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1 August to 7 August 2026 (Weekly Current Affairs Quiz)

Practice the August 2026 Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the forth week of August 2026. 

The Current Affairs Quiz of 1 to 7 August features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.

1st Week of August 2026: Current Affairs Quiz

1. The PM CARES Fund was established under which Act as a non-statutory public charitable trust?

A) Indian Trusts Act, 1882
B) Registration Act, 1908
C) Societies Registration Act, 1860
D) Companies Act, 2013

Show Answer

Correct Answer : B) Registration Act, 1908


2. Who serves as the ex-officio Chairperson of the PM CARES Fund?

A) Union Finance Minister
B) Union Home Minister
C) Prime Minister
D) Cabinet Secretary

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Prime Minister


3. Which of the following are ex-officio Trustees of the PM CARES Fund?

A) Ministers of Health, Education and Finance
B) Ministers of Defence, Home Affairs and Finance
C) Ministers of Home Affairs, External Affairs and Defence
D) Ministers of Finance, Commerce and Railways

Show Answer

Correct Answer: Ministers of Defence, Home Affairs and Finance


4. The PM CARES Fund is audited by:

A) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)
B) An independent private accounting firm
C) The Reserve Bank of India
D) The Ministry of Corporate Affairs

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) An independent private accounting firm


5. According to the given context, the PM CARES Fund is not treated as a ‘public authority’ under which section of the RTI Act, 2005?

A) Section 2(f)
B) Section 2(h)
C) Section 6(1)
D) Section 8(1)

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Section 2(h)


6. Under the Arms Rules, 2016, air rifles or air pistols are exempt from licensing requirements if their muzzle energy is:

A) 10 joules or less
B) 15 joules or less
C) 20 joules or less
D) 25 joules or less

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 20 joules or less


7. Pellet guns were introduced in Jammu and Kashmir by the Union Government in which year?

A) 2005
B) 2008
C) 2010
D) 2013

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 2010


8. The Bureau of Police Research and Development (BPRD) Standard Operating Procedures, 2011, require the use of force to be:

A) Maximal and immediate
B) Proportionate and only when absolutely necessary
C) Discretionary at the officer’s convenience
D) Applied uniformly regardless of context

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Proportionate and only when absolutely necessary


9. The Supreme Court held that a challenge seeking prohibition of pellet guns would require questioning the governing provisions as ultra vires which Article?

A) Article 14
B) Article 19
C) Article 21
D) Article 32

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Article 21


10. In Vanashakti v. Union of India, the Supreme Court struck down the 2021 Office Memorandum that permitted retrospective Environmental Clearances on payment of:

A) Administrative fees
B) Ecological damage penalties
C) Litigation costs
D) Compliance bonds

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Ecological damage penalties


11. Which earlier Supreme Court judgment rejected ex post facto environmental clearances, viewing the mechanism as encouraging a ‘violate first, clear later’ approach?

A) Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar (1991)
B) Alembic Pharmaceuticals Ltd. v. Rohit Prajapati (2020)
C) Pahwa Plastics Pvt. Ltd. v. Dastak NGO (2022)
D) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (1987)

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Alembic Pharmaceuticals Ltd. v. Rohit Prajapati (2020)


12. Under the Vanashakti ruling, the Supreme Court retains power to grant ex post facto environmental clearances in appropriate cases through its extraordinary jurisdiction under:

A) Article 32
B) Article 136
C) Article 142
D) Article 226

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Article 142


13. The EIA Notification, 2006, provides for a public consultation process before project clearance consisting of how many stages?

A) One stage
B) Two stages
C) Three stages
D) Four stages

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Two stages


14. Which Article of the Constitution places a fundamental duty on citizens to protect the natural environment and have compassion for living creatures?

A) Article 21
B) Article 48A
C) Article 51A(g)
D) Article 39(b)

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Article 51A(g)


15. The Houthis, involved in the Red Sea maritime blockade, are officially known as:

A) Hezbollah
B) Ansar Allah
C) Al-Islah
D) Jaysh al-Mahdi

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Ansar Allah


16. The Red Sea connects to the Indian Ocean through which strait and gulf?

A) Strait of Hormuz and Persian Gulf
B) Bab-el-Mandeb Strait and Gulf of Aden
C) Strait of Malacca and Gulf of Thailand
D) Strait of Gibraltar and Gulf of Cadiz

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Bab-el-Mandeb Strait and Gulf of Aden


17. The Gulf of Suez, a northern extension of the Red Sea, provides a maritime link between the Red Sea and:

A) The Arabian Sea
B) The Mediterranean Sea
C) The Persian Gulf
D) The Caspian Sea

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) The Mediterranean Sea


18. The Bharat Maritime Insurance Pool (BMIP) was launched by the Department of Financial Services on:

A) 18 April 2026
B) 12 May 2026
C) 1 June 2026
D) 15 July 2026

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) 12 May 2026


19. BMIP is administered by:

A) Life Insurance Corporation of India
B) General Insurance Corporation of India Re
C) Shipping Corporation of India
D) IRDAI

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) General Insurance Corporation of India Re


20. What is the total capacity of the Bharat Maritime Insurance Pool?

A) USD 500 million
B) USD 1 billion
C) USD 1.5 billion
D) USD 2 billion

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) USD 1.5 billion


21. Under BMIP, the pool’s own layer for claims before the sovereign guarantee can be invoked is:

A) USD 50 million
B) USD 100 million
C) USD 250 million
D) USD 500 million

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) USD 100 million


22. The sovereign guarantee backing BMIP amounts to approximately:

A) ₹8,000 crore
B) ₹10,500 crore
C) ₹12,980 crore
D) ₹15,200 crore

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) ₹12,980 crore


23. During the Kanwar Yatra, the bamboo pole (Kanwar) carrying Ganga water symbolically represents:

A) Vishnu
B) Lord Shiva
C) Brahma
D) Indra

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Lord Shiva


24. Historical evidence of the Kanwar tradition is found in a 7th–8th century sculpture at which fort in Uttar Pradesh?

A) Chunar Fort
B) Kalinjar Fort
C) Jhansi Fort
D) Agra Fort

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Kalinjar Fort


25. The Prevention of Insults to National Honour (Amendment) Bill, 2026 seeks to bring which national symbol within the ambit of the 1971 Act?

A) National Flag
B) National Emblem
C) Vande Mataram (National Song)
D) National Anthem

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Vande Mataram (National Song)


26.Under the proposed amendment, an insult to the National Song would attract imprisonment of up to:

A) 1 year
B) 2 years
C) 3 years
D) 5 years

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 3 years


27. The Cauvery River, also called ‘Dakshina Ganga,’ originates at Talakaveri in which mountain range?

A) Nilgiri Hills
B) Brahmagiri Range
C) Cardamom Hills
D) Anamalai Hills

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Brahmagiri Range


28. The Cauvery Water Management Authority (CWMA) directed Karnataka to release water to Tamil Nadu at what rate for 15 days?

A) 2,500 cusecs per day
B) 3,000 cusecs per day
C) 3,500 cusecs per day
D) 4,000 cusecs per day

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 3,500 cusecs per day


29. Machilipatnam (BY 529), launched by Cochin Shipyard Limited, is which number in the series of eight Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft for the Indian Navy?

A) Fifth
B) Sixth
C) Seventh
D) Eighth

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Seventh


30. The Pandit Deendayal Upadhyaya Telecom Excellence Awards 2025 are instituted by which body?

A) TRAI
B) Department of Telecommunications (DoT)
C) Ministry of Electronics and IT
D) BSNL

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Department of Telecommunications (DoT)

31. SHANTI, India’s proposed maritime security framework for the Bay of Bengal and Indo-Pacific, stands for:

A) Strategic Harmony and Naval Tactical Integration
B) Securing Holistic Advancement through Norms, Trust, and Integrity
C) Sustainable Harbours and National Trade Initiative
D) Shared Heritage and Naval Trust Initiative

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Securing Holistic Advancement through Norms, Trust, and Integrity


32. Which regional multilateral platform does the SHANTI framework seek to strengthen?

A) ASEAN
B) BIMSTEC
C) SAARC
D) Quad

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) BIMSTEC


33. Nearly what share of global maritime trade passes through the Malacca Strait, accessible via the Bay of Bengal?

A) One-fifth
B) One-fourth
C) One-third
D) One-half

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) One-third


34. Sea-level rise affecting Bay of Bengal littoral states is estimated at approximately how much annually?

A) 2.2 mm
B) 3.3 mm
C) 4.4 mm
D) 5.5 mm

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 4.4 mm


35. The PM Vidyalaxmi Scheme is administered by which ministry?

A) Ministry of Finance
B) Ministry of Education
C) Ministry of Skill Development
D) Ministry of Corporate Affairs

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Ministry of Education


36. Since its launch, the PM Vidyalaxmi Scheme’s institutional coverage has expanded from 860 to how many premium higher education campuses?

A) 1,125
B) 1,275
C) 1,425
D) 1,575

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 1,425


37. Under PM Vidyalaxmi, the interest rate on education loans is capped at the bank’s Externally Benchmarked Lending Rate (EBLR) plus:

A) 0.25%
B) 0.5%
C) 1%
D) 1.5%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) 0.5%


38. Under PM Vidyalaxmi, the National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company provides what percentage credit guarantee for loans up to ₹7.5 lakh?

A) 50%
B) 60%
C) 75%
D) 90%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 75%


39. IRDAI operationalised the Policyholders’ Education and Protection Fund (PEPF) under which section of the IRDA Act, 1999?

A) Section 14
B) Section 16A
C) Section 20
D) Section 25

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Section 16A


40. IRDAI’s recent reforms allow insurance sector capital and share-transfer regulations to be relaxed to support FDI up to:

A) 49%
B) 74%
C) 90%
D) 100%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: D) 100%


41. Which regulations, introduced by IRDAI, establish a uniform framework for show-cause notices, disciplinary proceedings and reasoned orders?

A) Actuarial Regulations, 2026
B) Penalties Regulations, 2026
C) Distribution Accountability Regulations, 2026
D) Perpetual Licensing Regulations, 2026

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Penalties Regulations, 2026


42. According to an OECD report, Southeast Asia’s blue economy faces an estimated financing gap through 2030 of approximately:

A) USD 1.2 trillion
B) USD 1.8 trillion
C) USD 2.1 trillion
D) USD 2.6 trillion

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) USD 2.1 trillion


43. According to the OECD report, what share of ocean-related Official Development Assistance (2010–2023) supported genuinely sustainable activities?

A) 24%
B) 34%
C) 44%
D) 54%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) 34%


44. Cambodia reportedly lost what share of its mangrove cover between 1989 and 2017?

A) 22%
B) 32%
C) 42%
D) 52%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 42%


45. Doxxing refers to the unauthorised public disclosure of private information, generally with intent to cause:

A) Educational benefit
B) Harm, humiliation or harassment
C) Financial gain for the victim
D) Public recognition

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Harm, humiliation or harassment


46. Which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) specifically addresses cyberstalking, including conduct targeting women?

A) Section 77
B) Section 78
C) Section 196
D) Section 356

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Section 78


47. Which section of the IT Act, 2000 addresses fraudulent or dishonest use of another person’s password or unique identification feature?

A) Section 43
B) Section 66C
C) Section 69A
D) Section 79

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Section 66C


48. SHetA2, evaluated by ICMR-NICPR as a potential non-surgical therapy, targets:

A) Breast cancer cells directly
B) Precancerous cervical lesions to prevent progression to cancer
C) HPV virus replication only
D) Ovarian cancer metastasis

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Precancerous cervical lesions to prevent progression to cancer


49. India accounts for approximately what share of global new cervical cancer cases?

A) 10%
B) 15%
C) 20%
D) 25%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 20%


50. Which Indian states are identified as having among the highest cervical cancer incidence rates?

A) Punjab and Haryana
B) Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh
C) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
D) Gujarat and Maharashtra

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh


51. CERVAVAC, India’s first domestically developed HPV vaccine, was developed by:

A) Bharat Biotech
B) Serum Institute of India
C) Panacea Biotec
D) Zydus Cadila

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Serum Institute of India


52. The Environmental Performance Index (EPI) 2026 is released by which universities?

A) Harvard and MIT
B) Yale and Columbia
C) Oxford and Cambridge
D) Stanford and Berkeley

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Yale and Columbia


53.In EPI 2026, India ranked 176th out of 177 countries, ahead of only:

A) Bangladesh
B) Myanmar
C) Laos
D) Nepal

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Laos


54. In EPI 2026, which country emerged as the highest-ranked with a score of 74.79?

A) Luxembourg
B) United Kingdom
C) Estonia
D) Denmark

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Estonia


55. Ceuta, the site of recent migration pressure from Morocco, is an autonomous Spanish city located on:

A) The southern coast of Spain
B) The northern coast of Africa
C) An island in the Mediterranean
D) The Atlantic coast of Portugal

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) The northern coast of Africa


56. Ceuta lies on the African side of which strait, approximately 14 km from mainland Spain?

A) Strait of Hormuz
B) Strait of Malacca
C) Strait of Gibraltar
D) Strait of Dover

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Strait of Gibraltar


57. Besides Ceuta, which is Spain’s other autonomous territory in Africa?

A) Melilla
B) Canary Islands
C) Western Sahara
D) Ifni

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A) Melilla


58. INS Nipun, delivered to the Indian Navy at Visakhapatnam, is a Diving Support Vessel built by:

A) Cochin Shipyard Limited
B) Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited
C) Hindustan Shipyard Limited (HSL)
D) Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Hindustan Shipyard Limited (HSL)


59. INS Nipun serves as a ‘mother ship’ for which specialised rescue submersible during submarine
emergencies?

A) Deep Submergence Rescue Vehicle (DSRV)
B) Autonomous Underwater Vehicle (AUV)
C) Remotely Operated Vehicle (ROV)
D) Midget Submarine

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A) Deep Submergence Rescue Vehicle (DSRV)


60. According to the UNAIDS ‘United to End AIDS’ report, the annual investment required in low- and middle-income countries to achieve the 2030 goal is approximately:

A) US$15.6 billion
B) US$17.6 billion
C) US$21.9 billion
D) US$25.3 billion

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) US$21.9 billion


61. The Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Bill, 2026 amends the Registration of Births and
Deaths Act, which was last amended in:

A) 2019
B) 2021
C) 2023
D) 2024

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 2023


62. Under the Bill, births and deaths must ordinarily be reported to the local registrar within:

A) 7 days
B) 15 days
C) 21 days
D) 30 days

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 21 days


63. For a delay of 1–2 years in registration, approval is required from the DM, SDM or authorised Executive
Magistrate under which provision?

A) Section 12(1) of the BNSS, 2023
B) Section 14(1) of the BNSS, 2023
C) Section 18(1) of the BNSS, 2023
D) Section 20(1) of the BNSS, 2023

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Section 14(1) of the BNSS, 2023


64. Sea-level rise affecting Bay of Bengal littoral states is estimated at approximately how much annually?

A) 2.2 mm
B) 3.3 mm
C) 4.4 mm
D) 5.5 mm

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 4.4 mm


65. Shifting adjudication of delayed registrations to judicial magistrates is said to advance the principle of
separation of powers embodied in which Article?

A) Article 32
B) Article 44
C) Article 50
D) Article 141

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Article 50


66. Strong civil registration systems, as strengthened by the 2026 Bill, contribute to which SDG target?

A) SDG 4.7
B) SDG 10.2
C) SDG 16.9
D) SDG 17.18

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) SDG 16.9


67. A Zero FIR can be registered:

A) Only at the police station with territorial jurisdiction
B) At any police station, irrespective of jurisdiction
C) Only by a magistrate’s order
D) Only for cognizable offences against the State

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) At any police station, irrespective of jurisdiction


68. The concept of Zero FIR was prominently recommended by which committee following the Nirbhaya case?

A) Justice Malimath Committee
B) Justice Verma Committee
C) Justice Srikrishna Committee
D) Justice Lodha Committee

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Justice Verma Committee


69. Under Section 352 of the BNS, intentional insult is punishable only if it is proven that the accused intended
or knew the insult was likely to:

A) Section 292
B) Section 293
C) Section 294
D) Section 509

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Section 294


70. IRDAI’s recent reforms allow insurance sector capital and share-transfer regulations to be relaxed to support FDI up to:

A) 49%
B) 74%
C) 90%
D) 100%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: D) 100%


71. In Ranjit D. Udeshi v. State of Maharashtra (1965), the Supreme Court applied which test to assess
obscenity?

A) Community Standards Test
B) Hicklin Test
C) Contextual Harm Test
D) Reasonable Person Test

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Hicklin Test


72. In Aveek Sarkar v. State of West Bengal (2014), the Supreme Court discarded the Hicklin test in favour of
the:

A) Community Standards Test
B) Strict Scrutiny Test
C) Clear and Present Danger Test
D) Proportionality Test

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A) Community Standards Test


73. The Doordarshan v. Anand Patwardhan (2006) judgment held that obscenity should be assessed by:

A) Isolating individual objectionable scenes
B) Considering the work as a whole
C) Applying the Hicklin test strictly
D) Referring exclusively to legislative intent

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Considering the work as a whole


74. Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rojgar Yojana (PM-VBRY) is implemented over which period?

A) 1 April 2025 – 31 March 2027
B) 1 August 2025 – 31 July 2027
C) 1 January 2026 – 31 December 2027
D) 1 August 2025 – 31 July 2028

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) 1 August 2025 – 31 July 2027


75. What is the total financial outlay of PM-VBRY?

A) ₹49,446 crore
B) ₹69,446 crore
C) ₹99,446 crore
D) ₹1,19,446 crore

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) ₹99,446 crore


76. Under PM-VBRY, more than how many first-time employees joined the formal workforce since August 2025?

A) 50 lakh
B) 62 lakh
C) 72 lakh
D) 85 lakh

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 72 lakh


77. Under PM-VBRY’s Part A component, first-time employees earning up to ₹1 lakh/month receive a one-time incentive equal to one month’s EPF wage, capped at:

A) ₹10,000
B) ₹15,000
C) ₹20,000
D) ₹25,000

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) ₹15,000


78. Under PM-VBRY’s Part B component, employers hiring eligible employees receive an incentive of up to how much per month for 2 years?

A) ₹1,500
B) ₹2,000
C) ₹3,000
D) ₹5,000

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) ₹3,000


79. The Pradhan Mantri Surya Sarovar Yojana (PM-SSY), approved with an outlay of ₹5,070 crore, targets how much floating solar capacity by FY 2030–31?

A) 2 GW
B) 3 GW
C) 5 GW
D) 8 GW

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 5 GW


80. Under PM-SSY, what is the Central Financial Assistance (CFA) provided per MW to developers after commissioning?

A) ₹50 lakh
B) ₹75 lakh
C) ₹1 crore
D) ₹1.5 crore

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) ₹1 crore


81. India’s largest operational floating solar project, the Omkareshwar Floating Solar Park, is located on which river?

A) Narmada River
B) Tapi River
C) Chambal River
D) Betwa River

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A) Narmada River


82. The Omkareshwar Floating Solar Park’s current operational capacity is:

A) 178 MW
B) 228 MW
C) 278 MW
D) 328 MW

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 278 MW


83.’Samudra Manthan’ (National Offshore Exploration Scheme) has been approved with an outlay of:

A) ₹64,084 crore
B) ₹74,084 crore
C) ₹84,084 crore
D) ₹94,084 crore

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) ₹84,084 crore


84. India currently relies on imports for approximately what share of its crude oil requirements, as cited under Samudra Manthan?

A) 70%
B) 78%
C) 88%
D) 95%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 88%


85. Under Samudra Manthan’s Risk Drilling component, Central financial support is capped at how much per well?

A) ₹375 crore
B) ₹525 crore
C) ₹675 crore
D) ₹825 crore

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) ₹675 crore


86. Samudra Manthan aims to discover more than how many Million Metric Tonnes of Oil Equivalent (MMTOE) in domestic reserves?

A) 400 MMTOE
B) 500 MMTOE
C) 600 MMTOE
D) 700 MMTOE

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 600 MMTOE


87. The Second Judges Case (1993) reinterpreted ‘consultation’ under Articles 124(2) and 217(1) as requiring:

A) Non-binding advice
B) Effective concurrence, establishing judicial primacy
C) Executive primacy in appointments
D) Parliamentary ratification

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Effective concurrence, establishing judicial primacy


88. The Supreme Court Collegium consists of the Chief Justice of India and how many senior-most Supreme Court judges?

A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Four


89. In the Fourth Judges Case (2015), the Supreme Court invalidated the NJAC, holding that judicial independence forms part of the Constitution’s:

A) Preamble
B) Basic structure
C) Directive Principles
D) Ninth Schedule

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Basic structure


90.Pingali Venkayya, who designed the original concept of the Indian National Flag, was popularly known as:

A) Bharat Venkayya
B) Jhanda Venkayya
C) Tiranga Venkayya
D) Swaraj Venkayya

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Jhanda Venkayya


91. The Vessel Communication and Support System (VCSS) has been approved for nationwide rollout under which scheme, at an estimated cost of ₹364 crore?

A) Blue Revolution Scheme
B) Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY)
C) Sagar Parikrama Yojana
D) National Fisheries Policy

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY)


92. The indigenous transponders under VCSS, to be provided free of cost to fishermen, have been developed by:

A) DRDO
B) ISRO
C) BEL
D) C-DAC

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) ISRO


93. VCSS is expected to cover approximately how many marine fishing vessels across India?

A) 50,000
B) 75,000
C) 1 lakh
D) 1.5 lakh

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 1 lakh


94. Under VCSS, what is the Centre–State funding pattern for states (excluding Union Territories)?

A) 50:50
B) 60:40
C) 70:30
D) 90:10

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) 60:40


95. Which ISRO-developed application under VCSS provides real-time communication and support services to the marine fishing community?

A) Sagar Vani
B) Nabhmitra
C) Matsya Setu
D) Jal Sanchar

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Nabhmitra


96. The Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) was formally launched on:

A) 15 August 2020
B) 10 September 2020
C) 1 October 2020
D) 26 January 2021

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) 10 September 2020


97. Which agency serves as the Nodal Agency for PMMSY?

A) National Fisheries Development Board (NFDB)
B) Marine Products Export Development Authority
C) Central Institute of Fisheries Technology
D) National Cooperative Development Corporation

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A) National Fisheries Development Board (NFDB)


98. The revamped Khelo India Scheme, approved by the Union Cabinet, carries an overall allocation of ₹36,441 crore for which period?

A) 2025–26 to 2029–30
B) 2026–27 to 2030–31
C) 2027–28 to 2031–32
D) 2026–27 to 2031–32

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) 2026–27 to 2030–31


99. Under the revamped Khelo India Scheme, which new category extends scientific training and mentoring to younger age groups?

A) Khelo India Youth Games (KIYG)
B) Emerging Khelo India Athletes (E-KIA)
C) Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS)
D) Khelo India University Games

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Emerging Khelo India Athletes (E-KIA)


100. Which national framework, introduced under the revamped Khelo India Scheme, standardises coach accreditation and sports-science benchmarks?

A) National Sports Science Council
B) National Coach Accreditation Board (NCAB)
C) Sports Authority Training Council
D) National Athlete Welfare Board

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) National Coach Accreditation Board (NCAB)


101. The Khelo India Scheme was originally launched during which period?

A) 2014–15
B) 2016–17
C) 2017–18
D) 2019–20

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 2017–18


102. The Vizhinjam Transshipment Seaport, recently designated a customs port, is located near which city?

A) Kochi
B) Thiruvananthapuram
C) Kollam
D) Kannur

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Thiruvananthapuramt


103. Vizhinjam Port has been developed under a Public-Private Partnership between the Kerala Government and:

A) DP World
B) Adani Ports
C) JSW Infrastructure
D) APM Terminals

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Adani Ports


104. What natural depth does Vizhinjam Port have, enabling Ultra Large Container Vessels to dock without continuous dredging?

A) 10–12 metres
B) 14–16 metres
C) 18–20 metres
D) 22–24 metres

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 18–20 metres


105. Vizhinjam Port’s planned capacity expansion targets approximately:

A) 2–3 million TEUs
B) 4–5 million TEUs
C) 6.2–6.4 million TEUs
D) 8–9 million TEUs

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 6.2–6.4 million TEUs


106. Vizhinjam Port is located approximately how many nautical miles from the East-West international shipping corridor?

A) 5 nautical miles
B) 10 nautical miles
C) 15 nautical miles
D) 20 nautical miles

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) 10 nautical miles


107. Regarding India’s research brain drain, permanent migration is reported among what share of internationally mobile Indian researchers who do not return?

A) 55%
B) 63%
C) 73%
D) 85%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 73%


108. India’s R&D expenditure remains around what percentage of GDP, cited as a factor contributing to research brain drain?

A) 0.44%
B) 0.64%
C) 0.84%
D) 1.04%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) 0.64%


109. Despite accounting for approximately 20% of the global disease burden, India conducts only around what share of global clinical trials?

A) 2%
B) 4%
C) 6%
D) 8%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) 4%


110. Which sections of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 have replaced Section 498A of the IPC concerning cruelty by a husband or his relatives?

A) Sections 74 and 75
B) Sections 85 and 86
C) Sections 95 and 96
D) Sections 105 and 106

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Sections 85 and 86


111. The Supreme Court recently held that protection against domestic cruelty can extend to women in live-in relationships, provided the relationship is:

A) Registered with local authorities
B) In the nature of marriage
C) Of at least five years’ duration
D) Publicly declared before a magistrate

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) In the nature of marriage


112. The Nasha Mukt Yuva for Viksit Bharat Sankalp Abhiyan is implemented through which digital platform?

A) MY Bharat portal
B) Digital India Portal
C) UMANG App
D) Yuva Sangam Portal

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A) MY Bharat portal


113.The Nasha Mukt Yuva Abhiyan draws its framework from which declaration, adopted at the Youth Spiritual Summit in Varanasi (July 2025)?

A) Varanasi Resolution
B) Kashi Declaration
C) Ganga Sankalp
D) Yuva Pratigya

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Kashi Declaration


114. The MSME Development (Amendment) Bill, 2026 mandates Central Public Sector Enterprises to settle MSME invoices through which platform?

A) GeM Portal
B) Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS)
C) UPI-based Payment Gateway
D) National Single Window System

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS)


115. Under the MSME Amendment Bill, if mediation fails, a dispute must be referred to arbitration within how many days?

A) 15 days
B) 30 days
C) 45 days
D) 60 days

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) 30 days


116. India secured how many total medals at the Commonwealth Games 2026 in Glasgow?

A) 29
B) 33
C) 39
D) 45

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 39


117. Which discipline was India’s best-performing sport at the Commonwealth Games 2026, with 10 medals including 7 gold?

A) Athletics
B) Wrestling
C) Boxing
D) Weightlifting

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Boxing


118. Which athlete was India’s only double medallist at the Commonwealth Games 2026?

A) Gulveer Singh
B) Mirabai Chanu
C) Sachin Siwach
D) Sharmila Dhankar

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A) Gulveer Singh


119. The Pacific island nation of Nauru has officially renamed itself:

A) Republic of Naoero
B) Kingdom of Naoero
C) Federated States of Naoero
D) Naoero Islands

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A) Republic of Naoero


120. Glaw Lake, designated India’s 101st Ramsar Site, is Arunachal Pradesh’s first wetland recognised under the Ramsar Convention and is located within which protected area?

A) Namdapha Tiger Reserve
B) Pakke Tiger Reserve
C) Kamlang Tiger Reserve and Wildlife Sanctuary
D) Dibang Wildlife Sanctuary

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Kamlang Tiger Reserve and Wildlife Sanctuary


121. Which method of producing lab-grown diamonds mimics carbon crystallisation in interstellar gas clouds by ionising methane and hydrogen into superheated plasma?

A) High Pressure High Temperature (HPHT)
B) Chemical Vapor Deposition (CVD)
C) Detonation Synthesis
D) Flux Growth Method

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Chemical Vapor Deposition (CVD)


122. The High Pressure High Temperature (HPHT) method subjects carbon to pressures of approximately:

A) 1–2 GPa
B) 3–4 GPa
C) 5–6 GPa
D) 8–10 GPa

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 5–6 GPa


123. Which country is the largest producer of natural diamonds by volume?

A) Botswana
B) Russia
C) Canada
D) South Africa

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Russia


124. Which country is the highest value producer of natural diamonds?

A) Russia
B) Botswana
C) Namibia
D) Angola

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Botswana


125. India’s only commercial producer of natural diamonds is the Panna Diamond Belt, located in:

A) Rajasthan
B) Chhattisgarh
C) Madhya Pradesh
D) Odisha

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Madhya Pradesh


126. The Union Cabinet has extended the PM-KISAN Scheme till 2030–31 with a total outlay of:

A) ₹2.15 lakh crore
B) ₹2.75 lakh crore
C) ₹3.15 lakh crore
D) ₹3.75 lakh crore

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) ₹3.15 lakh crore


127. Under PM-KISAN, eligible farmer families receive ₹6,000 per year, disbursed in how many instalments?

A) Two instalments of ₹3,000
B) Three instalments of ₹2,000
C) Four instalments of ₹1,500
D) Six instalments of ₹1,000

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A) National Fisheries Development Board (NFDB)


128. Under PM-KISAN, the earlier landholding ceiling of how many hectares has now been removed?

A) 1 hectare
B) 2 hectares
C) 3 hectares
D) 5 hectares

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) 2 hectares


129. Which AI-powered chatbot under PM-KISAN provides information and grievance redressal to farmers?

A) Krishi Mitra
B) Kisan-eMitra
C) Annadata Sahayak
D) Kisan Setu

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Kisan-eMitra


130. The Zero Defect Zero Effect (ZED) Certification Scheme was launched in which year?

A) 2014
B) 2016
C) 2018
D) 2020

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) 2016


131. Under the ZED Scheme, MSMEs are certified based on which progressive standards?

A) Basic, Standard, Premium
B) Bronze, Silver, Gold
C) Tier I, Tier II, Tier III
D) Entry, Advanced, Elite

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Bronze, Silver, Gold


132. Under the ZED Scheme, what percentage subsidy is offered on certification costs for women-owned MSMEs?

A) 50%
B) 75%
C) 90%
D) 100%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: D) 100%


133. Which agency serves as the National Monitoring and Implementing Unit for the ZED Scheme?

A) Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)
B) Quality Council of India (QCI)
C) National Productivity Council
D) Small Industries Development Bank of India

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Quality Council of India (QCI)


134. The Taxation and Other Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2026 seeks to amend the Income-tax Act, 2025, the Finance Act, 2026, and which other legislation?

A) Companies Act, 2013
B) Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007
C) SEBI Act, 1992
D) Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007


135. Under the 2026 Bill, tax exemption for specified electronics manufactured by foreign OEMs has been extended for 10 years, up to:

A) 2035
B) 2038
C) 2041
D) 2045

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 2041


136. Under the Bill’s Component Warehousing Incentive, foreign companies storing electronic components in customs-bonded warehouses receive a tax exemption for:

A) 10 years
B) 12 years
C) 15 years
D) 20 years

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 15 years


137. The 2026 Bill’s Diamond Trading Incentive provides a 15-year tax exemption to foreign diamond mining companies for rough-diamond trading conducted within:

A) Special Economic Zones only
B) Notified special zones
C) Any customs port
D) Coastal Economic Zones

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Notified special zones


138. ICAR developed India’s first fully annotated Telomere-to-Telomere (T2T) reference genome for which pigeonpea variety?

A) Pusa 992
B) Asha
C) UPAS 120
D) ICPL 87119

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Asha


139. In 2011, ICAR-NIPB published the world’s first draft genome of pigeonpea, which was also notable as:

A) The first genome sequenced using AI tools
B) The first crop genome to be sequenced entirely in India
C) The first legume genome sequenced globally
D) The first genome sequenced using T2T technology

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) The first crop genome to be sequenced entirely in India


140. Which sections of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 have replaced Section 498A of the IPC concerning cruelty by a husband or his relatives?

A) Genetic switch
B) Biological clock
C) Metabolic marker
D) Repair enzyme

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Biological clock


141. The appointment of the UN Secretary-General is governed by which Article of the UN Charter?

A) Article 23
B) Article 51
C) Article 97
D) Article 108

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Article 97


142. The UN Secretary-General is appointed by the UN General Assembly upon the recommendation of:

A) The International Court of Justice
B) The UN Security Council (UNSC)
C) The Economic and Social Council
D) The UN Trusteeship Council

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) The UN Security Council (UNSC)


143.In the UNSC straw poll for selecting a UNSG candidate, a candidate generally requires at least how many ‘Encourage’ votes out of 15?

A) 7
B) 8
C) 9
D) 10

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 9


144. The Maldives recently linked its Favara instant payment system with India’s UPI, extending UPI-based payment connectivity to how many countries?

A) 8
B) 9
C) 10
D) 12

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 10


145. The Maldives is separated from India’s Lakshadweep (Minicoy Island) by which channel?

A) Nine Degree Channel
B) Ten Degree Channel
C) Eight Degree Channel
D) Palk Strait

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Eight Degree Channel


146. The Maldives is described as the world’s lowest-lying country, with an average elevation of approximately:

A) 0.5–1 metre
B) 1–1.5 metres
C) 2–2.5 metres
D) 3–3.5 metres

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) 1–1.5 metres


147. The Phoenix Species Project, launched by IUCN in August 2026, aims to recover how many of the world’s most threatened species?

A) 50
B) 75
C) 100
D) 150

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 100


148. The Phoenix Species Project supports the implementation of which target under the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework?

A) Target 2
B) Target 3
C) Target 4
D) Target 7

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Target 4


149. India’s first indigenous vaccine against African Swine Fever, developed by ICAR-NIHSAD Bhopal, is based on which cell line?

A) Vero cell line
B) MA-104 cell line
C) BHK-21 cell line
D) MDCK cell line

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) MA-104 cell line


150. Rwanda, popularly known as the ‘Land of a Thousand Hills,’ has its highest peak, Mount Karisimbi, located along its border with which country?

A) Uganda
B) Burundi
C) Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC)
D) Tanzania

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC)


151. As per the Parliamentary Standing Committee report, only about what percentage of India’s urban households have underground sewer connections?

A) 20%
B) 25%
C) 30%
D) 35%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 30%


152. Of the 594 approved sewerage and septage projects under AMRUT 2.0, what percentage have been completed?

A) 12.5%
B) 17.51%
C) 25%
D) 32%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) 17.51%


153. AMRUT 1.0 was launched in 2015 and primarily covered cities with populations above:

A) 50,000
B) 1 lakh
C) 5 lakh
D) 10 lakh

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) 1 lakh


154. AMRUT 2.0, launched in 2021, extends urban water-security interventions to:

A) Only Tier-1 cities
B) Cities above 1 lakh population only
C) All statutory towns
D) Only state capitals

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) All statutory towns


155. The Committee recommended creating ring-fenced funds to ensure long-term sustainability of urban water infrastructure, specifically for:

A) Capital Expenditure (CapEx)
B) Operation and Maintenance (O&M)
C) Land Acquisition
D) Contractor Payments

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Operation and Maintenance (O&M)


156. The Supreme Court ruled that mining activities within how many kilometres of Wetland Conservation Reserves require prior approval from the NBWL/MoEFCC?

A) 5 km
B) 10 km
C) 15 km
D) 20 km

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) 10 km


157. The Asan Wetland, whose protection was earlier upheld and now extended nationwide, is located in:

A) Dehradun, Uttarakhand
B) Shimla, Himachal Pradesh
C) Srinagar, Jammu & Kashmir
D) Nainital, Uttar Pradesh

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A) Dehradun, Uttarakhand


158. The Asan Wetland was designated a Ramsar Site in which year, becoming Uttarakhand’s first Ramsar Site?

A) 2018
B) 2019
C) 2020
D) 2021

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 2020


159. Under the CBD definition, Other Effective Area-based Conservation Measures (OECMs) are recognised based on:

A) Legal ownership by the State
B) The area’s original stated purpose
C) Outcomes achieved for biodiversity conservation
D) Formal notification under the Wildlife Protection Act

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Outcomes achieved for biodiversity conservation


160. Which category of OECM refers to areas where conservation occurs as a by-product of the area’s primary purpose?

A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Ancillary
D) Tertiary

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Ancillary


161. The World Database on OECMs is maintained by:

A) IUCN
B) UNEP-WCMC
C) CBD Secretariat
D) UNDP

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) UNEP-WCMC


162. India’s first recognised OECM site, the Aravalli Biodiversity Park in Gurugram, was recognised in which year?

A) 2020
B) 2021
C) 2022
D) 2023

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 2022


163.OECMs support which target of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework, aiming to conserve at least 30% of terrestrial, inland-water, coastal and marine areas by 2030?

A) Target 2
B) Target 3
C) Target 4
D) Target 7

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Target 3


164. The Clouded Leopard Conservation Action Plan (CAP) was released during the 91st meeting of the Standing Committee of the National Board for Wildlife, held at:

A) Guwahati
B) Coimbatore
C) Shillong
D) Dehradun

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Coimbatore


165. The Clouded Leopard CAP identifies how many priority conservation landscapes across Northeast India?

A) 10
B) 12
C) 14
D) 16

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 14


166. The Mainland Clouded Leopard (Neofelis nebulosa) is listed under which IUCN status?

A) Endangered
B) Vulnerable
C) Near Threatened
D) Critically Endangered

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Vulnerable


167. The Mainland Clouded Leopard is the State Animal of:

A) Nagaland
B) Mizoram
C) Manipur
D) Sikkim

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Manipur


168. The Sunda Clouded Leopard (Neofelis diardi) is restricted to the islands of:

A) Java and Sumatra
B) Borneo and Sumatra
C) Borneo and Java
D) Sulawesi and Sumatra

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Borneo and Sumatra


169. China’s new rules on anthropomorphic AI companionship specifically restrict virtual intimate relationships between such systems and:

A) Elderly users
B) Minors
C) Government employees
D) Non-citizens

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Minors


170. Which US states have introduced measures requiring certain chatbots to periodically clarify that they are not human?

A) Texas and Florida
B) New York and California
C) Illinois and Ohio
D) Washington and Oregon

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) New York and California


171. MoRTH has proposed making Vehicle-to-Vehicle (V2V) communication mandatory in all new vehicles from which date?

A) 1 April 2027
B) 1 October 2027
C) 1 April 2028
D) 1 October 2028

Show Answer

Correct Answer: D) 1 October 2028


172. V2V communication is an important component of which broader network category?

A) Vehicular Ad Hoc Networks (VANETs)
B) Internet of Things (IoT) Grids
C) 5G Core Networks
D) Satellite Communication Networks

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A) Vehicular Ad Hoc Networks (VANETs)


173.Unlike ADAS, which relies on cameras and sensors, V2V communication primarily helps vehicles by:

A) Automating braking directly
B) Exchanging hazard information beyond line-of-sight
C) Replacing GPS navigation
D) Reducing fuel consumption

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Exchanging hazard information beyond line-of-sight


174. The Supreme Court directed States/UTs to notify and operationalise State Cyber Crime Coordination Centres within how many weeks?

A) Two weeks
B) Four weeks
C) Six weeks
D) Eight weeks

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Four weeks


175. A mule account holder who knowingly rents or sells access to their bank account for money is classified as a:

A) Unwitting mule
B) Witting mule
C) Synthetic identity
D) Passive mule

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Witting mule


176. MuleHunter.AI, an AI-based system to detect mule-account patterns, has been developed by:

A) NPCI
B) Reserve Bank Innovation Hub (RBIH)
C) I4C
D) SEBI

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Reserve Bank Innovation Hub (RBIH)


177. Under the Inventory-based Cross-border E-Commerce Export Framework, the Exporter-on-Record (EOR) can procure export inventory only against:

A) Speculative future demand
B) Confirmed overseas orders
C) Annual sales projections
D) Government export quotas

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Confirmed overseas orders


178.The Rhine River, whose water levels recently fell below the October 2018 record low, originates in:

A) The French Alps
B) The Swiss Alps
C) The Austrian Alps
D) The Italian Alps

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) The Swiss Alps


179. The Rhine Falls, regarded as Europe’s largest waterfall by volume, is located near:

A) Basel, Switzerland
B) Neuhausen am Rheinfall, Switzerland
C) Cologne, Germany
D) Strasbourg, France

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Neuhausen am Rheinfall, Switzerland


180. Xtreme Weather Grade (XWG) Diesel, launched for high-altitude military use, has a pour point of:

A) −30°C
B) −35°C
C) −42°C
D) −50°C

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) −42°C


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