Practice the July 2025 4th Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the fourth week of July 2025.
The Current Affairs Quiz of 22 to 31 July features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.
4th Week of July 2025: Current Affairs Quiz
1. When will the India-EFTA Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) come into effect?
a) March 2024
b) October 1, 2025
c) January 2025
d) December 2024
Show Answer
Answer: b) October 1, 2025
2. What is the historic investment commitment made by EFTA under TEPA?
a) $50 billion over 10 years
b) $75 billion over 12 years
c) $100 billion over 15 years
d) $120 billion over 20 years
Show Answer
Answer: c) $100 billion over 15 years
3. How many direct jobs is EFTA committed to creating in India under TEPA?
a) 500,000
b) 750,000
c) 1 million
d) 1.5 million
Show Answer
Answer: c) 1 million
4. What percentage of Indian exports will receive tariff removal/reduction from EFTA under TEPA?
a) 95.3%
b) 99.6%
c) 100%
d) 98.5%
Show Answer
Answer: b) 99.6%
5. Which of the following is NOT a current member of EFTA?
a) Switzerland
b) Norway
c) Austria
d) Iceland
Show Answer
Answer: c) Austria
6. In which year was EFTA established?
a) 1958
b) 1960
c) 1962
d) 1965
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1960
7. Under which framework was the Youth Spiritual Summit organized?
a) Yuva Shakti
b) Mera Yuva (MY) Bharat
c) National Youth Mission
d) Digital India Youth
Show Answer
Answer: b) Mera Yuva (MY) Bharat
8. What is the strategic timeframe outlined in the Kashi Declaration for a Drug-Free India?
a) 3 years
b) 5 years
c) 7 years
d) 10 years
Show Answer
Answer: b) 5 years
9. Which act was enacted in 1985 to combat drug trafficking and abuse in India?
a) Prevention of Illicit Traffic Act
b) Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act
c) National Action Plan for Drug Demand Reduction
d) Nasha Mukt Bharat Act
Show Answer
Answer: b) Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act
10. According to the National Survey on Substance Use (2019), what percentage of people aged 10-75 are current alcohol users?
a) 12.4%
b) 14.6%
c) 16.8%
d) 18.2%
Show Answer
Answer: b) 14.6%
11. On which river is China constructing the world’s largest hydroelectric dam?
a) Yangtze River
b) Yellow River
c) Yarlung Tsangpo River
d) Mekong River
Show Answer
Answer: c) Yarlung Tsangpo River
12. What is the name of the bilateral mechanism between India and China for sharing hydrological data?
a) Bilateral Water Commission
b) Expert-Level Mechanism (ELM)
c) Trans-boundary River Committee
d) Himalayan Water Partnership
Show Answer
Answer: b) Expert-Level Mechanism (ELM)
13. In which year was the Expert-Level Mechanism established between India and China?
a) 2004
b) 2005
c) 2006
d) 2007
Show Answer
Answer: c) 2006
14. Which earthquake is mentioned as an example of seismic vulnerability in the Tibetan Plateau region?
a) 1950 Assam-Tibet earthquake
b) 1934 Nepal-Bihar earthquake
c) 1905 Kangra earthquake
d) 1991 Uttarkashi earthquake
Show Answer
Answer: a) 1950 Assam-Tibet earthquake
15. Which indigenous community in Arunachal Pradesh faces potential threats from the dam construction?
a) Nyishi Tribe
b) Adi Tribe
c) Apatani Tribe
d) Monpa Tribe
Show Answer
Answer: b) Adi Tribe
16. What does “AdFalciVax” target in its dual-stage approach?
a) Liver stage and blood stage
b) Pre-erythrocytic stage and transmission stage
c) Sporozoite stage and merozoite stage
d) Sexual stage and asexual stage
Show Answer
Answer: b) Pre-erythrocytic stage and transmission stage
17. Which bacterial system is used for producing AdFalciVax?
a) Escherichia coli
b) Bacillus subtilis
c) Lactococcus lactis
d) Streptococcus thermophilus
Show Answer
Answer: c) Lactococcus lactis
18. Which is the deadliest malaria parasite that AdFalciVax targets?
a) Plasmodium vivax
b) Plasmodium falciparum
c) Plasmodium malariae
d) Plasmodium ovale
Show Answer
Answer: b) Plasmodium falciparum
19. How long can AdFalciVax remain stable at room temperature?
a) More than 6 months
b) More than 9 months
c) More than 12 months
d) More than 15 months
Show Answer
Answer: b) More than 9 months
20. Which mosquito species transmits malaria?
a) Aedes aegypti
b) Culex pipiens
c) Female Anopheles mosquitoes
d) Mansonia species
Show Answer
Answer: c) Female Anopheles mosquitoes
21. Who founded the National Sample Survey (NSS)?
a) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
b) Prof. P.C. Mahalanobis
c) Dr. C.V. Raman
d) Prof. Homi Bhabha
Show Answer
Answer: b) Prof. P.C. Mahalanobis
22. In which year was the NSS established?
a) 1948
b) 1950
c) 1952
d) 1955
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1950
23. Which ministry is the parent ministry of NSS?
a) Ministry of Home Affairs
b) Ministry of Finance
c) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI)
d) Ministry of Rural Development
Show Answer
Answer: c) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI)
24. Where is the Survey Design and Research Division (SDRD) of NSS located?
a) New Delhi
b) Mumbai
c) Kolkata
d) Chennai
Show Answer
Answer: c) Kolkata
25. Which division of NSS handles data processing and validation?
a) Survey Design and Research Division (SDRD)
b) Field Operations Division (FOD)
c) Data Processing Division (DPD)
d) Survey Coordination Division (SCD)
Show Answer
Answer: c) Data Processing Division (DPD)
26. What does “M23” stand for?
a) March 23 Movement
b) Military 23 Brigade
c) Mineral 23 Coalition
d) Militia 23 Force
Show Answer
Answer: a) March 23 Movement
27. Which ethnic group predominantly comprises the M23 rebels?
a) Hutus
b) Tutsis
c) Bantus
d) Pygmies
Show Answer
Answer: b) Tutsis
28. In which year was the M23 movement formed?
a) 2009
b) 2010
c) 2011
d) 2012
Show Answer
Answer: d) 2012
29. Which two organizations jointly established the Codex Alimentarius Commission?
a) WHO and UNICEF
b) FAO and WHO
c) WTO and FAO
d) UNESCO and WHO
Show Answer
Answer: b) FAO and WHO
30. How many total members does the Codex Alimentarius Commission have?
a) 187
b) 188
c) 189
d) 190
Show Answer
Answer: c) 189
31. How many members signed the motion in Lok Sabha seeking removal of Justice Yashwant Varma?
a) 100
b) 125
c) 145
d) 160
Show Answer
Answer: c) 145
32. Under which Article can a Supreme Court judge be removed for proven misbehavior or incapacity?
a) Article 124(3)
b) Article 124(4)
c) Article 124(5)
d) Article 217(1)
Show Answer
Answer: b) Article 124(4)
33. What is the minimum number of members required to sign a removal motion in Rajya Sabha?
a) 50
b) 75
c) 100
d) 125
Show Answer
Answer: a) 50
34. Which Act regulates the procedure for removal of judges?
a) Judges (Protection) Act, 1968
b) Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968
c) Judicial Standards Act, 1968
d) Supreme Court Rules, 1968
Show Answer
Answer: b) Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968
35. What type of majority is required in Parliament to pass a judge’s removal motion?
a) Simple majority
b) Absolute majority
c) Special majority (majority of total membership + 2/3rd of present and voting)
d) Three-fourths majority
Show Answer
Answer: c) Special majority (majority of total membership + 2/3rd of present and voting)
36. Which Act is the Income Tax Bill, 2025 aimed to replace?
a) Income-Tax Act, 1956
b) Income-Tax Act, 1961
c) Income-Tax Act, 1965
d) Income-Tax Act, 1971
Show Answer
Answer: b) Income-Tax Act, 1961
37. How many sections will be removed under the structural reduction proposed in the Income Tax Bill, 2025?
a) 250
b) 270
c) 283
d) 295
Show Answer
Answer: c) 283
38. What new term does the Income Tax Bill, 2025 introduce to replace “financial year” and “assessment year”?
a) Fiscal year
b) Tax year
c) Revenue year
d) Assessment period
Show Answer
Answer: b) Tax year
39. Which organization recognized India as the global leader in real-time digital payments?
a) World Bank
b) International Monetary Fund
c) Asian Development Bank
d) World Trade Organization
Show Answer
Answer: b) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
40. UPI is built on which existing infrastructure?
a) NEFT (National Electronic Funds Transfer)
b) RTGS (Real Time Gross Settlement)
c) IMPS (Immediate Payment Service)
d) SWIFT (Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication)
Show Answer
Answer: c) IMPS (Immediate Payment Service)
41. Which organization operates UPI under RBI oversight?
a) State Bank of India
b) National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)
c) Reserve Bank of India directly
d) Indian Banks’ Association
Show Answer
Answer: b) National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)
42. How many bank accounts were opened under Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana as mentioned in the document?
a) Over 45 crore
b) Over 50 crore
c) Over 55 crore
d) Over 60 crore
Show Answer
Answer: c) Over 55 crore
43. How many Vice Presidents in India’s history have resigned before completing their full term?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
Show Answer
Answer: b) Three
44. Under which Article does the Vice President serve as ex officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha?
a) Article 63
b) Article 64
c) Article 65
d) Article 66
Show Answer
Answer: b) Article 64
45. What is the minimum age requirement to contest for Vice President?
a) 30 years
b) 35 years
c) 40 years
d) 45 years
Show Answer
Answer: b) 35 years
46. The Vice President can be removed by which process?
a) Impeachment by both Houses
b) Resolution of Rajya Sabha with absolute majority, agreed by Lok Sabha
c) Direct removal by President
d) Supreme Court order
Show Answer
Answer: b) Resolution of Rajya Sabha with absolute majority, agreed by Lok Sabha
47. In which year was the MOVCDNER scheme initiated?
a) 2014-15
b) 2015-16
c) 2016-17
d) 2017-18
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2015-16
48. How many North Eastern states are covered under MOVCDNER?
a) 7
b) 8
c) 9
d) 10
Show Answer
Answer: b) 8
49. Which state recently received a one-year extension for the MOVCDNER scheme?
a) Manipur
b) Meghalaya
c) Assam
d) Tripura
Show Answer
Answer: c) Assam
50. Which colonial-era Act is being replaced by the Bills of Lading Bill, 2025?
a) Indian Bills of Lading Act of 1850
b) Indian Bills of Lading Act of 1856
c) Indian Maritime Act of 1856
d) Indian Shipping Act of 1856
Show Answer
Answer: b) Indian Bills of Lading Act of 1856
51. How many key purposes does a bill of lading serve?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
Show Answer
Answer: b) Three
52. Where is the headquarters of the International Seabed Authority located?
a) Geneva, Switzerland
b) New York, USA
c) Kingston, Jamaica
d) The Hague, Netherlands
Show Answer
Answer: c) Kingston, Jamaica
53. Under which convention was the ISA established?
a) 1982 United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)
b) 1984 International Maritime Convention
c) 1980 Seabed Resources Treaty
d) 1985 Ocean Governance Agreement
Show Answer
Answer: a) 1982 United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)
54. How many member states does the ISA comprise?
a) 165
b) 170
c) 175
d) 180
Show Answer
Answer: b) 170
55. Which award did the Meri Panchayat application win?
a) WSIS Prizes 2024 Champion Award
b) WSIS Prizes 2025 Champion Award
c) Digital India Awards 2025
d) UN Digital Excellence Award 2025
Show Answer
Answer: b) WSIS Prizes 2025 Champion Award
56. How many Gram Panchayats does the Meri Panchayat app aim to cover?
a) 2.50 lakh
b) 2.60 lakh
c) 2.65 lakh
d) 2.70 lakh
Show Answer
Answer: c) 2.65 lakh
57. Which two organizations jointly developed the Meri Panchayat application?
a) Ministry of Panchayati Raj and ISRO
b) Ministry of Panchayati Raj and National Informatics Centre (NIC)
c) NITI Aayog and NIC
d) Ministry of Rural Development and NIC
Show Answer
Answer: b) Ministry of Panchayati Raj and National Informatics Centre (NIC)
58. How many elected representatives does the Meri Panchayat app aim to empower?
a) Over 20 lakh
b) Over 25 lakh
c) Over 30 lakh
d) Over 35 lakh
Show Answer
Answer: b) Over 25 lakh
59. Which organization conducts the Bharat NCX 2025 exercise?
a) Ministry of Home Affairs
b) National Security Council Secretariat (NSCS)
c) Ministry of Defence
d) CERT-In
Show Answer
Answer: b) National Security Council Secretariat (NSCS)
60. Which university collaborates with NSCS in conducting Bharat NCX 2025?
a) Jawaharlal Nehru University
b) Indian Institute of Technology
c) Rashtriya Raksha University (RRU)
d) All India Institute of Medical Sciences
Show Answer
Answer: c) Rashtriya Raksha University (RRU)
61. What percentage of UNESCO’s total budget does the U.S. contribute?
a) 6%
b) 8%
c) 10%
d) 12%
Show Answer
Answer: b) 8%
62. How many times has the U.S. withdrawn from UNESCO including the recent withdrawal?
a) Second time
b) Third time
c) Fourth time
d) Fifth time
Show Answer
Answer: b) Third time
63. When was UNESCO established?
a) 1943
b) 1944
c) 1945
d) 1946
Show Answer
Answer: c) 1945
64. How many member states and associate members does UNESCO have in total?
a) 194 Member States and 10 Associate Members
b) 194 Member States and 12 Associate Members
c) 196 Member States and 12 Associate Members
d) 190 Member States and 14 Associate Members
Show Answer
Answer: b) 194 Member States and 12 Associate Members
65. According to NCDC 2024 data, how many dog bite cases were reported in India?
a) Over 30 lakh
b) Over 35 lakh
c) Over 37 lakh
d) Over 40 lakh
Show Answer
Answer: c) Over 37 lakh
66. Which constitutional article establishes the fundamental duty to have compassion for living creatures?
a) Article 51A(f)
b) Article 51A(g)
c) Article 51A(h)
d) Article 243(W)
Show Answer
Answer: b) Article 51A(g)
67. The Animal Birth Control (ABC) Rules, 2023 are under which Act?
a) Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960
b) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
c) Animal Welfare Act, 1960
d) Animal Protection Act, 1965
Show Answer
Answer: a) Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960
68. Which landmark case in 2014 interpreted Article 21 to extend the right to life and liberty to animals?
a) Meneka Gandhi case
b) Jallikattu case
c) Animal Welfare Board case
d) Stray Dog Protection case
Show Answer
Answer: b) Jallikattu case
69. According to the World Bank report, what is India’s projected urban population by 2050?
a) 851 million
b) 901 million
c) 951 million
d) 1,001 million
Show Answer
Answer: c) 951 million
70. By what percentage did settlements in high flood-risk zones grow between 1985-2015?
a) 98%
b) 102%
c) 106%
d) 110%
Show Answer
Answer: b) 102%
71. By 2050, what percentage of working hours in major cities could fall under high-heat stress conditions?
a) 15%
b) 18%
c) 20%
d) 25%
Show Answer
Answer: c) 20%
72. By 2050, what percentage of India’s GDP are cities expected to contribute?
a) 70%
b) 72%
c) 75%
d) 80%
Show Answer
Answer: c) 75%
73. In which month of 2025 did Svalbard record exceptionally high winter temperatures?
a) January 2025
b) February 2025
c) March 2025
d) December 2024
Show Answer
Answer: b) February 2025
74. What is the primary cause of Arctic Amplification?
a) Solar radiation changes
b) Ocean current variations
c) Human-induced global warming and climate feedback mechanisms
d) Volcanic activity
Show Answer
Answer: c) Human-induced global warming and climate feedback mechanisms
75. Which effect describes how melting snow/ice reveals darker surfaces that absorb more solar radiation?
a) Greenhouse effect
b) Albedo effect
c) Lapse rate effect
d) Convection effect
Show Answer
Answer: b) Albedo effect
76. By what percentage have IP filings increased in India over the past five years?
a) 40%
b) 42%
c) 44%
d) 46%
Show Answer
Answer: c) 44%
77. Which category of IP filing saw the highest growth at 380%?
a) Patents
b) Trademarks
c) Designs
d) Geographical Indications (GI)
Show Answer
Answer: d) Geographical Indications (GI)
78. How many trademark forms were reduced from the original number to simplify the registration process?
a) From 78 to 10
b) From 74 to 8
c) From 70 to 6
d) From 76 to 9
Show Answer
Answer: b) From 74 to 8
79. What percentage fee concession is provided for patent filing to Startups, MSMEs, and Educational Institutions?
a) 75%
b) 80%
c) 85%
d) 90%
Show Answer
Answer: b) 80%
100. Which classification system has India adopted for industrial designs?
a) Madrid Classification
b) Nice Classification
c) Locarno Classification
d) Vienna Classification
Show Answer
Answer: c) Locarno Classification
101. What was the Financial Inclusion Index score for FY 2025?
a) 65
b) 66
c) 67
d) 68
Show Answer
Answer: c) 67
102. In which year was the Financial Inclusion Index launched?
a) 2020
b) 2021
c) 2022
d) 2023
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2021
103. What is the weight assigned to the ‘Usage’ parameter in the Financial Inclusion Index?
a) 35%
b) 40%
c) 45%
d) 50%
Show Answer
Answer: c) 45%
104. In which month is the Financial Inclusion Index published annually?
a) June
b) July
c) August
d) September
Show Answer
Answer: b) July
105. Where does the Mhadei River originate?
a) Sahyadri Hills, Maharashtra
b) Jamboti Ghat, Western Ghats, Karnataka
c) Nilgiri Hills, Tamil Nadu
d) Cardamom Hills, Kerala
Show Answer
Answer: b) Jamboti Ghat, Western Ghats, Karnataka
106. Which districts in Karnataka are intended to benefit from the Kalasa-Banduri Project?
a) Dharwad, Belagavi, and Bagalkot
b) Dharwad, Belagavi, and Gadag
c) Belagavi, Gadag, and Haveri
d) Dharwad, Gadag, and Bagalkot
Show Answer
Answer: b) Dharwad, Belagavi, and Gadag
107. Into which water body does the Mhadei River drain?
a) Bay of Bengal
b) Indian Ocean
c) Arabian Sea
d) Laccadive Sea
Show Answer
Answer: c) Arabian Sea
108. Which institution is the nodal agency for WiFEX?
a) Indian Meteorological Department (IMD)
b) Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune
c) National Centre for Medium Range Weather Forecasting (NCMRWF)
d) Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS)
Show Answer
Answer: b) Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune
109. WiFEX primarily focuses on forecasting for which time duration?
a) 0-3 hours
b) 0-6 hours
c) 0-12 hours
d) 0-24 hours
Show Answer
Answer: b) 0-6 hours
110. At which primary location is WiFEX conducted?
a) Safdarjung Airport, New Delhi
b) Indira Gandhi International Airport, New Delhi
c) Chandigarh Airport
d) Amritsar Airport
Show Answer
Answer: b) Indira Gandhi International Airport, New Delhi
111. What title did Rajendra Chola I earn for his northward conquest up to the Ganga valley?
a) Gangai Kondaan
b) Gangaikonda Cholan
c) Ganga Vijayan
d) Gangai Rajan
Show Answer
Answer: b) Gangaikonda Cholan
112. During which period did Rajendra Chola I reign?
a) 1010-1040 CE
b) 1014-1044 CE
c) 1018-1048 CE
d) 1020-1050 CE
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1014-1044 CE
113. The capital of Andaman & Nicobar Islands derives its name from which empire conquered by Rajendra Chola I?
a) Majapahit Empire
b) Khmer Empire
c) Srivijaya Empire
d) Sailendra Empire
Show Answer
Answer: c) Srivijaya Empire
114. Which Chola ruler initially established the imperial prominence of the dynasty in the 9th century CE?
a) Rajaraja Chola I
b) Vijayalaya Chola
c) Rajendra Chola I
d) Kulottunga Chola I
Show Answer
Answer: b) Vijayalaya Chola
115. Which inscription provides detailed insights into the Chola system of local self-governance?
a) Thanjavur inscriptions
b) Uttaramerur inscriptions
c) Gangaikonda Cholapuram inscriptions
d) Darasuram inscriptions
Show Answer
Answer: b) Uttaramerur inscriptions
116. What is the primary objective of the National Sports Governance Bill?
a) Increase funding for sports
b) Streamline governance structure of sports federations
c) Build more sports infrastructure
d) Promote traditional sports
Show Answer
Answer: b) Streamline governance structure of sports federations
117. Who chairs the National Sports Tribunal under the proposed bill?
a) A retired Supreme Court Judge or Chief Justice of a High Court
b) The Sports Minister
c) A senior advocate
d) The President of the Olympic Committee
Show Answer
Answer: a) A retired Supreme Court Judge or Chief Justice of a High Court
118. How many expert members are part of the National Sports Tribunal?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Show Answer
Answer: b) Two
119. Which body is responsible for granting recognition to National Sports Bodies under the bill?
a) Ministry of Sports
b) National Sports Board (NSB)
c) National Olympic Committee
d) Sports Authority of India
Show Answer
Answer: b) National Sports Board (NSB)
120. Which country spearheaded the case for ICJ’s advisory opinion on climate change?
a) Maldives
b) Tuvalu
c) Vanuatu
d) Kiribati
Show Answer
Answer: c) Vanuatu
121. In which year did the UN General Assembly pass the resolution seeking ICJ’s guidance on climate obligations?
a) 2022
b) 2023
c) 2024
d) 2025
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2023
122. What is the current global warming level mentioned in the document?
a) 1.1°C
b) 1.2°C
c) 1.3°C
d) 1.4°C
Show Answer
Answer: c) 1.3°C
123. Where is the International Court of Justice headquartered?
a) Geneva, Switzerland
b) New York, USA
c) The Hague, Netherlands
d) Vienna, Austria
Show Answer
Answer: c) The Hague, Netherlands
124. How many judges comprise the International Court of Justice?
a) 12
b) 15
c) 18
d) 21
Show Answer
Answer: b) 15
125. India achieved 20% ethanol blending in petrol how many years ahead of the original target?
a) Three years
b) Four years
c) Five years
d) Six years
Show Answer
Answer: c) Five years
126. In which year was the Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme initiated?
a) 2001
b) 2003
c) 2005
d) 2007
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2003
127. What is the chemical formula of ethanol?
a) C2H4O
b) C2H5OH
c) C2H6O
d) C3H6O
Show Answer
Answer: b) C2H5OH
128. Ethanol production in India rose from 38 crore litres in 2014 to approximately how many crore litres in 2025?
a) 620 crore litres
b) 640 crore litres
c) 660 crore litres
d) 680 crore litres
Show Answer
Answer: c) 660 crore litres
129. What was the estimated reduction in CO2 emissions due to ethanol blending?
a) 600 lakh tonnes
b) 650 lakh tonnes
c) 700 lakh tonnes
d) 750 lakh tonnes
Show Answer
Answer: c) 700 lakh tonnes
130. What does CBAM stand for?
a) Carbon Border Assessment Mechanism
b) Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism
c) Carbon Boundary Alignment Mechanism
d) Carbon Border Action Mechanism
Show Answer
Answer: b) Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism
131. How many sectors are initially covered under CBAM?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8
Show Answer
Answer: b) 6
132. Which of the following is NOT initially covered under CBAM?
a) Cement
b) Aluminium
c) Textiles
d) Iron and Steel
Show Answer
Answer: c) Textiles
133. What is carbon leakage?
a) Emission of carbon from industrial processes
b) Relocation of carbon-intensive industries to countries with lenient emission regulations
c) Loss of carbon credits in trading
d) Reduction in carbon storage capacity
Show Answer
Answer: b) Relocation of carbon-intensive industries to countries with lenient emission regulations
134. Which organization is collaborating with MSDE on the India Skills Accelerator Initiative?
a) World Bank
b) International Labour Organization
c) World Economic Forum (WEF)
d) Asian Development Bank
Show Answer
Answer: c) World Economic Forum (WEF)
135. The India Skills Accelerator is part of which larger WEF initiative?
a) Future of Work Initiative
b) Reskilling Revolution
c) Skills for Tomorrow
d) Workforce Transformation
Show Answer
Answer: b) Reskilling Revolution
136. What is India’s rank in the Henley Passport Index 2025?
a) 75th
b) 77th
c) 79th
d) 81st
Show Answer
Answer: b) 77th
137. How many destinations can Indian passport holders access visa-free or with visa-on-arrival?
a) 55
b) 57
c) 59
d) 61
Show Answer
Answer: c) 59
138. Which country holds the number one position in the Henley Passport Index 2025?
a) Japan
b) Germany
c) Singapore
d) South Korea
Show Answer
Answer: c) Singapore
139. Which organization provides exclusive data for compiling the Henley Passport Index?
a) International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)
b) International Air Transport Association (IATA)
c) World Tourism Organization (UNWTO)
d) International Organization for Migration (IOM)
Show Answer
Answer: b) International Air Transport Association (IATA)
140. In how many regional languages is the AI for India 2.0 programme available?
a) 7
b) 8
c) 9
d) 10
Show Answer
Answer: c) 9
141. According to the recent study, coral cover in Lakshadweep has declined by what percentage over 24 years?
(a) 30%
(b) 40%
(c) 50%
(d) 60%
Show Answer
Answer: ) 50%
142. Which of the following is India’s largest coral reef area?
(a) Lakshadweep Islands
(b) Gulf of Kachchh
(c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(d) Gulf of Mannar
Show Answer
Answer: c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
143. What is the optimal temperature range for coral growth?
(a) 20°C to 25°C
(b) 23°C to 29°C
(c) 25°C to 32°C
(d) 18°C to 24°C
Show Answer
Answer: b) 23°C to 29°C
144. Coral reefs support what percentage of all marine species despite occupying only 1% of ocean area?
(a) 15%
(b) 20%
(c) 25%
(d) 30%
Show Answer
Answer: c) 25%
145. Which major climate phenomenon significantly contributed to coral bleaching in 1998, 2010, and 2016?
(a) La Niña
(b) El Niño Southern Oscillation (ENSO)
(c) Indian Ocean Dipole
(d) Atlantic Multidecadal Oscillation
Show Answer
Answer: b) El Niño Southern Oscillation (ENSO)
146. The National Cooperation Policy 2025 is based on which guiding philosophy?
(a) Seva Se Samriddhi
(b) Sahkar Se Samriddhi
(c) Shiksha Se Samriddhi
(d) Swaraj Se Samriddhi
Show Answer
Answer: b) Sahkar Se Samriddhi
147. By what percentage does NCP-2025 aim to expand the number of cooperative societies?
(a) 25%
(b) 30%
(c) 35%
(d) 40%
Show Answer
Answer: b) 30%
148.How many Model Cooperative Villages does the policy aim to develop per tehsil?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
Show Answer
Answer: c) 5
149. By which year does NCP-2025 aim to triple the cooperative sector’s contribution to India’s GDP?
(a) 2030
(b) 2032
(c) 2034
(d) 2035
Show Answer
Answer: c) 2034
150. What is the current base number of cooperative units mentioned in the policy?
(a) 7.5 lakh
(b) 8.3 lakh
(c) 9.1 lakh
(d) 10.2 lakh
Show Answer
Answer: b) 8.3 lakh
151. The India-UK Vision 2035 is built on which framework acronym?
(a) BRICK
(b) BRISK
(c) BLAST
(d) BLEND
Show Answer
Answer: b) BRISK
152. What is the total bilateral trade between India and UK mentioned in the document?
(a) £35.2 billion
(b) £39.7 billion
(c) £42.3 billion
(d) £45.8 billion
Show Answer
Answer: b) £39.7 billion
153. The CETA agreement aims to double bilateral trade to what amount by 2030?
(a) USD 100 billion
(b) USD 120 billion
(c) USD 140 billion
(d) USD 160 billion
Show Answer
Answer: b) USD 120 billion
154. Under CETA, India will eliminate tariffs on what percentage of its tariff lines?
(a) 95%
(b) 97%
(c) 99%
(d) 100%
Show Answer
Answer: c) 99%
155. What is the UK’s rank as a source of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) for India?
(a) 4th
(b) 5th
(c) 6th
(d) 7th
Show Answer
Answer: c) 6th
156. The draft National Telecom Policy 2025 builds upon which previous policy framework?
(a) National Telecom Policy 2012
(b) National Digital Communications Policy (NDCP) 2018
(c) Digital India Policy 2015
(d) National Broadband Mission 2019
Show Answer
Answer: b) National Digital Communications Policy (NDCP) 2018
157. What is the tagline for India’s telecom vision under NTP-2025?
(a) Digital India – Telecom Nation
(b) Bharat – A Telecom Product Nation
(c) India – The Connectivity Hub
(d) Telecom India – Digital Future
Show Answer
Answer: b) Bharat – A Telecom Product Nation
158. By what percentage does NTP-2025 aim to reduce the telecom sector’s carbon footprint?
(a) 25%
(b) 30%
(c) 35%
(d) 40%
Show Answer
Answer: b) 30%
159. How much annual investment in telecom infrastructure does NTP-2025 target?
(a) ₹75,000 crore
(b) ₹1 lakh crore
(c) ₹1.25 lakh crore
(d) ₹1.5 lakh crore
Show Answer
Answer: b) ₹1 lakh crore
160. How many new jobs does NTP-2025 aim to create in the telecom sector?
(a) 750,000
(b) 1 million
(c) 1.25 million
(d) 1.5 million
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1 million
161. How many Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements (DTAAs) has India signed?
(a) 89
(b) 92
(c) 94
(d) 96
Show Answer
Answer: c) 94
162. What does PE stand for in the context of tax treaties?
(a) Personal Establishment
(b) Permanent Establishment
(c) Professional Enterprise
(d) Public Entity
Show Answer
Answer: b) Permanent Establishment
163. Which Supreme Court ruling expanded the scope of Permanent Establishment?
(a) India-UK Tax Treaty case
(b) India-UAE Tax Treaty case
(c) India-Singapore Tax Treaty case
(d) India-Mauritius Tax Treaty case
Show Answer
Answer: b) India-UAE Tax Treaty case
164. What does NavIC stand for?
(a) National Vehicular Information and Communication
(b) Navigation with Indian Constellation
(c) National Vehicle Identification Code
(d) Navigation and Vehicle Intelligence Center
Show Answer
Answer: b) Navigation with Indian Constellation
165. What is the full form of IRNSS?
(a) Indian Regional Navigation Satellite Service
(b) Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System
(c) Indian Remote Navigation and Satellite System
(d) Indian Regional Network of Satellite Systems
Show Answer
Answer: b) Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System
166. Up to what distance beyond India’s borders does NavIC provide coverage
(a) 1,000 km
(b) 1,200 km
(c) 1,500 km
(d) 2,000 km
Show Answer
Answer: c) 1,500 km
167. How many types of services does NavIC provide?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Show Answer
Answer: b) Two
168. How many minority communities are specifically targeted under the PM VIKAS scheme?
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
Show Answer
Answer: b) 6
169. Which ministry implements the PM VIKAS scheme?
(a) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
(b) Ministry of Minority Affairs
(c) Ministry of Rural Development
(d) Ministry of Skill Development
Show Answer
Answer: b) Ministry of Minority Affairs
170. How many previous schemes were consolidated to form PM VIKAS?
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 7
Show Answer
Answer: b) 5
171. The Prime Minister’s visit to Maldives marked which anniversary of diplomatic relations between India and the Maldives?
a) 50th anniversary
b) 55th anniversary
c) 60th anniversary
d) 65th anniversary
Show Answer
Answer: c) 60th anniversary
172. What was the total value of the Line of Credit (LoC) extended to the Maldives?
a) ₹3,850 crores
b) ₹4,850 crores
c) ₹5,850 crores
d) ₹6,850 crores
Show Answer
Answer: b) ₹4,850 crores
173. Which digital payment system was agreed to be enabled in the Maldives?
a) RuPay
b) BHIM
c) UPI (Unified Payments Interface)
d) PayTM
Show Answer
Answer: c) UPI (Unified Payments Interface)
174. How many social housing units were inaugurated in Hulhumalé?
a) 2,300 units
b) 3,300 units
c) 4,300 units
d) 5,300 units
Show Answer
Answer: b) 3,300 units
175. The Maldives is considered a strategic “gatekeeper” between which two regions?
a) Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal
b) Western IOR and Eastern IOR
c) Indian Ocean and Pacific Ocean
d) Red Sea and Persian Gulf
Show Answer
Answer: b) Western IOR and Eastern IOR
176. What percentage of India’s external trade is routed through Sea Lines of Communication near the Maldives?
a) Nearly 40%
b) Nearly 50%
c) Nearly 60%
d) Nearly 70%
Show Answer
Answer: b) Nearly 50%
177. How many websites were blocked by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting for hosting obscene content?
a) 20 websites
b) 25 websites
c) 30 websites
d) 35 websites
Show Answer
Answer: b) 25 websites
178. Which section of the IT Act, 2000 deals with publication and transmission of obscene material in electronic form?
a) Section 66 and 66A
b) Section 67 and 67A
c) Section 68 and 68A
d) Section 69 and 69A
Show Answer
Answer: b) Section 67 and 67A
179. Which article of the Indian Constitution permits reasonable restrictions on freedom of speech in the interest of decency and morality?
a) Article 19(1)
b) Article 19(2)
c) Article 19(3)
d) Article 19(4)
Show Answer
Answer: b) Article 19(2)
180. The landmark case Ranjit D. Udeshi v. State of Maharashtra was related to:
a) Freedom of press
b) Right to privacy
c) Publishing obscene material
d) Defamation laws
Show Answer
Answer: c) Publishing obscene material
181. John Stuart Mill’s ‘Harm Principle’ is mentioned in the context of:
a) On Liberty, 1859
b) Utilitarianism, 1863
c) The Subjection of Women, 1869
d) Principles of Political Economy, 1848
Show Answer
Answer: a) On Liberty, 1859
182. The hydrogen-powered coach was developed at which facility?
a) Research Designs and Standards Organisation (RDSO)
b) Integral Coach Factory (ICF)
c) Rail Coach Factory (RCF)
d) Modern Coach Factory (MCF)
Show Answer
Answer: b) Integral Coach Factory (ICF)
183. What is the power rating of the hydrogen propulsion system in the new coach?
a) 1,000 HP
b) 1,200 HP
c) 1,500 HP
d) 1,800 HP
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1,200 H
184. The “Hydrogen for Heritage” initiative was launched in which year?
a) 2022
b) 2023
c) 2024
d) 2025
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2023
185. How many hydrogen-fueled trains are envisioned to be deployed on heritage and hill routes?
a) 25 trains
b) 30 trains
c) 35 trains
d) 40 trains
Show Answer
Answer: c) 35 trains
186. Replacing a single diesel-powered train with hydrogen propulsion could reduce emissions equivalent to how many passenger vehicles annually?
a) 300 passenger vehicles
b) 400 passenger vehicles
c) 500 passenger vehicles
d) 600 passenger vehicles
Show Answer
Answer: b) 400 passenger vehicles
187. What type of electrolyser plants are needed to generate green hydrogen from renewable energy?
a) Alkaline electrolyser plants
b) Solid oxide electrolyser plants
c) Proton exchange membrane (PEM) electrolyser plants
d) Anion exchange membrane electrolyser plants
Show Answer
Answer: c) Proton exchange membrane (PEM) electrolyser plants
188. President’s Rule is governed by which part of the Constitution?
a) Part XVII
b) Part XVIII
c) Part XIX
d) Part XX
Show Answer
Answer: b) Part XVIII
189. The primary constitutional article governing President’s Rule is:
a) Article 355
b) Article 356
c) Article 357
d) Article 358
Show Answer
Answer: b) Article 356
190. Initially, President’s Rule is imposed for what duration?
a) Three months
b) Six months
c) Nine months
d) One year
Show Answer
Answer: b) Six months
191. President’s Rule can be extended up to a maximum of:
a) Two years
b) Three years
c) Four years
d) Five years
Show Answer
Answer: b) Three years
192. Extensions beyond one year require either a national emergency in operation or:
a) Supreme Court approval
b) Parliament approval with special majority
c) Election Commission certifying that elections cannot be held
d) President’s discretionary powers
Show Answer
Answer: c) Election Commission certifying that elections cannot be held
193. At what elevation is Doklam (Donglang Plateau) situated?
a) 12,780 feet
b) 13,780 feet
c) 14,780 feet
d) 15,780 feet
Show Answer
Answer: b) 13,780 feet
194. The 2017 Doklam standoff occurred when India intervened to halt:
a) Chinese military exercises
b) Chinese road construction
c) Chinese border patrol
d) Chinese surveillance activities
Show Answer
Answer: b) Chinese road construction
195. India’s action in Doklam was in accordance with which treaty?
a) 2005 India-Bhutan Friendship Treaty
b) 2007 India-Bhutan Friendship Treaty
c) 2009 India-Bhutan Friendship Treaty
d) 2010 India-Bhutan Friendship Treaty
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2007 India-Bhutan Friendship Treaty
196. The Siliguri Corridor is often referred to as:
a) “Dragon’s Neck”
b) “Chicken’s Neck”
c) “Eagle’s Neck”
d) “Tiger’s Neck”
Show Answer
Answer: b) “Chicken’s Neck”
197. Doklam lies at the tri-junction of which three countries?
a) India, China, Nepal
b) India, Bhutan, China
c) India, Bhutan, Myanmar
d) India, China, Bangladesh
Show Answer
Answer: b) India, Bhutan, China
198. The E3 group consists of which three countries?
a) United Kingdom, France, Italy
b) United Kingdom, France, Germany
c) United Kingdom, Germany, Spain
d) France, Germany, Netherlands
Show Answer
Answer: b) United Kingdom, France, Germany
199. The E3 group was first convened in which year?
a) 2001
b) 2003
c) 2005
d) 2007
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2003
200. Snapback sanctions under the JCPOA allow for automatic re-imposition of UN sanctions:
a) Only with UN Security Council consensus
b) Even without UN Security Council consensus
c) Only with US approval
d) Only with E3 unanimous agreement
Show Answer
Answer: b) Even without UN Security Council consensus
201. Which ministry in India is the nodal authority for extradition processes?
a) Ministry of Home Affairs
b) Ministry of External Affairs
c) Ministry of Defence
d) Ministry of Law and Justice
Show Answer
Answer: b) Ministry of External Affairs
202. How many countries has India signed MLA agreements with (including Nepal)?
a) 41
b) 42
c) 43
d) 44
Show Answer
Answer: c) 43
203. Which ministry in India processes MLA requests?
a) Ministry of External Affairs
b) Ministry of Home Affairs
c) Ministry of Defence
d) Ministry of Commerce
Show Answer
Answer: b) Ministry of Home Affairs
204. What is the length of the India-Nepal open border?
a) 1,651 km
b) 1,751 km
c) 1,851 km
d) 1,951 km
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1,751 km
205. Which terrorist group used Nepal as a transit point according to the document?
a) Lashkar-e-Taiba
b) Indian Mujahideen
c) Jaish-e-Mohammed
d) Al-Qaeda
Show Answer
Answer: b) Indian Mujahideen
206. Apart from Nepal, which other neighboring country didn’t have an MLA agreement with India?
a) Bangladesh
b) Sri Lanka
c) Bhutan
d) Myanmar
Show Answer
Answer: c) Bhutan
207. Which tribunal directed Uttarakhand to categorize Nainital based on environmental sensitivity?
a) National Human Rights Commission
b) National Green Tribunal
c) Supreme Court
d) High Court
Show Answer
Answer: b) National Green Tribunal
208. In which month and year did the NGT issue the directive regarding Nainital?
a) August 2024
b) September 2024
c) October 2024
d) November 2024
Show Answer
Answer: b) September 2024
209. Tourist Carrying Capacity is determined by biotic and abiotic factors. Which of the following is an abiotic factor?
a) Vegetation cover
b) Biodiversity
c) Terrain
d) Water availability
Show Answer
Answer: c) Terrain
210. What does Earth Overshoot Day mark?
a) When tourism exceeds capacity
b) When human demand exceeds Earth’s capacity to renew resources
c) When population growth peaks
d) When climate change accelerates
Show Answer
Answer: b) When human demand exceeds Earth’s capacity to renew resources
211. What percentage of Earth’s land surface falls under high or very high risk for zoonotic disease emergence?
a) 8.3%
b) 9.3%
c) 10.3%
d) 11.3%
Show Answer
Answer: b) 9.3%
212. Which region leads in terms of land area at elevated risk for zoonotic diseases?
a) Asia and Africa
b) Europe and North America
c) Latin America and Oceania
d) Africa and Europe
Show Answer
Answer: c) Latin America and Oceania
213. What percentage of land area in Latin America and Oceania is at elevated risk?
a) 16.6%
b) 17.6%
c) 18.6%
d) 19.6%
Show Answer
Answer: c) 18.6%
214. Approximately what percentage of global population lives in highest-risk areas for zoonotic diseases?
a) 2%
b) 3%
c) 4%
d) 5%
Show Answer
Answer: b) 3%
215. What percentage of global population resides in moderate risk areas?
a) 18%
b) 19%
c) 20%
d) 21%
Show Answer
Answer: c) 20%
216. Which approach emphasizes collaboration across public health, veterinary, environmental, and agricultural sectors?
a) Planetary Boundaries Framework
b) Biocapacity Analysis
c) One Health Approach
d) Climate Adaptation Strategy
Show Answer
Answer: c) One Health Approach
217. What is the name of the new All-Arms Brigades being raised by the Indian Army?
a) Bhairav
b) Rudra
c) Shaktibaan
d) Divyadrishti
Show Answer
Answer: b) Rudra
218. What is the name of the Light Commando Battalions?
a) Rudra
b) Bhairav
c) Shaktibaan
d) Divyadrishti
Show Answer
Answer: b) Bhairav
219. What is the name of the new artillery regiments?
a) Rudra
b) Bhairav
c) Shaktibaan
d) Divyadrishti
Show Answer
Answer: c) Shaktibaan
220. What is the name of the batteries for loitering munitions?
a) Rudra
b) Bhairav
c) Shaktibaan
d) Divyadrishti
Show Answer
Answer: d) Divyadrishti
221. Approximately how many troops will each IBG comprise?
a) 4,000
b) 5,000
c) 6,000
d) 7,000
Show Answer
Answer: b) 5,000
222. The IBG concept stems from which doctrine?
a) Hot Pursuit Doctrine
b) Cold Start Doctrine
c) Proactive Defence Doctrine
d) Forward Defence Doctrine
Show Answer
Answer: b) Cold Start Doctrine
223. Operation Sindoor highlighted threats from which countries?
a) China and Bangladesh
b) Pakistan and Bangladesh
c) China and Pakistan
d) China and Myanmar
Show Answer
Answer: c) China and Pakistan
224. The Cold Start Doctrine was formulated after which operation?
a) Operation Vijay
b) Operation Parakram
c) Operation Brasstacks
d) Operation Meghdoot
Show Answer
Answer: b) Operation Parakram
225. IBGs are designed to achieve dominance in how many areas?
a) Three
b) Four
c) Five
d) Six
Show Answer
Answer: b) Four
226. Exercise Bold Kurukshetra 2025 is the _ edition of the India-Singapore joint military exercise.
a) 13th
b) 14th
c) 15th
d) 16th
Show Answer
Answer: b) 14th
227. When did Exercise Bold Kurukshetra 2025 commence?
a) July 26, 2025
b) July 27, 2025
c) July 28, 2025
d) July 29, 2025
Show Answer
Answer: b) July 27, 2025
228. What format is Exercise Bold Kurukshetra 2025 conducted in?
a) Live fire exercise
b) Field training exercise
c) Tabletop Exercise and Computer-Based Wargame
d) Air combat exercise
Show Answer
Answer: c) Tabletop Exercise and Computer-Based Wargame
229. Which year was the India-US MLA agreement signed?
a) 2003
b) 2004
c) 2005
d) 2006
Show Answer
Answer: c) 2005
230. Which principle emphasizes proactive measures in the face of environmental uncertainty?
a) Sustainable development principle
b) Precautionary principle
c) Polluter pays principle
d) Common but differentiated responsibility
Show Answer
Answer: b) Precautionary principle
231. What educational structure does NEP 2020 aim to transition to?
a) 4+4+4+4
b) 5+3+3+4
c) 6+3+3+3
d) 5+4+3+3
Show Answer
Answer: b) 5+3+3+4
232. How many children have benefited from NIPUN Bharat and Vidya Pravesh initiatives?
a) 3.2 crore
b) 4.2 crore
c) 5.2 crore
d) 6.2 crore
Show Answer
Answer: b) 4.2 crore
233. What percentage of schools now have internet access according to NEP 2020 progress?
a) 68%
b) 70%
c) 72%
d) 75%
Show Answer
Answer: c) 72%
234. In which year was the Common University Entrance Test (CUET) introduced?
a) 2021
b) 2022
c) 2023
d) 2024
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2022
235. What does PARAKH stand for?
a) Performance Assessment, Review, and Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic Development
b) Progressive Assessment and Research for Academic Knowledge and Health
c) Primary Assessment and Review of Academic Knowledge Hub
d) Performance Analysis and Research for Academic Knowledge Holders
Show Answer
Answer: a) Performance Assessment, Review, and Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic
Development
236. Which organization submitted India’s Third Voluntary National Review at HLPF 2025?
a) Ministry of External Affairs
b) NITI Aayog
c) Planning Commission
d) Cabinet Secretariat
Show Answer
Answer: b) NITI Aayog
237. Approximately how many people exited multidimensional poverty in India between 2013-14 and 2022-23?
a) 200 million
b) 225 million
c) 248 million
d) 275 million
Show Answer
Answer: c) 248 million
238. What percentage of global real-time digital payments does UPI account for?
a) 45%
b) 47%
c) 49%
d) 52%
Show Answer
Answer: c) 49%
239. In which year was the High-Level Political Forum (HLPF) established?
a) 2010
b) 2012
c) 2014
d) 2015
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2012
240. Which constitutional article supports the concept of living wage in India?
a) Article 42
b) Article 43
c) Article 44
d) Article 45
Show Answer
Answer: b) Article 43
241. According to the World Economic Forum, implementing living wages globally could add how much to global GDP annually?
a) $3.6 trillion
b) $4.6 trillion
c) $5.6 trillion
d) $6.6 trillion
Show Answer
Answer: b) $4.6 trillion
242. What percentage of the global population was affected by hunger in 2024 according to SOFI 2025?
a) 7.8%
b) 8.2%
c) 8.6%
d) 9.1%
Show Answer
Answer: b) 8.2%
243. How many people globally were unable to afford a healthy diet in 2024?
a) 2.40 billion
b) 2.50 billion
c) 2.60 billion
d) 2.76 billion
Show Answer
Answer: c) 2.60 billion
244. Adult obesity prevalence increased from 12.1% in 2012 to what percentage in 2022?
a) 14.8%
b) 15.2%
c) 15.8%
d) 16.4%
Show Answer
Answer: c) 15.8%
245. Which organizations jointly prepare the SOFI report?
a) FAO, IFAD, UNICEF, WFP, WHO
b) FAO, UNDP, UNICEF, WFP, WHO
c) FAO, IFAD, UNESCO, WFP, WHO
d) FAO, IFAD, UNICEF, UNHCR, WHO
Show Answer
Answer: a) FAO, IFAD, UNICEF, WFP, WHO
246. True Polar Wander refers to the rotation of Earth’s solid outer layers around which part?
a) Solid inner core
b) Liquid outer core
c) Mantle
d) Crust
Show Answer
Answer: b) Liquid outer core
247. Where was the recent BRICS Ministers of Culture Meeting held?
a) New Delhi, India
b) Moscow, Russia
c) Brasilia, Brazil
d) Beijing, China
Show Answer
Answer: c) Brasilia, Brazil
248. The Geelong Treaty is a bilateral agreement between which two countries?
a) Australia and USA
b) UK and USA
c) Australia and UK
d) All three AUKUS members
Show Answer
Answer: c) Australia and UK
249. How many years of collaboration does the Geelong Treaty facilitate?
a) 25 years
b) 40 years
c) 50 years
d) 75 years
Show Answer
Answer: c) 50 years
250. Divya Deshmukh defeated which veteran player to win the FIDE Women’s World Cup 2025?
a) Harika Dronavalli
b) Vaishali Rameshbabu
c) Humpy Koneru
d) Tania Sachdev
Show Answer
Answer: c) Humpy Koneru
251. Where was the FIDE Women’s World Cup 2025 held?
a) Chennai, India
b) Batumi, Georgia
c) Moscow, Russia
d) Baku, Azerbaijan
Show Answer
Answer: b) Batumi, Georgia
252. Where is FIDE currently headquartered?
a) Paris, France
b) Geneva, Switzerland
c) Lausanne, Switzerland
d) Zurich, Switzerland
Show Answer
Answer: c) Lausanne, Switzerland
253. Which technique was used for the first grassland bird census at Kaziranga?
a) Visual Monitoring Technique
b) Acoustic Monitoring Technique
c) Satellite Tracking Technique
d) Radio Telemetry Technique
Show Answer
Answer: b) Acoustic Monitoring Technique
254. During which months was the Kaziranga grassland bird census conducted?
a) January-March
b) March-May
c) May-July
d) September-November
Show Answer
Answer: b) March-May
255. Which AI-based tool was used to identify bird species from recorded calls at Kaziranga?
a) BirdCall
b) BirdNET
c) BirdAI
d) BirdTrack
Show Answer
Answer: b) BirdNET
256. The Nelson Mandela Prize is awarded once every how many years?
a) 3 years
b) 4 years
c) 5 years
d) 6 years
Show Answer
Answer: c) 5 years
257. Who were the recipients of the Nelson Mandela Prize 2025?
a) Brenda Reynolds (Canada) and Kennedy Odede (Kenya)
b) Sarah Johnson (USA) and Kofi Asante (Ghana)
c) Maria Silva (Brazil) and Rajesh Kumar (India)
d) Emma Thompson (UK) and Ahmed Hassan (Egypt)
Show Answer
Answer: a) Brenda Reynolds (Canada) and Kennedy Odede (Kenya)
258. In which year was the Nelson Mandela Prize established?
a) 2013
b) 2014
c) 2015
d) 2016
Show Answer
Answer: c) 2015
259. During which centuries was the Preah Vihear Temple constructed?
a) 9th to 10th centuries
b) 10th to 11th centuries
c) 11th to 12th centuries
d) 12th to 13th centuries
Show Answer
Answer: c) 11th to 12th centuries
260. In which year was Preah Vihear Temple inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site?
a) 2006
b) 2007
c) 2008
d) 2009
Show Answer
Answer: c) 2008
261. What magnitude earthquake struck Russia’s Kamchatka Peninsula that triggered tsunami waves?
a) 7.8
b) 8.8
c) 9.0
d) 8.2
Show Answer
Answer: b) 8.8
262. The Pacific Ring of Fire hosts what percentage of the world’s active and dormant volcanoes?
a) 65%
b) 70%
c) 75%
d) 80%
Show Answer
Answer: c) 75%
263. What is the maximum speed that tsunami waves can achieve in deep ocean?
a) 600 km/h
b) 700 km/h
c) 800 km/h
d) 900 km/h
Show Answer
Answer: c) 800 km/h
264. Which organization in India is responsible for enhancing tsunami early warning capabilities?
a) NDMA
b) INCOIS
c) IMD
d) ISRO
Show Answer
Answer: b) INCOIS
265. According to NDMA guidelines, what percentage of the world’s earthquakes occur in the Pacific Ring of Fire?
a) 85%
b) 90%
c) 95%
d) 80%
Show Answer
Answer: b) 90%
266. Which Constitutional Amendment envisioned fiscal, functional, and administrative devolution to Panchayati Raj Institutions?
a) 72nd Amendment
b) 73rd Amendment
c) 74th Amendment
d) 75th Amendment
Show Answer
Answer: b) 73rd Amendment
267. What does “3Fs” refer to in the context of devolution to PRIs?
a) Finance, Functions, Facilities
b) Functions, Funds, Functionaries
c) Funding, Formation, Functioning
d) Finance, Facilities, Functionaries
Show Answer
Answer: b) Functions, Funds, Functionaries
268. According to the XV Finance Commission, what percentage of grants to RLBs are untied grants?
a) 30%
b) 40%
c) 50%
d) 60%
Show Answer
Answer: b) 40%
269. Which states were cited for inefficiencies in auditing and submission of Action Taken Reports?
a) Bihar and Jharkhand
b) Arunachal Pradesh and Chhattisgarh
c) Odisha and West Bengal
d) Rajasthan and Gujarat
Show Answer
Answer: b) Arunachal Pradesh and Chhattisgarh
270. Under which Article of the Constitution do Rural Local Bodies receive financial allocations based on Finance Commission recommendations?
a) Article 270
b) Article 275
c) Article 280
d) Article 285
Show Answer
Answer: c) Article 280
271. How many species of small wild cats are found in India?
a) 8
b) 9
c) 10
d) 11
Show Answer
Answer: b) c) 10
272. Which is the smallest wildcat globally found in India?
a) Jungle Cat
b) Rusty-Spotted Cat
c) Fishing Cat
d) Desert Cat
Show Answer
Answer: b) Rusty-Spotted Cat
273. What is the key difference between big cats and small cats in terms of vocalization?
a) Big cats can purr, small cats can roar
b) Big cats can roar, small cats can purr continuously
c) Both can roar and purr
d) Neither can roar or purr
Show Answer
Answer: b) Big cats can roar, small cats can purr continuously
274. The Caracal is also known by which local name?
a) Siya Gosh
b) Bagh Gosh
c) Kala Gosh
d) Pila Gosh
Show Answer
Answer: a) Siya Gosh
275. Which organization collaborated with NTCA to release the report on small cats?
a) ZSI
b) WII
c) BSI
d) FSI
Show Answer
Answer: b) WII
276. According to WMO 2006 definition, flash floods typically occur within how many hours of a triggering event?
a) 2-4 hours
b) 4-6 hours
c) 6-8 hours
d) 8-10 hours
Show Answer
Answer: b) 4-6 hours
277. What percentage of flash floods are triggered by high-intensity rainfall in under 6 hours?
a) 20%
b) 25%
c) 30%
d) 35%
Show Answer
Answer: b) 25%
278. The Flash Flood Guidance System (FFGS) has been operational in South Asia since which year?
a) 2018
b) 2019
c) 2020
d) 2021
Show Answer
Answer: c) 2020
279. What is the resolution of forecasts provided by the Flash Flood Guidance System?
a) 2 km x 2 km
b) 4 km x 4 km
c) 6 km x 6 km
d) 8 km x 8 km
Show Answer
Answer: b) 4 km x 4 km
280. Which river basins are identified as extremely flash flood-prone according to the study?
a) Ganga, Yamuna, Narmada
b) Brahmaputra, Narmada, Tapi, Mahanadi
c) Indus, Chenab, Ravi
d) Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery
Show Answer
Answer: b) Brahmaputra, Narmada, Tapi, Mahanadi
281. How many glacial lakes are present in the Indian Himalayan Region?
a) Over 25,000
b) Over 28,000
c) Over 30,000
d) Over 32,000
Show Answer
Answer: b) Over 28,000
282. Which event was cited as an example of GLOF in Sikkim in 2023?
a) Chorabari GLOF
b) South Lhonak GLOF
c) North Lhonak GLOF
d) Tsho Rolpa GLOF
Show Answer
Answer: b) South Lhonak GLOF
283. How many glacial lakes and water bodies does the Central Water Commission monitor using satellite imagery?
a) 802
b) 852
c) 902
d) 952
Show Answer
Answer: c) 902
284. What percentage of GLOF events are caused by ice avalanches or landslides?
a) Half
b) Nearly two-thirds
c) Three-quarters
d) Four-fifths
Show Answer
Answer: b) Nearly two-thirds
285. The National Glacial Lake Outburst Flood Risk Mitigation Project is implemented in how many Himalayan states?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
Show Answer
Answer: b) 4
286. What percentage of overall Compensatory Afforestation targets did India achieve between 2019-20 and 2023-24?
a) 80%
b) 85%
c) 90%
d) 95%
Show Answer
Answer: b) 85%
287. According to RBI’s new guidelines, regulated entities can invest up to what percentage of an AIF scheme’s corpus?
a) 15%
b) 20%
c) 25%
d) 30%
Show Answer
Answer: b) 20%
288. What is the strike range of the Pralay missile?
a) 100-400 km
b) 150-500 km
c) 200-600 km
d) 250-700 km
Show Answer
Answer: b) 150-500 km
289. Kaziranga Tiger Reserve holds which position in terms of tiger density in India?
a) First-highest
b) Second-highest
c) Third-highest
d) Fourth-highest
Show Answer
Answer: c) Third-highest
290. The newly discovered Harappan site Ratadiya Ri Dheri is estimated to be approximately how old?
a) 4,000 years
b) 4,500 years
c) 5,000 years
d) 5,500 years
Show Answer
Answer: b) 4,500 years
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