under which treaty?
A) 1990, Treaty of Rome
B) 1993, Treaty of Lisbon
C) 1998, Maastricht Treaty
D) 2002, Treaty of Amsterdam
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 1998, Maastricht Treaty
106. The Eurozone currently consists of how many member countries?
A) 19
B) 20
C) 21
D) 27
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 21
107. Which two countries recently joined the Eurozone, mentioned in the May 2026 content?
A) Romania and Hungary
B) Croatia (2023) and Bulgaria (2026)
C) Serbia and North Macedonia
D) Slovakia and Czech Republic
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Croatia (2023) and Bulgaria (2026)
108. MIRV technology allows a single ballistic missile to:
A) Evade radar systems using stealth technology
B) Carry and deliver multiple nuclear warheads to different targets simultaneously
C) Achieve hypersonic speed during re-entry
D) Navigate autonomously using AI-based guidance
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Carry and deliver multiple nuclear warheads to different targets simultaneously
109. India’s MIRV capability was demonstrated under which mission, associated with the Agni-5 missile?
A) Mission Pralay
B) Mission Shakti
C) Mission Divyastra
D) Mission Astra
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Mission Divyastra
110. Which of the following countries does NOT currently possess MIRV technology?
A) France
B) China
C) Pakistan
D) United Kingdom
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Pakistan
111. The SEHAT Initiative was jointly launched by which two bodies?
A) AIIMS and ICMR
B) ICMR and ICAR
C) WHO and Ministry of Health
D) NITI Aayog and MoHFW
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) ICMR and ICAR
112. The PRITHVI scheme acronym stands for which of the following?
A) Scientific and Economic Health and Agricultural Technology
B) Science Excellence for Health through Agricultural Transformation
C) Sustainable and Equitable Health and Agriculture Treaty
D) Strengthening Excellence in Health and Agricultural Training
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Science Excellence for Health through Agricultural Transformation
113. Huntington’s Disease is caused by a mutation in which gene?
A) BRCA1 gene
B) TP53 gene
C) HTT gene
D) CFTR gene
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) HTT gene
114. Huntington’s Disease follows which inheritance pattern?
A) X-linked recessive
B) Autosomal recessive
C) Autosomal dominant
D) Mitochondrial inheritance
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Autosomal dominant
115. The National Policy for Rare Diseases (NPRD), 2021 provides up to how much financial assistance for eligible patients?
A) ₹10 lakh
B) ₹25 lakh
C) ₹50 lakh
D) ₹1 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) ₹50 lakh
116.The ‘One Case One Data’ initiative launched by the Supreme Court aims to:
A) Digitise only Supreme Court records
B) Create a unified judicial database integrating case information from Taluka courts to the Supreme
Court
C) Replace physical court hearings with virtual hearings
D) Provide free legal aid through an AI chatbot
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Create a unified judicial database integrating case information from Taluka courts to the Supreme Court
117. ‘Su Sahayak’ is an AI-powered chatbot developed by which organisation in collaboration with the Supreme Court Registry?
A) IIT Delhi
B) NASSCOM
C) National Informatics Centre (NIC)
D) Tata Consultancy Services
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) National Informatics Centre (NIC)
118. National Technology Day (May 11) commemorates which event of 1998?
A) India’s first satellite launch (Aryabhata)
B) Pokhran-II Nuclear Tests (Operation Shakti)
C) Successful test of Agni-I missile
D) Inauguration of DRDO headquarters
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Pokhran-II Nuclear Tests (Operation Shakti)
119. PMGSY-IV was launched from Sehore by which Union Minister, marking 25 years of the scheme?
A) Nitin Gadkari
B) Shivraj Singh Chouhan
C) Giriraj Singh
D) Jyotiraditya Scindia
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Shivraj Singh Chouhan
120. Sikkim became India’s first fully paperless judiciary state. Which state became the first with a paperless High Court in 2022?
A) Karnataka
B) Tamil Nadu
C) Kerala
D) Maharashtra
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Kerala
121. The UN Global Forest Goals Report 2026 was released by which body during which meeting?
A) UNEP during COP31 preparatory session
B) UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs during the 21st meeting of the UN Forum on Forests
C) FAO during the World Food Summit
D) UNDP during the UN Biodiversity Conference
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs during the 21st meeting of the UN Forum on Forests
122.According to the UN Global Forest Goals Report 2026, how many hectares of forests were lost between 2015 and 2025?
A) 10 million hectares
B) 20 million hectares
C) 30 million hectares
D) More than 40 million hectares
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) More than 40 million hectares
123. Global investment in sustainable forest management stood at approximately $84 billion in 2023. What is the estimated annual requirement to meet 2030 targets?
A) ~$120 billion
B) ~$180 billion
C) ~$300 billion
D) ~$500 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) ~$300 billion
124.The United Nations Strategic Plan for Forests (UNSPF) 2017–2030 is organised around how many Global Forest Goals and associated targets?
A) Four goals and fifteen targets
B) Six goals and twenty-six targets
C) Eight goals and thirty targets
D) Ten goals and forty targets
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Six goals and twenty-six targets
125.Which of the following is NOT listed as a major cause of forest degradation in the report?
A) Expansion of agricultural activities
B) Illegal logging operations
C) Overpopulation in urban areas
D) Pest infestations and invasive species
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Overpopulation in urban areas
126.The National Jute Board is a statutory body constituted under which Act and became operational in which year?
A) Jute Regulation Act, 2000; became operational in 2005
B) National Jute Board Act, 2008; became operational in 2010
C) Textile Development Act, 2005; became operational in 2008
D) National Jute Board Act, 2010; became operational in 2012
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) National Jute Board Act, 2008; became operational in 2010
127. The National Jute Board is headquartered in which city and functions under which Ministry?
A) Mumbai; Ministry of Commerce and Industry
B) New Delhi; Ministry of Agriculture
C) Kolkata; Ministry of Textiles
D) Chennai; Ministry of MSME
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Kolkata; Ministry of Textiles
128. The Jute Crop Information System (JCIS) combines which technologies for monitoring jute cultivation?
A) Blockchain, AI, and Drone surveillance only
B) Satellite-based intelligence, Weather analysis, GIS mapping and Field-level observations
C) IoT sensors, GPS tracking and Cloud computing only
D) Remote sensing, Nuclear imaging and LIDAR technology
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Satellite-based intelligence, Weather analysis, GIS mapping and Field- level observations
129. ‘PATSAN’ under JCIS stands for:
A) Precise Agricultural Technology for Sustainable Agrarian Networks
B) Prospective Assessment of Jute Using Mobile App-Based Field Observations
C) Platform for Agricultural Tracking and Satellite-based Analysis Network
D) Predictive Assessment Tool for Sustainable Agriculture and Nutrition
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Prospective Assessment of Jute Using Mobile App-Based Field
130.Which three agencies jointly implement the Jute Crop Information System (JCIS)?
A) NABARD, ICAR and Ministry of Textiles
B) National Jute Board, ISRO and Jute Corporation of India
C) APEDA, NITI Aayog and DRDO
D) National Jute Board, NIC and Ministry of Agriculture
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) National Jute Board, ISRO and Jute Corporation of India
131. The appointment of the CBI Director is governed under which legislatio
A) Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003
B) Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
C) Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act, 1946
D) CBI Establishment Act, 1963
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act, 1946
132. The three-member Selection Committee for CBI Director comprises which members?
A) President, Prime Minister, and Chief Justice of India
B) Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha, and Chief Justice of India or a Supreme Court judge nominated by the CJI
C) Home Minister, Prime Minister, and Comptroller and Auditor General
D) Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition, and the Attorney General
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha, and Chief Justice of India or a Supreme Court judge nominated by the CJI
133. What is the fixed tenure of the CBI Director and the maximum possible extension?
A) 2 years; extendable by 2 additional years
B) 3 years; no extension permitted
C) 2 years; extendable by up to 3 additional years (one year at a time)
D) 5 years; extendable by 1 year
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2 years; extendable by up to 3 additional years (one year at a time)
134. If a member of the CBI Director Selection Committee dissents, what happens to the appointment process?
A) The appointment is automatically cancelled
B) The matter is referred to the Supreme Court for adjudication
C) The dissenting opinion does not invalidate or halt the appointment; majority opinion prevails
D) A fresh committee is constituted by the President
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) The dissenting opinion does not invalidate or halt the appointment; majority opinion prevails
135. The Thousand Pillar Temple is located in which city of which state?
A) Warangal, Andhra Pradesh
B) Hanamkonda, Telangana
C) Hampi, Karnataka
D) Khajuraho, Madhya Pradesh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Hanamkonda, Telangana
136. The Thousand Pillar Temple was commissioned in 1163 CE by which ruler of which dynasty?
A) Prataparudra of the Kakatiya dynasty
B) Rudra Deva of the Kakatiya dynasty
C) Vikramaditya VI of the Western Chalukya dynasty
D) Krishnadevaraya of the Vijayanagara Empire
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Rudra Deva of the Kakatiya dynasty
137.The Thousand Pillar Temple follows the Trikutalaya design — a triple-shrine dedicated to which three deities?
A) Brahma, Vishnu, Mahesh (Shiva)
B) Shiva, Vishnu, Surya
C) Vishnu, Surya, Saraswati
D) Shiva, Parvati, Ganesha
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Shiva, Vishnu, Surya
138.The builders of the Thousand Pillar Temple used ‘Sandbox Technology’ in the foundation. This technique was designed to:
A) Prevent water seepage during monsoons
B) Act as a shock-absorbing cushion to help the temple withstand seismic disturbances
C) Maintain underground temperature for preservation of sculptures
D) Filter groundwater to keep the foundation dry
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Act as a shock-absorbing cushion to help the temple withstand seismic disturbances
139.The National Centre for Good Governance (NCGG) was established in which year and replaced which earlier institution?
A) 2010; National Institute of Public Administration
B) 2014; National Institute of Administrative Research
C) 2016; Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy
D) 2012; National Administrative Training Institute
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 2014; National Institute of Administrative Research
140. NCGG functions under which Department and who heads its Governing Body?
A) Department of Personnel and Training; Home Secretary
B) Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances; Cabinet Secretary
C) Prime Minister’s Office; National Security Advisor
D) NITI Aayog; CEO of NITI Aayog
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances; Cabinet Secretary
141. A Pro-Tem Speaker for the Lok Sabha is appointed by whom, and what is their primary function?
A) Vice President; to conduct Question Hour in the first session
B) President of India; to administer oath to newly elected members and conduct the election of the regular Speaker
C) Prime Minister; to chair the Budget session until a Speaker is elected
D) Chief Justice of India; to oversee constitutional compliance in the first session
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) President of India; to administer oath to newly elected members and conduct the election of the regular Speaker
142. By convention, who is typically appointed as the Pro-Tem Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
A) The oldest member of the House by age
B) The senior-most member based on the number of terms served
C) The leader of the largest opposition party
D) The outgoing Speaker if re-elected to the House
Show Answer
Correct Answer :B) The senior-most member based on the number of terms served
143. The tenure of a Pro-Tem Speaker ends when:
A) The first Budget is presented in the new House
B) The President issues a formal notification of termination
C) The regular Speaker is elected by the House
D) The first No-Confidence Motion is tabled
Show Answer
Correct Answer : C) The regular Speaker is elected by the House
144.Baska Honey is collected by indigenous communities residing in which region of Assam?
A) Brahmaputra Valley
B) Bodoland Territorial Region
C) Karbi Anglong district
D) Cachar Hills
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Bodoland Territorial Region
145. The first-ever export of Baska Honey was facilitated to which country by APEDA?
A) United Kingdom
B) Japan
C) United States
D) United Arab Emirates
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) United States
146.The One District One Product (ODOP) initiative was first launched by which state in which year?
A) Gujarat, 2015
B) Maharashtra, 2016
C) Uttar Pradesh, 2018
D) Madhya Pradesh, 2019
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) Uttar Pradesh, 2018
147.The UN Forum on Forests was established in which year and meets under which principal organ of the UN?
A) 1995; UN General Assembly
B) 2000; UN Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC)
C) 2005; UN Environment Programme (UNEP)
D) 2010; UN Secretary-General’s Office
Show Answer
Correct Answer :B) 2000; UN Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC)
148. The Kakatiya dynasty architecture, reflected in the Thousand Pillar Temple, is also prominently found in which other heritage site?
A) Hampi Ruins, Karnataka
B) Ramappa Temple, Telangana (UNESCO World Heritage Site)
C) Brihadeeswara Temple, Tamil Nadu
D) Sun Temple, Konark, Odisha
Show Answer
Correct Answer :B) Ramappa Temple, Telangana (UNESCO World Heritage Site)
149. The BHUVANBHUMI JUMP mobile application under JCIS is used primarily for:
A) Satellite-based weather forecasting for farmers
B) On-ground crop monitoring and geo-tagged field data collection
C) Online trading of jute commodities
D) Digital mapping of jute export logistics
Show Answer
Correct Answer :B) On-ground crop monitoring and geo-tagged field data collection
150.APEDA (Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority) functions under which Ministry?
A) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
B) Ministry of Rural Development
C) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
D) Ministry of Food Processing Industries
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
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