Practice the September 2026 Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the first week of August 2026.
The Current Affairs Quiz of 1 to 7 September features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.
1st Week of September 2026: Current Affairs Quiz
1. India and Uzbekistan upgraded their bilateral relationship to a:
a) Strategic Partnership
b) Comprehensive Strategic Partnership
c) Special Strategic Partnership
d) Global Strategic Partnership
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Comprehensive Strategic Partnership
2. India and Uzbekistan established a bilateral trade target of US$5 billion by which year?
a) 2028
b) 2030
c) 2032
d) 2035
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 2030
3. Which honour did the President of Uzbekistan confer on PM Narendra Modi?
a) Order of Amir Timur
b) Oliy Darajali Do’stlik (Order of Friendship)
c) Order of Independence
d) Nishan-e-Uzbekistan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Oliy Darajali Do’stlik (Order of Friendship)
4. India’s grant for Aral Sea restoration connects Uzbekistan’s Yashil Makon programme with which Indian campaign?
a) Namami Gange
b) Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam
c) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
d) Jal Jeevan Mission
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam
5. DUSTLIK, the annual joint military exercise between India and Uzbekistan, is primarily focused on:
a) Amphibious warfare
b) Counter-terrorism cooperation
c) Naval interoperability
d) Air defence coordination
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Counter-terrorism cooperation
6. The PARIVARTAN Scheme primarily targets the replacement of which category of vehicles?
a) Private cars
b) BS-IV and older commercial vehicles
c) Two-wheelers
d) Agricultural tractors
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) BS-IV and older commercial vehicles
7. Which ministry implements the PARIVARTAN Scheme?
a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
b) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH)
c) Ministry of Heavy Industries
d) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH)
8. Under PARIVARTAN, what is the minimum discount participating OEMs must provide on qualifying new vehicles?
a) 5%
b) 8%
c) 10%
d) 12%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 8%
9. Between 2014-15 and 2023-24, the number of universities in India increased by approximately:
a) 25.3%
b) 42.2%
c) 69.6%
d) 31.5%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 69.6%
10. As per recent data, India’s Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in higher education stands at around 30%, while NEP 2020 has set a target of:
a) 40%
b) 45%
c) 50%
d) 60%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 50%
11. India’s national R&D expenditure as a percentage of GDP is approximately:
a) 0.64%
b) 1.2%
c) 2.1%
d) 3.5%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: a) 0.64%
12. Which scheme provides students and researchers access to international scholarly journals under a unified national subscription model?
a) SWAYAM
b) One Nation, One Subscription (ONOS)
c) Academic Bank of Credits
d) SPARC
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) One Nation, One Subscription (ONOS)
13. PMFBY was launched in which year?
a) 2014
b) 2016
c) 2018
d) 2020
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 2016
14. Under PMFBY, what is the maximum premium contribution by farmers for Kharif foodgrain and oilseed crops?
a) 1.5%
b) 2%
c) 5%
d) 10%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 2%
15. Under PMFBY, what is the Centre-State premium subsidy sharing ratio for North-Eastern and Himalayan States/UTs?
a) 50:50
b) 60:40
c) 75:25
d) 90:10
Show Answer
Correct Answer: d) 90:10
16. Which PMFBY technology component uses geo-tagged crop photographs to monitor crop conditions?
a) YES-TECH
b) WINDS
c) CROPIC
d) CCE-Agri
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) CROPIC
17. The Per Drop More Crop (PDMC) initiative was originally introduced under which scheme?
a) PM-KISAN
b) Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY)
c) Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana
d) PM Fasal Bima Yojana
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY)
18. Under PDMC, what is the maximum subsidy available to small and marginal farmers for micro-irrigation?
a) 35%
b) 45%
c) 55%
d) 65%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 55%
19. Agriculture accounts for approximately what share of India’s total freshwater withdrawals?
a) 50%
b) 65%
c) 80%
d) 95%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 80%
20. The Legal Metrology (Indian Standard Time) Rules, 2026 will become effective how many days after notification?
a) 90 days
b) 120 days
c) 150 days
d) 180 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer: d) 180 days
21. Which Indian satellite navigation system is permitted for secure dissemination of IST under the new rules?
a) GAGAN
b) NavIC
c) IRNSS-1A
d) GSAT
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) NavIC
22. Where was the White Rabbit Technology-based IST Dissemination Demonstration Network commissioned?
a) National Physical Laboratory, Delhi
b) Regional Reference Standard Laboratory (RRSL), Bengaluru
c) ISRO Headquarters, Bengaluru
d) IIT Bombay
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Regional Reference Standard Laboratory (RRSL), Bengaluru
23. White Rabbit technology, used for precision clock synchronisation, was originally developed at:
a) NASA
b) CERN
c) ISRO
d) MIT
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) CERN
24. A barrier lake (landslide lake) forms when:
a) A glacier melts rapidly
b) Landslide debris blocks the course of a river
c) A dam is deliberately constructed
d) Heavy rainfall floods a valley
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Landslide debris blocks the course of a river
25. What distinguishes a GLOF from an LLOF in terms of natural barrier?
a) GLOF involves landslide debris; LLOF involves glacier material
b) GLOF involves glacier/moraine material; LLOF involves landslide debris
c) Both involve identical barrier materials
d) Neither involves a natural barrier
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) GLOF involves glacier/moraine material; LLOF involves landslide debris
26. One of the most severe recorded LLOF events, caused by an earthquake-triggered landslide blocking the Dadu River, occurred in 1786 in which Chinese province?
a) Yunnan
b) Sichuan
c) Tibet Autonomous Region
d) Qinghai
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Sichuan
27. The Javelin missile system, being procured by India via Foreign Military Sales, is jointly developed by which two companies?
a) Boeing and Raytheon
b) Lockheed Martin and Raytheon (RTX)
c) General Dynamics and Northrop Grumman
d) BAE Systems and Lockheed Martin
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Lockheed Martin and Raytheon (RTX)
28. What is India’s indigenous third-generation man-portable ATGM, developed as a counterpart to the Javelin?
a) NAG
b) MPATGM
c) Helina
d) SANT
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) MPATGM
29. The CosmoCube mission aims to detect faint low-frequency radio signals from the early universe by operating on:
a) Mars orbit
b) The far side of the Moon
c) Earth’s polar orbit
d) A Lagrange point
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) The far side of the Moon
30. The Nancy Grace Roman Space Telescope was launched aboard which rocket?
a) SpaceX Falcon 9
b) SpaceX Falcon Heavy
c) NASA SLS
d) ULA Atlas V
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) SpaceX Falcon Heavy
31. The Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA), whose ruling on the Indus Waters Treaty India rejected, is headquartered at:
a) Geneva, Switzerland
b) Peace Palace, The Hague, Netherlands
c) Vienna, Austria
d) New York, USA
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Peace Palace, The Hague, Netherlands
32. The Indus Waters Treaty, 1960, was facilitated by which international institution?
a) United Nations
b) World Bank
c) IMF
d) Asian Development Bank
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) World Bank
33. Under the Indus Waters Treaty, which rivers were allocated to India?
a) Indus, Jhelum, Chenab
b) Ravi, Beas, Sutlej
c) Ganga, Yamuna, Sone
d) Chenab, Beas, Indus
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Ravi, Beas, Sutlej
34. Under the Indus Waters Treaty’s dispute-resolution framework, ‘differences’ are addressed through:
a) Permanent Indus Commission
b) Neutral Expert
c) Court of Arbitration
d) World Bank arbitration
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Neutral Expert
35. The Northern Sea Route (NSR), gaining importance as an alternative to the Suez Canal, runs along which country’s Arctic coastline?
a) Canada
b) Norway
c) Russia
d) United States
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Russia
36. The Northern Sea Route extends from the Kara Gate to which strait?
a) Strait of Hormuz
b) Bering Strait
c) Strait of Malacca
d) Davis Strait
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Bering Strait
37. Which ministry serves as the nodal ministry for India’s Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) programme?
a) Ministry of Agriculture
b) Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
c) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
d) Ministry of Consumer Affairs
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
38. Which policy enabled the use of sugarcane juice, surplus FCI rice, maize and damaged foodgrains for ethanol procurement?
a) National Biofuels Policy, 2018
b) National Agriculture Policy, 2000
c) Ethanol Blending Roadmap, 2021
d) Green Energy Policy, 2015
Show Answer
Correct Answer: a) National Biofuels Policy, 2018
39. The National Mission on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems (NM-ICPS) was approved by the Union Cabinet in which year?
a) 2015
b) 2018
c) 2020
d) 2022
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 2018
40. Which department implements the NM-ICPS?
a) Ministry of Electronics and IT
b) Department of Science and Technology (DST)
c) Department of Telecommunications
d) NITI Aayog
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Department of Science and Technology (DST)
41. How many Technology Innovation Hubs (TIHs) have been established under NM-ICPS?
a) 15
b) 20
c) 25
d) 30
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 25
42. Under NM-ICPS’s Technology Translation Research Parks, which institute focuses on cybersecurity?
a) IISc Bengaluru
b) IIT Kanpur
c) IIT Indore
d) IIT (ISM) Dhanbad
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) IIT Kanpur
43. BharatGen, supported under NM-ICPS, is led by which institution?
a) IIT Delhi
b) IISc Bengaluru
c) IIT Bombay
d) IIT Madras
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) IIT Bombay
44. Which BharatGen model is used for speech-to-text applications?
a) Sooktam
b) Shrutam
c) Patram
d) Agri Param
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Shrutam
45. Pusa Rice DST1, India’s first genome-edited rice variety, was developed by:
a) ICAR-IIRR, Hyderabad
b) ICAR-IARI, New Delhi
c) ICAR-CRRI, Cuttack
d) IIT Kharagpur
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) ICAR-CRRI, Cuttack
46. Pusa Rice DST1 was developed using which gene-editing technology?
a) TALEN
b) Zinc Finger Nuclease
c) CRISPR-Cas9 with SDN-1
d) RNA interference
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) CRISPR-Cas9 with SDN-1
47. DRR Dhan 100 (Kamala), another genome-edited rice variety, was developed by ICAR-IIRR from which parent variety?
a) MTU1010
b) Samba Mahsuri (BPT 5204)
c) Swarna
d) IR64
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Samba Mahsuri (BPT 5204)
48. The Ramon Magsaysay Award is often described as:
a) Asia’s Nobel Prize
b) The Peace Prize of the East
c) Asia’s Pulitzer
d) The Global Humanity Award
Show Answer
Correct Answer: a) Asia’s Nobel Prize
49. Tommy Koh, a 2026 Ramon Magsaysay awardee from Singapore, is recognised for his role in presiding over which conference?
a) UN Climate Conference
b) Third UN Conference on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)
c) World Trade Organization Ministerial
d) UN Human Rights Council
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Third UN Conference on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)
50. Runa Khan, a 2026 Ramon Magsaysay awardee from Bangladesh, founded which development organisation?
a) BRAC
b) Grameen Bank
c) Friendship
d) ASA
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Friendship
51. Bo Kyi, a 2026 Ramon Magsaysay awardee from Myanmar, co-founded which organisation?
a) Assistance Association for Political Prisoners (AAPP)
b) Human Rights Watch Myanmar
c) Amnesty Myanmar
d) Myanmar Freedom Forum
Show Answer
Correct Answer: a) Assistance Association for Political Prisoners (AAPP)
52. The recent Sone River water-sharing MoU between Bihar and Jharkhand allocates how much water (in MAF) to Bihar?
a) 2 MAF
b) 4.5 MAF
c) 5.75 MAF
d) 7.75 MAF
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 5.75 MAF
53. The Sone River water-sharing dispute originated from the original allocation under which 1973 accord?
a) Bansagar Accord
b) Indus Waters Treaty
c) Krishna Water Disputes Tribunal
d) Cauvery Agreement
Show Answer
Correct Answer: a) Bansagar Accord
54. The Sone River, the second-largest right-bank tributary of the Ganga, originates near which plateau?
a) Chota Nagpur Plateau
b) Amarkantak Plateau
c) Deccan Plateau
d) Malwa Plateau
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Amarkantak Plateau
55. According to CGA data, the Central Government’s fiscal deficit for April-July 2026 reached what percentage of the FY 2026-27 budgeted target?
a) 16.8%
b) 22.5%
c) 26.8%
d) 33.4%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 26.8%
56. What is the budgeted fiscal deficit target for FY 2026-27 as a percentage of GDP?
a) 3.5%
b) 4.3%
c) 5.1%
d) 6.0%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 4.3%
57. Hanging glaciers, linked to the recent Nepal flash flood, are ice masses that typically form when:
a) A main valley glacier retreats and thins, leaving tributary glaciers suspended
b) Permafrost expands rapidly in winter
c) A glacial lake overflows suddenly
d) Volcanic activity melts surrounding ice
Show Answer
Correct Answer: a) A main valley glacier retreats and thins, leaving tributary glaciers suspended
58. Chile’s Atacama Desert, considered the driest non-polar desert on Earth, is located in:
a) Southern Chile
b) Central Chile
c) Northern Chile
d) Chilean Patagonia
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Northern Chile
59. Ojos del Salado, Chile’s highest point, is notable for being:
a) The tallest peak in South America
b) The highest active volcano in the world
c) An extinct volcano on the Pacific coast
d) The lowest point in the Atacama Desert
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) The highest active volcano in the world
60. Rani Avantibai Lodhi, remembered on her martyrdom day, was the queen-regent of which princely estate?
a) Jhansi
b) Ramgarh
c) Gwalior
d) Bundelkhand
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Ramgarh
61. In Sukanya Shantha v. Union of India (2024), the Supreme Court expanded the understanding of caste-based discrimination under which Article?
a) Article 14
b) Article 15
c) Article 17
d) Article 21
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Article 17
62. Which Article prohibits discrimination on grounds of caste in access to shops, hotels, wells and places of public entertainment?
a) Article 14
b) Article 15(2)
c) Article 17
d) Article 23
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Article 15(2)
63. Article 17, which abolishes untouchability, is notable for having:
a) Retrospective application
b) Horizontal application
c) Only vertical application
d) No penal provisions
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Horizontal application
64. Which Act gives statutory effect to the constitutional prohibition of untouchability?
a) SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989
b) Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955
c) Representation of the People Act, 1951
d) Manual Scavengers Act, 2013
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955
65. NAMASTE, a government initiative addressing caste-linked sanitation work, aims to:
a) Promote inter-caste marriages
b) Provide finance to SC entrepreneurs
c) Promote mechanised cleaning of sewers and septic tanks
d) Provide skill development for disadvantaged groups
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Promote mechanised cleaning of sewers and septic tanks
66. In Rakhi Bisht vs. Union of India, the Delhi High Court ruled that maternity leave cannot be a ground for:
a) Salary reduction
b) Demotion or loss of professional status
c) Extended probation
d) Transfer to another city
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Demotion or loss of professional status
67. In the Rakhi Bisht judgment, which existing legislations were noted as not comprehensively addressing post-maternity workplace reintegration?
a) Equal Remuneration Act and POSH Act
b) Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 and Code on Social Security, 2020
c) Factories Act and Industrial Disputes Act
d) Companies Act and Labour Codes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 and Code on Social Security, 2020
68. The 26th Summit of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) was held in which city?
a) Astana
b) Bishkek
c) Tashkent
d) Dushanbe
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Bishkek
69. Following the 26th SCO Summit, the SCO Chairmanship for 2026-27 passed to which country?
a) India
b) China
c) Pakistan
d) Russia
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Pakistan
70. Which city was designated the SCO Tourism and Cultural Capital for 2026-27?
a) Islamabad
b) Lahore
c) Karachi
d) Peshawar
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Lahore
71. The Collective Security Treaty Organization (CSTO), referenced in the Bishkek Declaration, was established in which year?
a) 1992
b) 1998
c) 2002
d) 2010
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 2002
72. India Semiconductor Mission 2.0 (Semicon 2.0) has been notified with a fiscal outlay of:
a) ₹76,000 crore
b) ₹1,00,000 crore
c) ₹1,27,500 crore
d) ₹1,50,000 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) ₹1,27,500 crore
73. Under Semicon 2.0, what is the maximum capital subsidy available for CMOS silicon fabrication facilities?
a) 25%
b) 35%
c) 40%
d) 50%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 40%
74. Under Semicon 2.0, R&D projects involving advanced semiconductor technologies may receive subsidies of up to what percentage of project costs?
a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 75%
d) 90%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 75%
75. Semicon 2.0 aims to train how many additional semiconductor engineers and technicians?
a) 50,000
b) 75,000
c) 1,00,000
d) 1,50,000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 1,00,000
76. The PRIP Scheme, aimed at boosting pharma-medtech research, has a total financial outlay of:
a) ₹2,500 crore
b) ₹5,000 crore
c) ₹7,500 crore
d) ₹10,000 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) ₹5,000 crore
77. Under PRIP’s Component A, Centres of Excellence with an allocation of ₹700 crore will be established at how many NIPERs?
a) Five
b) Seven
c) Ten
d) Twelve
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Seven
78. Which platform under PRIP provides support related to intellectual property and patent-related requirements?
a) MedTech Mitra
b) Patent Mitra
c) PRIP Online Platform
d) IP Sahayak
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Patent Mitra
79. In Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation (1985), the Supreme Court recognised which right as integral to Article 21?
a) Right to livelihood
b) Right to housing
c) Right to shelter
d) Right to employment
Show Answer
Correct Answer: a) Right to livelihood
80. The VB-G RAM G Act, which replaced MGNREGA, was operationalised from:
a) 1 January 2026
b) 1 April 2026
c) 1 July 2026
d) 1 October 2026
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 1 July 2026
81. Under the VB-G RAM G Act, the statutory employment ceiling has been increased from 100 days to:
a) 110 days
b) 120 days
c) 125 days
d) 150 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 125 days
82. Under the VB-G RAM G Act’s fiscal structure, what is the Centre-State sharing ratio for wages and material expenditure (general states)?
a) 100:0
b) 75:25
c) 60:40
d) 50:50
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 60:40
83. In Sanjit Roy v. State of Rajasthan (1983), the Supreme Court held that paying less than minimum wage under state employment programmes violates which Article?
a) Article 14
b) Article 19
c) Article 21
d) Article 23
Show Answer
Correct Answer: d) Article 23
84. According to the 7th edition of the Status of the World’s Coral Reefs report, global hard coral cover has fallen by approximately what percentage compared to the 1980-2009 reference period?
a) 5%
b) 9.5%
c) 15%
d) 20%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 9.5%
85. According to the coral reef report, around what percentage of coral reefs experienced unprecedented heat stress during 2024?
a) 65%
b) 75%
c) 87%
d) 95%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 87%
86. How many major global-scale coral bleaching events have been recorded since 1998?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Four
87. Which Aditya-L1 instrument observes the Sun in the ultraviolet wavelength range to identify early solar flare signatures?
a) SoLEXS
b) HEL1OS
c) SUIT (Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope)
d) VELC
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) SUIT (Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope)
88. The 2026 V-Dem Report classified India as an ‘electoral autocracy’, ranking it 106th among how many countries on the Electoral Democracy Index?
a) 150
b) 165
c) 179
d) 190
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 179
89. The Baltic Way of 23 August 1989, a key event of the Singing Revolution, formed a human chain connecting Tallinn, Riga and which other city?
a) Minsk
b) Vilnius
c) Kyiv
d) Warsaw
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Vilnius
90. Larak Island, which came into focus due to US strikes on Iranian rocket launchers, is located in which strategic waterway?
a) Strait of Malacca
b) Strait of Hormuz
c) Bab-el-Mandeb Strait
d) Suez Canal
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Strait of Hormuz
91. The idea of interlinking India’s rivers is historically associated with which figure from the 19th century?
a) Sir Arthur Cotton
b) M. Visvesvaraya
c) Sir William Willcocks
d) Rajendra Singh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: a) Sir Arthur Cotton
92. The National Perspective Plan (NPP) for river interlinking, incorporated in 1980, envisages how many inter-basin water-transfer links?
a) 20
b) 25
c) 30
d) 35
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 30
93. Which entry of the Union List empowers Parliament to regulate inter-State rivers where declared expedient in public interest?
a) Entry 17
b) Entry 33
c) Entry 56
d) Entry 97
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Entry 56
94. Which is considered the flagship project of India’s river-interlinking programme, raising ecological concerns in the Panna landscape?
a) Godavari-Krishna Link
b) Ken-Betwa Link Project
c) Parambikulam-Aliyar Link
d) Kurnool-Cuddapah Link
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Ken-Betwa Link Project
95. The estimated investment requirement for India’s broader river-interlinking programme is around:
a) ₹2 lakh crore
b) ₹3.5 lakh crore
c) ₹5 lakh crore
d) ₹8 lakh crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) ₹5 lakh crore
96. A totaliser machine, being considered for EVM vote counting, primarily serves to protect:
a) Election Commission staff
b) Secrecy of booth-level voting patterns
c) EVM hardware from tampering
d) Political party funding records
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Secrecy of booth-level voting patterns
97. Which rule of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961 already provides for aggregation of ballot papers where there is apprehension of intimidation?
a) Rule 49A
b) Rule 56C
c) Rule 59A
d) Rule 66A
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Rule 59A
98. Which report recommended consideration of totalisers in appropriate circumstances for EVM counting?
a) Law Commission’s 255th Report (2015)
b) Law Commission’s 170th Report
c) Election Commission’s Model Code Report
d) NITI Aayog Electoral Reforms Report
Show Answer
Correct Answer: a) Law Commission’s 255th Report (2015)
99. India’s real GDP growth accelerated to what rate in Q1 FY 2026-27, exceeding the RBI’s projection?
a) 6.5%
b) 7.0%
c) 7.8%
d) 8.5%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 7.8%
100. In Q1 FY 2026-27, what was India’s nominal GDP growth rate?
a) 8.2%
b) 9.5%
c) 10.3%
d) 11.5%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 10.3%
101. Which sector recorded the highest growth among those listed for Q1 FY 2026-27 — real GVA of the tertiary sector?
a) 8.6%
b) 9.2%
c) 10.0%
d) 11.9%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 10.0%
102. India’s national accounts have introduced a revised methodology with a new base year of:
a) 2018-19
b) 2020-21
c) 2022-23
d) 2023-24
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 2022-23
103. The revised GDP methodology introduces ‘double deflation’ primarily in which sector’s GVA calculation?
a) Agriculture
b) Manufacturing
c) Services
d) Construction
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Manufacturing
104. The Indian Copyright Office rejected the claim that an AI system can independently qualify as an ‘author’ primarily because:
a) AI-generated works lack originality
b) The Copyright Act’s authorship framework requires human authorship
c) AI works are automatically in the public domain
d) No AI-generated work has commercial value
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) The Copyright Act’s authorship framework requires human authorship
105. Under Indian copyright law, an ‘author’ is defined in relation to different categories of works under which section of the Copyright Act, 1957?
a) Section 2(d)
b) Section 13
c) Section 17
d) Section 51
Show Answer
Correct Answer: a) Section 2(d)
106. Copyright law’s idea-expression dichotomy means that copyright protects:
a) The idea itself, regardless of expression
b) Only ideas registered with the Copyright Office
c) The original expression of an idea, not the idea itself
d) Both the idea and its expression equally
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) The original expression of an idea, not the idea itself
107. During the PM’s visit to Kyrgyzstan, which literary work’s 10-volume English translation was presented as a gift?
a) Ramayana
b) Mahabharata by Bibek Debroy
c) Bhagavad Gita commentary
d) Panchatantra
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Mahabharata by Bibek Debroy
108. The Mahabharata carries particular significance in Kyrgyzstan due to its cultural parallel with which foundational Kyrgyz oral epic?
a) Epic of Gilgamesh
b) Epic of Manas
c) Shahnameh
d) Kalevala
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Epic of Manas
109. Which traditional craft, employing the lost-wax casting technique, was gifted to Kyrgyzstan’s leadership as an example of India’s metal-casting heritage?
a) Bidriware
b) Dokra artwork
c) Pattachitra
d) Thewa art
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Dokra artwork
110. Deir el-Zour, where Syria reportedly developed a nuclear reactor under Bashar al-Assad, is located along which river?
a) Tigris River
b) Euphrates River
c) Orontes River
d) Jordan River
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Euphrates River
111. The Golan Heights, a major territorial dispute involving Syria and Israel, was captured by Israel during which conflict?
a) 1956 Suez Crisis
b) 1967 Arab-Israeli War
c) 1973 Yom Kippur War
d) 1982 Lebanon War
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 1967 Arab-Israeli War
112. Which mountain system, associated with Mount Hermon, extends along parts of the Syria-Lebanon frontier?
a) Syrian Coastal Mountains
b) Anti-Lebanon Mountains
c) Zagros Mountains
d) Taurus Mountains
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Anti-Lebanon Mountains
113.Brussels, Belgium’s capital, is a major diplomatic hub because it hosts the headquarters of which organisation, along with EU institutions?
a) United Nations
b) NATO
c) World Trade Organization
d) OECD
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) NATO
114. Belgium is a founding member of which two major international groupings?
a) UN and WTO
b) EU and NATO
c) G7 and OECD
d) ASEAN and EU
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) EU and NATO
115. Article 142 of the Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to pass any order necessary for:
a) Amending the Constitution
b) Doing complete justice in a pending matter
c) Removing a sitting judge
d) Dissolving a State legislature
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Doing complete justice in a pending matter
116. In which case did the Supreme Court invoke Article 142 in connection with the Bhopal gas tragedy settlement?
a) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
b) Union Carbide Corporation v. Union of India (1991)
c) Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan
d) Indra Sawhney v. Union of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Union Carbide Corporation v. Union of India (1991)
117. In Supreme Court Bar Association v. Union of India (1998), the Court held that Article 142:
a) Can override any statutory law
b) Cannot be used to override substantive statutory law
c) Applies only to criminal cases
d) Is limited to civil disputes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Cannot be used to override substantive statutory law
118. In the Ayodhya Judgment (2019), the Supreme Court invoked Article 142 to direct allotment of how much alternative land to the Sunni Waqf Board?
a) Two acres
b) Five acres
c) Ten acres
d) Fifteen acres
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Five acres
119. Since 2025, Ayurveda Day has been observed annually on which date, coinciding with the Autumnal Equinox?
a) 21 June
b) 15 August
c) 23 September
d) 2 October
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 23 September
120. The newly discovered deep-sea skate species Dipturus dhritiae, found in the Arabian Sea under India’s Deep Ocean Mission, was named in honour of:
a) Dhriti Banerjee, Director of ZSI
b) Indira Hinduja, marine biologist
c) Asha Devi, oceanographer
d) Kamala Sohonie, scientist
Show Answer
Correct Answer: a) Dhriti Banerjee, Director of ZSI
121. Belgian Prime Minister Bart De Wever’s recent visit to India was significant primarily because:
(A) It was the first-ever visit by a Belgian Prime Minister to India
(B) It marked the first visit by a Belgian PM to India in nearly two decades
(C) It coincided with the 75th anniversary of India-Belgium relations
(D) It was held to sign a Free Trade Agreement with the EU
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) It marked the first visit by a Belgian PM to India in nearly two decades
122. Consider the following statements regarding the SFPIM–NIIF partnership announced during the India-Belgium visit:
SFPIM is Belgium’s federal investment company.
NIIF is India’s National Investment and Infrastructure Fund.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
123. The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) signed a security cooperation agreement with which entity during the Belgian PM’s visit?
(A) Belgian Federal Police
(B) Europol
(C) Belgian Ministry of Defence
(D) Interpol Brussels Bureau
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Belgian Federal Police
124. Belgium established diplomatic relations with independent India in which year, making it one of the earliest European countries to do so?
(A) 1945
(B) 1947
(C) 1950
(D) 1954
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 1947
125. With respect to India’s data centre sector, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) India’s operational data centre capacity has increased nearly threefold since 2020, reaching around 1.5 GW
(B) India’s data centre capacity is projected to fall to 1 GW by 2030 due to regulatory restrictions
(C) More than 70% of India’s data centre capacity is spread evenly across all states
(D) The sector is growing at less than 5% CAGR
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) India’s operational data centre capacity has increased nearly threefold since 2020, reaching around 1.5 GW
126. Which of the following metropolitan regions together account for more than 70% of India’s data centre capacity?
(A) Mumbai, Chennai, Bengaluru, Delhi-NCR, Hyderabad
(B) Mumbai, Kolkata, Pune, Ahmedabad, Delhi-NCR
(C) Chennai, Kochi, Bengaluru, Lucknow, Hyderabad
(D) Delhi-NCR, Jaipur, Surat, Indore, Bengaluru
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Mumbai, Chennai, Bengaluru, Delhi-NCR, Hyderabad
127. A conventional 100-MW data centre using evaporative cooling may consume or evaporate approximately how much water per day, as highlighted in recent assessments?
(A) 200,000 litres
(B) 2 million litres
(C) 20 million litres
(D) 358 billion litres
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 2 million litres
128. With reference to sustainability benchmarks for data centres, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) A lower Power Usage Effectiveness (PUE) generally indicates better energy efficiency
(B) A higher Power Usage Effectiveness (PUE) generally indicates better energy efficiency
(C) Water Usage Effectiveness (WUE) measures electricity consumption only
(D) PUE and WUE are identical metrics used interchangeably
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) A lower Power Usage Effectiveness (PUE) generally indicates better energy efficiency
129. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a recommended water-efficient cooling technology for sustainable data centre growth?
(A) Closed-loop liquid cooling
(B) Direct-to-chip cooling
(C) Conventional evaporative cooling as the primary method
(D) Low-water cooling technologies in general
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Conventional evaporative cooling as the primary method
130. A 2026 Cambridge-led study found that the vicinity of AI data centres experienced approximately how much average land-surface warming, extending several kilometres beyond the facilities?
(A) 0.5°C
(B) 1°C
(C) 2°C
(D) 5°C
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2°C
131. India’s three-stage nuclear power programme was originally conceptualised under the guidance of:
(A) Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
(B) Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
(C) Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
(D) Dr. Raja Ramanna
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
132. In Stage I of India’s nuclear power programme, which reactor type is used, and what is its primary fuel?
(A) Fast Breeder Reactor; Plutonium-239
(B) Pressurised Heavy Water Reactor; Natural uranium
(C) Light Water Reactor; Enriched uranium
(D) Thorium reactor; Uranium-233
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Pressurised Heavy Water Reactor; Natural uranium
133. India’s 500 MWe Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR), which recently achieved first criticality, is located at:
(A) Tarapur
(B) Kudankulam
(C) Kalpakkam
(D) Rawatbhata
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Kalpakkam
134. In Stage III of India’s nuclear programme, Thorium-232 is ultimately converted into which fissile isotope for power generation?
(A) Uranium-235
(B) Uranium-233
(C) Plutonium-239
(D) Uranium-238
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Uranium-233
135. The SHANTI Act, 2025, referenced in the context of India’s nuclear sector reforms, primarily aims to:
(A) Ban all private participation in nuclear energy
(B) Modernise the nuclear liability and legal framework to facilitate greater private and international participation
(C) Transfer all nuclear regulatory powers to state governments
(D) Phase out the use of thorium in India’s nuclear programme
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Modernise the nuclear liability and legal framework to facilitate greater private and international participation
136. As per India’s Nuclear Energy Mission targets mentioned in recent policy announcements, India aims to achieve approximately how much nuclear capacity by 2047?
(A) 22 GW
(B) 50 GW
(C) 100 GW
(D) 150 GW
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 100 GW
137. The Tenzing Norgay National Adventure Awards were instituted in which year?
(A) 1953
(B) 1978
(C) 1993
(D) 2001
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 1993
138. Tenzing Norgay, after whom the award is named, achieved which historic feat in 1953?
(A) First solo circumnavigation of the globe
(B) First ascent of Mount Everest along with Edmund Hillary
(C) First expedition to the South Pole
(D) First ascent of K2
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) First ascent of Mount Everest along with Edmund Hillary
139. Baljeet Kaur, a 2024 recipient of the Tenzing Norgay National Adventure Award, is recognised for which achievement?
(A) First Indian to summit Mount Everest without supplemental oxygen
(B) First Indian to summit five 8,000-metre peaks in a single season
(C) First Indian woman to sail solo around the world
(D) First Indian to complete the Explorers Grand Slam
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) First Indian to summit five 8,000-metre peaks in a single season
140. With reference to maritime zones, the territorial waters of a coastal State extend up to how many nautical miles from the baseline?
(A) 12 nautical miles
(B) 24 nautical miles
(C) 100 nautical miles
(D) 200 nautical miles
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) 12 nautical miles
141. In the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), a coastal State primarily enjoys:
(A) Full sovereignty identical to territorial waters
(B) Sovereign rights for exploration, exploitation and conservation of resources
(C) No rights over marine resources
(D) Rights limited only to defence and security matters
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Sovereign rights for exploration, exploitation and conservation of resources
142. Under the Constitution of India, legislative authority over fishing and fisheries beyond territorial waters falls under:
(A) State List – Entry 21
(B) Union List – Entry 57
(C) Concurrent List – Entry 20
(D) Ninth Schedule
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Union List – Entry 57
143. The Japan Credit Rating Agency (JCR) recently upgraded India’s sovereign credit rating from which of the following levels?
(A) BBB to BBB+
(B) BBB+ to A-
(C) A- to A
(D) A to A+
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) BBB+ to A-
144. Which of the following was NOT cited as a factor supporting JCR’s upgrade of India’s sovereign rating?
(A) Sustained economic growth
(B) Improved health of the banking sector
(C) Rising fiscal deficit and declining forex reserves
(D) Continuing structural reforms
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Rising fiscal deficit and declining forex reserves
145. A Long-Term Foreign Currency Issuer Rating primarily assesses a sovereign’s:
(A) Ability to service debt denominated in its own domestic currency
(B) Ability to service debt denominated in foreign currencies over a longer period
(C) Short-term liquidity position only
(D) Ability to control domestic inflation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Ability to service debt denominated in foreign currencies over a longer period
146. Under Article 124(3) of the Constitution, which of the following is NOT a qualification for appointment as a Supreme Court judge?
(A) Having served as a High Court judge for at least five years
(B) Having practised as an advocate of a High Court for at least ten years
(C) Being considered by the President to be a ‘distinguished jurist’
(D) Having served as a Union Cabinet Minister for at least five years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Having served as a Union Cabinet Minister for at least five years
147. The ‘distinguished jurist’ route for appointment as a High Court judge, introduced by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, was subsequently:
(A) Retained and expanded by the 44th Amendment
(B) Removed by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978
(C) Struck down by the Supreme Court
(D) Extended to district judges as well
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Removed by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978
148. EOS-05, launched by ISRO, was placed in orbit using which launch vehicle, and was earlier designated by which name?
(A) PSLV-C51; RISAT-2A
(B) GSLV-F17; GISAT-1A
(C) GSLV Mark III; Cartosat-3
(D) SSLV-D1; EOS-01
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) GSLV-F17; GISAT-1A
149. Which of the following statements about a geostationary orbit is correct?
(A) It has significant inclination relative to the equator
(B) It is a circular geosynchronous orbit over the equator with zero inclination
(C) Satellites in this orbit complete one revolution every 90 minutes
(D) It operates at an altitude of about 500 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) It is a circular geosynchronous orbit over the equator with zero inclination
150. Kyrgyzstan, which recently hosted the 26th SCO Summit, shares its international boundary with which of the following countries to its east and southeast?
(A) Kazakhstan
(B) China
(C) Tajikistan
(D) Uzbekistan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) China
151. The concept of ‘minilateralism’ in international relations is most closely associated with which scholar, who introduced it into academic discussion in 1992?
(A) Joseph Nye
(B) Miles Kahler
(C) Samuel Huntington
(D) Robert Keohane
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Miles Kahler
152. Which of the following is NOT typically cited as a key feature of minilateral arrangements?
(A) Limited membership
(B) Issue-specific cooperation
(C) Universal and mandatory participation of all UN member states
(D) Faster decision-making relative to large institutions
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Universal and mandatory participation of all UN member states
153. Consider the following statements regarding minilateralism:
It generally involves broader membership and a wider agenda than multilateralism.
It enables ‘cooperation without complete strategic convergence’ among partner countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 2 only
154. Which of the following is highlighted as a limitation of minilateral arrangements?
(A) They always possess greater legal authority than the United Nations
(B) They can lead to fragmentation of global governance through overlapping coalitions
(C) They eliminate the need for any negotiation among member states
(D) They automatically ensure universal representation of all countries
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) They can lead to fragmentation of global governance through overlapping coalitions
155. With reference to cotton cultivation in India, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) India cultivates only two of the four commercially recognised cotton species
(B) India is distinctive in cultivating all four commercially recognised cotton species
(C) Cotton in India is exclusively a Rabi season crop
(D) Cotton requires an annual rainfall of over 200 cm for optimal growth
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) India is distinctive in cultivating all four commercially recognised cotton species
156. Gossypium barbadense, one of the four cotton species cultivated in India, is broadly classified as:
(A) Asian cotton
(B) American Upland cotton
(C) Egyptian cotton
(D) African cotton
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Egyptian cotton
157. Which of the following states recorded an especially steep contraction in cotton acreage, falling by about 37.5% to around 80,000 hectares?
(A) Haryana
(B) Punjab
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Gujarat
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Punjab
158. The declining effectiveness of Bt cotton in India, as discussed in recent assessments, is primarily attributed to:
(A) A ban on Bt cotton cultivation since 2006
(B) Development of pest resistance and absence of new approved GM cotton traits since around 2006
(C) Excessive government subsidies discouraging its use
(D) Complete replacement of Bt cotton by organic cotton varieties
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Development of pest resistance and absence of new approved GM cotton traits since around 2006
159. Which government initiative for cotton seeks to enhance productivity to around 755 kg/ha through an integrated ‘Farm to Foreign’ (5F) value chain approach?
(A) PM MITRA
(B) Samarth
(C) Kapas Kanti (Cotton Productivity Mission)
(D) Kasturi Cotton India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Kapas Kanti (Cotton Productivity Mission)
160. Which of the following is cited as a reason for farmers in the northern cotton belt shifting towards paddy cultivation?
(A) Paddy requires significantly more manual labour than cotton
(B) Assured market access through MSP-linked procurement reduces price risk for paddy
(C) Cotton has a shorter and more assured growing season than paddy
(D) Paddy is more resistant to pest attacks than cotton
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Assured market access through MSP-linked procurement reduces price risk for paddy
161. The UNEP ‘Limiting Overshoot’ report primarily addresses the challenge of:
(A) Preventing any breach of the 1.5°C threshold under all circumstances
(B) Minimising the magnitude and duration of a temporary breach of 1.5°C warming and reversing it thereafter
(C) Eliminating the use of fossil fuels by 2030
(D) Replacing the Paris Agreement with a new international treaty
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Minimising the magnitude and duration of a temporary breach of 1.5°C warming and reversing it thereafter
162. As per the ‘Limiting Overshoot’ report, under current policies, global warming could reach approximately how much by 2100?
(A) 1.5°C
(B) 1.8°C
(C) 2.6°C
(D) 4°C
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2.6°C
163. According to the report, every additional five years of high emissions could increase projected peak warming by about how much, requiring substantial additional COâ‚‚ removal to reverse?
(A) 0.01°C
(B) 0.1°C
(C) 0.5°C
(D) 1°C
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 0.1°C
164. In the ‘Overshoot, Peak and Decline’ framework proposed in the report, which phase is characterised by net-negative emissions, where COâ‚‚ removed exceeds COâ‚‚ emitted?
(A) Overshoot phase
(B) Peak phase
(C) Decline phase
(D) Baseline phase
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Decline phase
165. With respect to Carbon Dioxide Removal (CDR), the report emphasises that it should be viewed as:
(A) A complete substitute for emission reduction
(B) A complement to deep emissions reductions, not a justification for delaying decarbonisation
(C) Unnecessary for achieving climate goals
(D) Applicable only to developed countries
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A complement to deep emissions reductions, not a justification for delaying decarbonisation
166. Under Article 348(1) of the Constitution of India, the language generally required for proceedings of the Supreme Court and High Courts, and for authoritative texts of Bills and Acts, is:
(A) Hindi
(B) English
(C) The respective regional language of the State
(D) Sanskrit
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) English
167. Under Article 348(2) of the Constitution, a Governor may authorise the use of Hindi or another State official language in High Court proceedings:
(A) Without requiring any external approval
(B) Only after obtaining the previous consent of the President
(C) Only with the approval of the Chief Justice of India
(D) Only for the Supreme Court, not High Courts
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Only after obtaining the previous consent of the President
168. With reference to the use of regional languages for judgments, decrees and orders of High Courts, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Such judgments never require an English translation
(B) The Official Languages Act, 1963 permits use of Hindi/State language, but an English translation is mandatory
(C) Only the Supreme Court can authorise their use
(D) This provision applies uniformly to all States without Presidential consent
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The Official Languages Act, 1963 permits use of Hindi/State language, but an English translation is mandatory
169. The recent demand to make Tamil the principal language of proceedings of the Madras High Court draws attention to which constitutional provision?
(A) Article 344
(B) Article 348
(C) Article 350
(D) Article 351
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Article 348
170. As per recent estimates on India’s wastewater treatment scenario, approximately what proportion of urban sewage generated is currently treated?
(A) About 17%
(B) About 28%
(C) About 52%
(D) About 64%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) About 28%
171. Considering the multiple stages of India’s wastewater management chain, the proportion of wastewater considered ‘safely treated and suitable for reuse’ is estimated at approximately:
(A) 17% nationally
(B) 28% nationally
(C) 33% nationally
(D) 60% nationally
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) 17% nationally
172. The initiative referring to treated wastewater as ‘Apna Jal’ (Our Water), recently notified by Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand, primarily aims to:
(A) Increase groundwater extraction for irrigation
(B) Overcome social stigma associated with recycled water and promote its reuse
(C) Ban the use of freshwater for industrial purposes
(D) Privatise all municipal water utilities
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Overcome social stigma associated with recycled water and promote its reuse
173. Which government mission sets a 20% urban wastewater reuse target and supports sewerage and treatment infrastructure?
(A) Namami Gange Programme
(B) AMRUT 2.0
(C) Swachh Bharat Mission–Gramin Phase II
(D) National River Conservation Plan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) AMRUT 2.0
174. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD), referenced in the context of wastewater quality standards, primarily indicates:
(A) The salinity level of treated water
(B) The amount of dissolved oxygen required by microorganisms to break down organic matter in water
(C) The total dissolved solids present in wastewater
(D) The temperature variation of discharged effluent
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The amount of dissolved oxygen required by microorganisms to break down organic matter in water
175. As per the UN report on sea-level rise presented at the 55th Pacific Islands Forum, global sea levels could rise by at least how much by 2100?
least how much by 2100?
(A) 0.1 metre
(B) 0.5 metre
(C) 1.5 metres
(D) 3 metres
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 0.5 metre
176. Approximately how many people globally are estimated to live in low-elevation coastal areas vulnerable to sea-level rise, as per the UN report?
(A) 77 million
(B) 270 million
(C) 500 million
(D) 770 million
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) 770 million
177. With reference to India-specific vulnerabilities highlighted in the UN sea-level rise report, which cities were noted as being at significant risk, together with Dhaka?
(A) Chennai and Visakhapatnam
(B) Mumbai and Kolkata
(C) Surat and Kochi
(D) Goa and Puducherry
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Mumbai and Kolkata
178. In the context of coastal flooding risk in cities like Mumbai, ‘land subsidence’ refers to:
(A) A rise in sea level due to melting glaciers
(B) A gradual sinking or lowering of land elevation relative to the sea
(C) An increase in land area due to sediment deposition
(D) A government policy restricting coastal construction
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A gradual sinking or lowering of land elevation relative to the sea
179. Khagantak-243, whose maiden drop test was recently conducted by the IAF, is best described as:
(A) A submarine-launched ballistic missile
(B) An indigenously developed 300-kg-class air-launched precision-guided glide bomb
(C) A hypersonic cruise missile
(D) An unmanned aerial reconnaissance drone
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) An indigenously developed 300-kg-class air-launched precision-guided glide bomb
180. Khagantak-243 has been jointly developed by which two entities, reflecting growing private-sector participation in India’s defence technology sector?
(A) DRDO and HAL
(B) JSR Dynamics and Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL)
(C) ISRO and BEL
(D) Larsen & Toubro and DRDO
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) JSR Dynamics and Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL)
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