Find the current affairs quiz 24 August 2026 by Exam Charcha.
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Each question comes with multiple choices, and the correct answer is provided to help you learn. Whether you’re preparing for competitive exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz is a great way to assess your awareness of current affairs.
Current Affairs Quiz – 24 August 2026 (Test Now)
1. With reference to Vaishya Tekri Stupa, consider the following statements:
- It is located near Ujjain on the banks of the Sipra River.
- It is tentatively dated to the 3rd century BCE.
- It is believed to have been constructed during the Gupta period.
- Its estimated diameter is around 350 feet.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. Which one of the following correctly describes an architectural feature of Vaishya Tekri Stupa?
A. Its core was constructed entirely of dressed sandstone.
B. A bowl-shaped masonry base helped counter outward lateral pressure.
C. It was surrounded by a circular stone wall without any depression.
D. Its core consisted primarily of burnt bricks without any earthen material.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. A bowl-shaped masonry base helped counter outward lateral pressure.
3. The earlier archaeological findings at Vaishya Tekri included:
- Mauryan-era punch-marked coins
- Cast Avanti coins
- Gupta gold coins
- Roman amphorae
Select the correct answer using the code below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. 1 and 2 only
4. Consider the following pairs:
| Place/Term | Description |
| 1. Ujjayini | Capital of ancient Avanti Mahajanapada |
| 2. Ozene | Name associated with Ujjain in Ptolemy’s writings |
| 3. Sipra | Tributary of the Chambal |
| 4. Ujjain | “India’s Greenwich” |
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 2 and 4 only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
5. The Pradhan Mantri Janjatiya Vikas Mission (PMJVM) is best described as:
A. A Centrally Sponsored Scheme implemented by State Governments
B. A Central Sector Scheme under the Ministry of Tribal Affairs
C. A Ministry of Rural Development scheme focused exclusively on agriculture
D. A Ministry of Commerce scheme for tribal exports
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. A Central Sector Scheme under the Ministry of Tribal Affairs
6. Which of the following is NOT a stated function of PMJVM?
A. Procurement of Minor Forest Produce at MSP
B. Training in processing and packaging of tribal products
C. Modernisation of local Haat Bazaars
D. Direct provision of crop insurance to all tribal farmers
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D. Direct provision of crop insurance to all tribal farmers
7. With reference to Van Dhan Vikas Kendras (VDVKs), which of the following statements is/are correct?
- Each VDVK comprises approximately 15 Van Dhan SHGs.
- Each SHG can have up to 20 gatherers.
- At least 60% of members must belong to Scheduled Tribes.
- VDVKs function primarily as banking institutions for tribal communities.
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 only
8. Under the Forest Rights Act, 2006, Minor Forest Produce refers to:
A. All forest produce including timber and minerals
B. Only products obtained from wild animals
C. Non-timber forest produce of plant origin
D. Agricultural products cultivated exclusively inside forests
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. Non-timber forest produce of plant origin
9. Which of the following rights is recognised under Section 3(1)(c) of the Forest Rights Act, 2006, as mentioned in the source?
A. Right of forest-dwelling communities to own, collect, use and dispose of MFP
B. Exclusive right of State Governments to market MFP
C. Right of Gram Sabhas to impose income tax on MFP traders
D. Right to convert all forest land into agricultural land
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. Right of forest-dwelling communities to own, collect, use and dispose of MFP
10. Consider the following statements regarding India’s coconut sector:
- India ranks first globally in coconut production.
- India ranks third globally in area under coconut cultivation.
- Tamil Nadu has the largest area under coconut cultivation.
- Andhra Pradesh has the highest productivity.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. 1, 2 and 4 only
11. Which one of the following correctly matches a coconut-related fact with the relevant institution?
A. Copra procurement — NAFED and NCCF
B. Copra procurement — TRIFED and NABARD
C. Coconut nursery accreditation — NCDC and NDDB
D. Coconut export regulation — PESA institutions
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. Copra procurement — NAFED and NCCF
12. With reference to the Shompen tribe, consider the following statements:
- They inhabit the interior rainforests and river basins of Great Nicobar Island.
- They are classified among India’s PVTGs.
- They are traditionally a nomadic hunter-gatherer community.
- Their traditional diet includes Pandanus fruit.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
13. Which of the following legal provisions is specifically associated with habitat rights for eligible tribal communities?
A. Section 3(1)(c) of FRA, 2006
B. Section 3(1)(e) of FRA, 2006
C. Section 4(m)(ii) of PESA, 1996
D. Section 2(i) of FRA, 2006
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Section 3(1)(e) of FRA, 2006
14. The Shompen issue in relation to the Great Nicobar Project primarily highlights which of the following dilemmas?
A. Conflict between urbanisation and industrialisation
B. Balancing infrastructure development with tribal rights and ecological conservation
C. Conflict between agricultural expansion and food security
D. Balancing mining expansion with export promotion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Balancing infrastructure development with tribal rights and ecological conservation
15. Maveeran Ondiveeran is associated with:
A. The Revolt of 1857 in northern India
B. The early armed resistance against the British East India Company in southern India
C. The Quit India Movement
D. The Swadeshi Movement in Bengal
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. The early armed resistance against the British East India Company in southern India
16. Consider the following pairs:
| Personality | Association |
| Maveeran Ondiveeran | Puli Thevar |
| Puli Thevar | Nerkattumseval |
| Puli Thevar | Early organised armed resistance against the East India Company |
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3
17. The MQ-9B Sea Guardian is classified as a:
A. Medium-Altitude Short-Endurance combat aircraft
B. High-Altitude Long-Endurance Remotely Piloted Aircraft System
C. Low-Altitude Short-Range helicopter drone
D. Supersonic unmanned fighter aircraft
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. High-Altitude Long-Endurance Remotely Piloted Aircraft System
18. Which combination correctly represents the surveillance systems that can be configured on the MQ-9B Sea Guardian?
A. Maritime surface-search radar, AIS and EO/IR sensors
B. Sonar, torpedoes and satellite phone only
C. Lidar, ballistic missile radar and underwater sonar
D. Weather radar, agricultural sensors and seismic detectors
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. Maritime surface-search radar, AIS and EO/IR sensors
19. Which of the following is a distinctive feature of the Sea Guardian’s mission architecture?
A. Fixed equipment configuration that cannot be altered
B. Bolt-on/bolt-off open architecture
C. Exclusive dependence on satellite imagery
D. Operation only during daylight hours
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Bolt-on/bolt-off open architecture
20. Bharat Taxi is distinctive because it seeks to combine:
A. Private ownership with government-operated transport
B. Digital technology with the cooperative model
C. Railway transport with inland waterways
D. Public-sector banking with insurance services
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Digital technology with the cooperative model
21. Which of the following is NOT among the eight founding institutions of Bharat Taxi?
A. NABARD
B. IFFCO
C. NAFED
D. SIDBI
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D. SIDBI
22. Under Bharat Taxi’s earnings model, which of the following is correct?
A. 20% of cooperative earnings is credited towards Bharat Taxi as Sarathis’ capital and 80% is distributed based on kilometres travelled.
B. 80% is retained by Bharat Taxi and 20% is distributed among Sarathis.
C. The entire fare is transferred to Bharat Taxi, which pays fixed salaries to drivers.
D. 50% is distributed equally and 50% is retained by the platform.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. 20% of cooperative earnings is credited towards Bharat Taxi as Sarathis’ capital and 80% is distributed based on kilometres travelled.
23. Consider the following statements regarding Bharat Taxi:
- Sarathis can become cooperative members by contributing to share capital.
- Each cooperative share has a face value of ₹100.
- A Sarathi can acquire ownership rights by purchasing shares worth ₹500.
- Sarathis have no role in cooperative decision-making.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only
24. With reference to the EU’s Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM), consider the following statements:
- It is a climate-trade instrument of the European Union.
- It places a carbon-related cost on selected emission-intensive imports.
- It became operational from January 2026.
- Its stated objective includes preventing carbon leakage.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
25. Which of the following sectors is NOT among the six sectors initially covered by CBAM?
A. Aluminium
B. Fertilisers
C. Hydrogen
D. Textiles
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D. Textiles
26. BRICS criticism of CBAM is primarily linked to which principle under the UNFCCC?
A. Polluter Pays Principle
B. Common but Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities
C. Precautionary Principle
D. Principle of Permanent Sovereignty over Natural Resources
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Common but Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities
27. According to the source, India’s exposure to CBAM is particularly significant because approximately what share of India’s EU trade affected by the mechanism is linked to iron and steel?
A. 40%
B. 60%
C. 75%
D. 90%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D. 90%
28. Which of the following correctly describes the SMILE Scheme?
A. A Central Sector umbrella scheme launched in 2022 under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
B. A Centrally Sponsored Scheme launched by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs
C. A Central Sector scheme exclusively for agricultural labourers
D. A Ministry of Labour scheme for industrial workers
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. A Central Sector umbrella scheme launched in 2022 under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
29. With reference to the Makhana sector, which of the following statements are correct?
- India is the world’s largest producer of makhana.
- Bihar accounts for nearly 75% of India’s output.
- Mithila Makhana has received a GI tag.
- Around 40% of India’s makhana production is exported.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
30. Consider the following pairs:
| Initiative/Platform | Key feature |
| 1. Friends of My Bharat | Connects with Indian-origin youth abroad |
| 2. MutAIverse | Uses Generative AI to investigate factors associated with cancer-causing DNA damage |
| 3. National Makhana Board | Strengthens the fragmented makhana value chain |
| 4. Garima Greh | Shelter and support centres for transgender persons |
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
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24 August 2026 Current Affairs