Practice the August 2026 Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the third week of July 2026.
The Current Affairs Quiz of 15 to 21 August features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.
3rd Week of August 2026: Current Affairs Quiz
1. India’s digital economy currently contributes approximately what share of GDP?
A) 8–10%
B) 10–12%
C) 12–14%
D) 15–18%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 12–14%
2. Under India’s Digital Public Infrastructure, Aadhaar enables more than how many citizens to access public services directly?
A) 120 crore
B) 135 crore
C) 145 crore
D) 155 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 145 crore
3. DEPA (Data Empowerment and Protection Architecture) enables consent-based data sharing through:
A) UPI Autopay
B) Account Aggregators
C) DigiLocker APIs
D) UMANG Gateway
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Account Aggregators
4. UPI accounted for what share of India’s digital payments in FY 2025–26?
A) 70%
B) 75%
C) 80%
D) 85%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 85%
5. PLI schemes have expanded domestic electronics production sevenfold, reaching what value in 2025–26?
A) ₹9.11 lakh crore
B) ₹11.11 lakh crore
C) ₹13.11 lakh crore
D) ₹15.11 lakh crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ₹13.11 lakh crore
6. ONDC has connected more than 20 crore buyers and how many sellers across 1,000 cities?
A) 3 lakh
B) 4 lakh
C) 5 lakh
D) 6 lakh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 5 lakh
7. India’s semiconductor market size in 2026 is estimated at approximately:
A) $8.41 billion
B) $10.41 billion
C) $12.41 billion
D) $14.41 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) $12.41 billion
8. The Tata–PSMC semiconductor fabrication plant at Dholera is targeting its first chip by:
A) 2026
B) 2027
C) 2028
D) 2029
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 2027
9. India aims to manufacture chips at which advanced node by 2032?
A) 7-nanometre
B) 5-nanometre
C) 3-nanometre
D) 2-nanometre
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 3-nanometre
10. Which indigenous open-source 64-bit processor, developed in 2018, was designed for academic and industrial applications?
A) AJIT
B) SHAKTI
C) MOUSHIK Core
D) VEGA
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) SHAKTI
11. AJIT, an indigenous microprocessor capable of running operating systems such as Linux, was developed in 2019 by:
A) IIT Madras
B) IIT Bombay
C) C-DAC
D) ISRO
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) IIT Bombay
12. VEGA, an indigenous processor series developed under the Digital India RISC-V programme, was released in 2023 by:
A) ISRO
B) C-DAC
C) IIT Bombay
D) DRDO
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) C-DAC
13. Vikram 3201, an indigenous space-grade processor for extreme-temperature environments, was developed by ISRO in:
A) 2023
B) 2024
C) 2025
D) 2026
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2025
14.India’s semiconductor fabrication requires more than how many million gallons of ultrapure water per day per plant?
A) 3 million
B) 5 million
C) 7 million
D) 10 million
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 5 million
15. India’s total installed power capacity has reached approximately:
A) 452 GW
B) 502 GW
C) 552 GW
D) 602 GW
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 552 GW
16. Non-fossil sources currently account for more than what share of India’s installed power capacity?
A) 44%
B) 49%
C) 54%
D) 60%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 54%
17. India’s installed solar capacity stands at approximately:
A) 144.59 GW
B) 154.59 GW
C) 164.59 GW
D) 174.59 GW
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 164.59 GW
18. India ranks 4th globally in wind capacity, with an installed capacity of approximately:
A) 48.14 GW
B) 58.14 GW
C) 68.14 GW
D) 78.14 GW
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 58.14 GW
19. Coal contributes nearly what share of India’s primary energy requirements?
A) 45%
B) 50%
C) 55%
D) 60%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 55%
20. LPG coverage in India increased from 55.9% in 2014 to what level in 2026?
A) 95.2%
B) 100%
C) 107.2%
D) 112%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 107.2%
21. India’s Nuclear Energy Mission targets an operational nuclear capacity of 100 GW by:
A) 2040
B) 2042
C) 2047
D) 2050
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2047
22. The 500 MWe Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) at Kalpakkam achieved first criticality in:
A) 2024
B) 2025
C) 2026
D) 2027
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2026
23. India’s first indigenous hydrogen fuel-cell-powered train began operations in July 2026 on which section?
A) Delhi–Meerut
B) Jind–Sonipat
C) Kanpur–Lucknow
D) Varanasi–Prayagraj
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Jind–Sonipat
24. The total solar eclipse of 12 August 2026 was the first to have its path of totality visible over mainland Europe since:
A) 1990
B) 1995
C) 1999
D) 2005
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1999
25. A solar eclipse occurs because the Moon’s orbital plane is tilted relative to the ecliptic by approximately:
A) 3 degrees
B) 5 degrees
C) 7 degrees
D) 10 degrees
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 5 degrees
26. Which type of solar eclipse occurs when the Moon is near apogee, producing a ‘Ring of Fire’?
A) Total
B) Annular
C) Partial
D) Hybrid
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Annular
27. NASA’s ‘Big Bang’ power-saving fix was recently applied to which Voyager spacecraft, extending its mission by at least a year?
A) Voyager 1
B) Voyager 2
C) Both Voyager 1 and 2 simultaneously
D) Pioneer 10
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Voyager 2
28. Voyager 1 is currently the most distant human-made object from Earth, at a distance of approximately:
A) 18 billion km
B) 21 billion km
C) 25.4 billion km
D) 30 billion km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 25.4 billion km
29. Which spacecraft remains the only one to have visited both Uranus and Neptune?
A) Voyager 1
B) Voyager 2
C) New Horizons
D) Cassini
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Voyager 2
30. The Sangeet Natak Akademi’s highest honour, Akademi Ratna (Fellowship), is restricted to how many living Fellows at any given time?
A) 30
B) 35
C) 40
D) 50
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 40
31. According to the Prime Minister, India’s social security coverage expanded from around 25 crore beneficiaries before 2014 to how many within a decade?
A) 75 crore
B) 85 crore
C) 100 crore
D) 110 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 100 crore
32. As per the ILO, India’s social protection coverage increased from 19% in 2015 to what level in 2025?
A) 54.3%
B) 59.3%
C) 64.3%
D) 69.3%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 64.3%
33. Under Ayushman Bharat–PM-JAY, families receive health coverage of up to:
A) ₹3 lakh
B) ₹5 lakh
C) ₹7 lakh
D) ₹10 lakh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) ₹5 lakh
34. By March 2025, how many Ayushman Cards had been issued?
A) 29.94 crore
B) 34.94 crore
C) 39.94 crore
D) 44.94 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 39.94 crore
35. The eShram Portal, launched on 26 August 2021, creates which national database?
A) National Database of Skilled Workers
B) National Database of Unorganised Workers (NDUW)
C) National Employment Registry
D) National Pension Database
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) National Database of Unorganised Workers (NDUW)
36. The Atal Pension Yojana was launched on:
A) 1 April 2015
B) 9 May 2015
C) 15 August 2015
D) 26 January 2016
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 9 May 2015
37. The Code on Social Security, 2020 amalgamates how many existing labour laws relating to social security?
A) Six
B) Seven
C) Eight
D) Nine
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Nine
38. ‘Saptadhara’, the seven-pillar reform blueprint for Viksit Bharat 2047, was unveiled by the Prime Minister during his address on India’s:
A) 78th Independence Day
B) 79th Independence Day
C) 80th Independence Day
D) 81st Independence Day
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 80th Independence Day
39. Which of the following is NOT one of the seven pillars of Saptadhara?
A) Gati Shakti
B) Defense Shakti
C) Digital Democracy
D) India’s Soft Power
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Digital Democracy
40. Under the Saptadhara vision, how many youth are proposed to be trained in AI skills over the next year?
A) 50 lakh
B) 75 lakh
C) 1 crore
D) 1.5 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1 crore
41. Under the announced Women Entrepreneurship initiative, the target for Lakhpati Didis would be raised to a total of:
A) 4 crore
B) 5 crore
C) 6 crore
D) 7 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 6 crore
42. How many new semiconductor plants are proposed over the next eight years, as announced alongside Saptadhara?
A) 3–5
B) 5–8
C) 8–10
D) 10–12
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 5–8
43. During the Monsoon Session 2026, the Lok Sabha functioned for only what share of its scheduled time?
A) 10%
B) 15%
C) 20%
D) 25%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 15%
44.During the Monsoon Session 2026, the Rajya Sabha functioned for what share of its scheduled time?
A) 25%
B) 30%
C) 33%
D) 40%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 33%
45. Article 85(1) of the Constitution requires that the gap between two Parliamentary sessions should not exceed:
A) Three months
B) Four months
C) Six months
D) Twelve months
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Six months
46. During the Monsoon Session 2026, Question Hour in the Lok Sabha operated for only what share of scheduled time?
A) 1%
B) 5%
C) 8%
D) 12%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) 1%
47. The estimated economic loss due to disruptions during the Monsoon Session 2026 was approximately:
A) ₹100 crore
B) ₹125 crore
C) ₹150 crore
D) ₹175 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) ₹175 crore
48. India is the second-largest honey producer globally, after:
A) United States
B) China
C) New Zealand
D) Argentina
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) China
49. India’s honey production reached approximately how much in 2025–26?
A) 1.11 lakh tonnes
B) 1.31 lakh tonnes
C) 1.51 lakh tonnes
D) 1.71 lakh tonnes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1.51 lakh tonnes
50. India contributes approximately what share of global honey exports?
A) 5.4%
B) 6.4%
C) 7.4%
D) 8.4%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 8.4%
51. India’s honey exports generated approximately how much in 2025–26?
A) US$158 million
B) US$188 million
C) US$208 million
D) US$228 million
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) US$208 million
52. India’s annual per-capita honey consumption is estimated at only 37 grams, compared to a global average
of around:
A) 150 grams
B) 200 grams
C) 244 grams
D) 300 grams
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 244 grams
53. Which state is India’s largest honey-producing state, contributing 16.7% of production?
A) West Bengal
B) Punjab
C) Uttar Pradesh
D) Haryana
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Uttar Pradesh
54. The National Beekeeping and Honey Mission (NBHM) operates with an allocation of:
A) ₹300 crore
B) ₹400 crore
C) ₹500 crore
D) ₹600 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ₹500 crore
55. The Madhukranti Portal primarily provides:
A) Export subsidy disbursement
B) Digital registration and traceability for the honey sector
C) Beekeeper insurance coverage
D) Honey price forecasting
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Digital registration and traceability for the honey sector
56. According to the ILO’s Global Employment Trends for Youth 2026 report, global youth unemployment
reached what level in 2025?
A) 10.4%
B) 11.4%
C) 12.4%
D) 13.4%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 12.4%
57. As per the report, the global NEET rate among young women stood at 27.4%, compared to what rate among young men?
A) 10.1%
B) 13.1%
C) 16.1%
D) 19.1%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 13.1%
58. According to the report, approximately what share of jobs held by workers aged 15–29 are considered highly exposed to AI-driven task replacement?
A) 4.1%
B) 5.1%
C) 6.1%
D) 7.1%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 6.1%
59. On the eve of India’s 80th Independence Day, the President approved how many gallantry awards, including 13 posthumous honours?
A) 58
B) 68
C) 78
D) 88
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 78
60. Which is India’s highest peacetime gallantry decoration?
A) Kirti Chakra
B) Shaurya Chakra
C) Ashoka Chakra
D) Param Vishisht Seva Medal
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Ashoka Chakra
61. The Royal Indian Navy Mutiny began on 18 February 1946 with ratings going on strike at:
A) HMIS Talwar, Bombay
B) HMIS Narbada, Karachi
C) HMIS Hindustan, Bombay
D) HMIS Investigator, Vizag
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) HMIS Talwar, Bombay
62. At its peak, the RIN Mutiny reportedly involved nearly 20,000 personnel across how many ships and shore establishments combined?
A) 58 ships, 20 shore establishments
B) 78 ships, 20 shore establishments
C) 98 ships, 25 shore establishments
D) 118 ships, 30 shore establishments
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 78 ships, 20 shore establishments
63. During the mutiny, protesters symbolically hoisted flags of which two political organisations together?
A) Congress and Hindu Mahasabha
B) Congress and Muslim League
C) Muslim League and Communist Party
D) Congress and Communist Party
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Congress and Muslim League
64. The immediate trigger for the mutiny at HMIS Talwar is associated with the conduct of which British
officer?
A) Commander Arthur King
B) Admiral John Godfrey
C) Vice Admiral Edward Parry
D) Rear Admiral Rattray
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Commander Arthur King
65. Sri Aurobindo’s birth anniversary, commemorated by the PM on 15 August 2026, marked his how many-th birth anniversary?
A) 150th
B) 152nd
C) 154th
D) 156th
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 154th
66. Sri Aurobindo criticised the moderate approach of the Indian National Congress through which
publication?
A) Bande Mataram
B) New Lamps for Old
C) Karmayogin
D) Savitri
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) New Lamps for Old
67. Sri Aurobindo was arrested and tried in connection with which case in 1908?
A) Kakori Conspiracy Case
B) Alipore Bomb Case
C) Chittagong Armoury Raid Case
D) Muzaffarpur Conspiracy Case
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Alipore Bomb Case
68. Which lawyer defended Sri Aurobindo in the Alipore Bomb Case, securing his acquittal?
A) Motilal Nehru
B) Chittaranjan Das
C) Tej Bahadur Sapru
D) M.A. Jinnah
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Chittaranjan Das
69. In 1910, Sri Aurobindo moved from British India to which French enclave?
A) Mahe
B) Karaikal
C) Pondicherry
D) Yanam
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Pondicherry
70. Sri Aurobindo, along with Mirra Alfassa (‘The Mother’), established the Sri Aurobindo Ashram in which
year?
A) 1920
B) 1926
C) 1930
D) 1935
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 1926
71. India’s first comprehensive guide on Grasslands and Other Open Natural Ecosystems (ONEs) was
launched at which UNCCD COP17 venue?
A) Abidjan, Côte d’Ivoire
B) New Delhi, India
C) Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia
D) Riyadh, Saudi Arabia
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia
72. Open Natural Ecosystems collectively cover more than what share of India’s geographical area?
A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 15%
D) 20%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 10%
73. Currently, less than what share of India’s Open Natural Ecosystems are represented within the protected
area network?
A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 15%
D) 20%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) 5%
74. The UNCCD, established in 1994, currently has how many Parties?
A) 187
B) 192
C) 197
D) 202
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 197
75. India has committed to restoring how many hectares of degraded land by 2030 under the Land
Degradation Neutrality target?
A) 16 million hectares
B) 21 million hectares
C) 26 million hectares
D) 30 million hectares
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 26 million hectares
76. UNCCD COP17 was held under the theme:
A) Land for Life
B) Restoring Land. Restoring Hope
C) One Land, One Future
D) Toward a Land-Degradation-Neutral World
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Restoring Land. Restoring Hope
77. India’s CBDC-based Direct Benefit Transfer pilot under PMGKAY was introduced in Chandigarh and:
A) Lakshadweep
B) Dadra & Nagar Haveli
C) Puducherry
D) Ladakh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Dadra & Nagar Haveli
78. Under the CBDC-based DBT model, food-subsidy value is transferred through:
A) General-purpose bank deposits
B) Purpose-bound Digital Rupee (e₹) tokens
C) Physical ration coupons
D) Prepaid debit cards
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Purpose-bound Digital Rupee (e₹) tokens
79. Under PMGKAY, Priority Households (PHH) receive how much foodgrain per person per month?
A) 3 kg
B) 5 kg
C) 7 kg
D) 10 kg
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 5 kg
80. Under PMGKAY, Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) households receive how much foodgrain per family
per month?
A) 25 kg
B) 30 kg
C) 35 kg
D) 40 kg
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 35 kg
81. PMGKAY covers nearly how many beneficiaries, representing roughly 57% of India’s population?
A) 71.35 crore
B) 76.35 crore
C) 81.35 crore
D) 86.35 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 81.35 crore
82. The Government of India announced the issuance of Sovereign Green Bonds in which Union Budget?
A) 2021–22
B) 2022–23
C) 2023–24
D) 2024–25
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 2022–23
83. A ‘greenium’ refers to a situation where investors accept what, relative to a comparable conventional bond?
A) A higher yield
B) A lower yield
C) Equal yield with added risk
D) No yield but tax exemption
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) A lower yield
84. SAFTA replaced which earlier SAARC trade arrangement?
A) SAARC Free Trade Agreement
B) SAARC Preferential Trading Arrangement (SAPTA)
C) South Asian Customs Union
D) SAARC Development Fund Agreement
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) SAARC Preferential Trading Arrangement (SAPTA)
85. SAFTA came into force on:
A) 1 January 2004
B) 1 January 2005
C) 1 January 2006
D) 1 January 2008
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1 January 2006
86. India accounts for roughly what share of global areca nut production?
A) 43%
B) 53%
C) 63%
D) 73%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 63%
87. The Bar Council of India (BCI) was established under which section of the Advocates Act, 1961?
A) Section 3
B) Section 4
C) Section 6
D) Section 9
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Section 4
88. The proposal for a national bar regulatory body originated from the All-India Bar Committee (1953),
headed by:
A) Justice S.R. Das
B) Justice M.C. Chagla
C) Justice Vivian Bose
D) Justice B.K. Mukherjea
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Justice S.R. Das
89. Under Section 48B of the Advocates Act, 1961, the BCI has the power to issue directions to:
A) High Courts
B) State Bar Councils
C) The Supreme Court Registry
D) Law Universities
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) State Bar Councils
90. The 8th edition of the India–US Navy Explosive Ordnance Disposal (EOD) Exercise 2026 concluded at:
A) Eastern Naval Command, Visakhapatnam
B) Western Naval Command, Mumbai
C) Southern Naval Command, Kochi
D) Andaman and Nicobar Command
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Ashoka Chakra
91. MeitY approved projects worth ₹7,877 crore for incentives under the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme (ECMS), which was launched in:
A) 2023
B) 2024
C) 2025
D) 2026
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2025
92. Under ECMS, the revised financial outlay was increased to ₹40,000 crore in which Union Budget?
A) 2024–25
B) 2025–26
C) 2026–27
D) 2027–28
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2026–27
93. ECMS is implemented over which period?
A) FY 2024–25 to FY 2030–31
B) FY 2025–26 to FY 2031–32
C) FY 2026–27 to FY 2032–33
D) FY 2027–28 to FY 2033–34
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) FY 2025–26 to FY 2031–32
94. As per the Economic Survey 2025–26, electronics became India’s third-largest and fastest-growing export category in 2024–25, improving from which position in 2021–22?
A) Fourth
B) Fifth
C) Sixth
D) Seventh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Seventh
95. In State of Karnataka v. Prathik Parasrampuria (2026), the Supreme Court directed that seized cash or assets connected with electoral offences must be placed before a Magistrate within:
A) 12 hours
B) 24 hours
C) 48 hours
D) 72 hours
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 24 hours
96.As per the Supreme Court’s directions, investigations arising from election-related FIRs must be completed within:
A) Six months
B) One year
C) Two years
D) Three years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) One year
97. Static Surveillance Teams (SSTs) must report cash seizures exceeding what amount to the Income Tax Department?
A) ₹5 lakh
B) ₹10 lakh
C) ₹15 lakh
D) ₹20 lakh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) ₹10 lakh
98. Under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, which section requires candidates to submit election-expense accounts to the District Election Officer within 30 days of the result?
A) Section 77
B) Section 78
C) Section 123
D) Section 171
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Section 78
99. Which committee, in 1993, examined the nexus between organised crime, politicians and public officials?
A) Dinesh Goswami Committee
B) Vohra Committee
C) Indrajit Gupta Committee
D) Tarkunde Committee
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Vohra Committee
100. Which committee recommended partial State funding of elections, particularly through in-kind assistance?
A) Dinesh Goswami Committee (1990)
B) Vohra Committee (1993)
C) Indrajit Gupta Committee (1998)
D) Law Commission 170th Report (1999)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Indrajit Gupta Committee (1998)
101. The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) was established under which section of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019?
A) Section 8
B) Section 10
C) Section 15
D) Section 21
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Section 10
102. Under CCPA rules, the penalty for a first contravention involving misleading advertisements can go up to:
A) ₹5 lakh
B) ₹10 lakh
C) ₹25 lakh
D) ₹50 lakh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) ₹10 lakh
103. For subsequent contraventions of misleading advertisement rules, the CCPA can restrict an endorser from endorsing products for up to:
A) 1 year
B) 2 years
C) 3 years
D) 5 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 3 years
104. Section 5 of the Cigarettes and Other Tobacco Products Act (COTPA), 2003 prohibits:
A) Sale of tobacco to minors
B) Advertisement of tobacco products, direct and indirect
C) Smoking in public places
D) Manufacturing of tobacco products
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Advertisement of tobacco products, direct and indirect
105. Private corporate investment as a share of GDP declined from 12.3% in FY 2022–23 to what level in FY 2023–24?
A) 10.2%
B) 11.2%
C) 11.8%
D) 12.0%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 11.2%
106. Internal accruals accounted for approximately what share of private corporate capital expenditure in 2025–26?
A) 55.35%
B) 60.35%
C) 65.35%
D) 70.35%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 65.35%
107. India’s Gross Expenditure on Research and Development (GERD) remains relatively low, at around what share of GDP?
A) 0.44%
B) 0.64%
C) 0.84%
D) 1.04%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 0.64%
108. The gross Non-Performing Asset (NPA) ratio of the Indian banking system fell to a historic low of around what level by September 2025?
A) 1.85%
B) 2.15%
C) 2.65%
D) 3.15%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 2.15%
109. The Draft SHANTI Rules, 2026 are intended to give effect to the SHANTI Act, 2025, which replaced the Atomic Energy Act, 1962 and:
A) The Environment Protection Act, 1986
B) The Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010
C) The Factories Act, 1948
D) The Radiation Protection Rules, 2004
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) The Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010
110. Under the Draft SHANTI Rules, nuclear operator liability would operate on which basis?
A) Fault-based liability only
B) Strict and no-fault liability
C) Liability capped at zero unless negligence is proven
D) Government-assumed liability
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Strict and no-fault liability
111. Under the Draft SHANTI Rules, the expert group reviewing liability limits for nuclear operators would conduct reviews every:
A) Two years
B) Three years
C) Five years
D) Ten years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Five years
112. The National Anubhav Awards were instituted in 2015 by which department?
A) Department of Administrative Reforms
B) Department of Pension and Pensioners’ Welfare (DoPPW)
C) Department of Personnel and Training
D) Department of Public Enterprises
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Department of Pension and Pensioners’ Welfare (DoPPW)
113. Under the National Anubhav Awards, eligible Central Government employees include those due to retire within how many months?
A) Four months
B) Six months
C) Eight months
D) Twelve months
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Eight months
114. The Prime Minister’s National Relief Fund (PMNRF) was established in 1948, initially to assist people displaced during:
A) The Bengal Famine
B) Partition
C) The Indo-Pak War of 1947–48
D) The Quit India Movement
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Partition
115. Contributions to PMNRF qualify for what percentage deduction under Section 80G of the Income Tax Act, 1961?
A) 50%
B) 75%
C) 90%
D) 100%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 100%
116. Unlike the CAG-audited PM CARES Fund, PMNRF’s accounts are audited by:
A) The Reserve Bank of India
B) An independent chartered accountant from outside the government
C) The Ministry of Finance
D) NITI Aayog
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) An independent chartered accountant from outside the government
117. The Miyawaki afforestation method was developed by Japanese botanist:
A) Dr. Akira Miyawaki
B) Dr. Hideo Itokawa
C) Dr. Kenji Miyamoto
D) Dr. Shigeru Ban
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Dr. Akira Miyawaki
118. Under the Miyawaki method, saplings are typically planted at what density per square metre?
A) 1–2 saplings
B) 3–5 saplings
C) 6–8 saplings
D) 10–12 saplings
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 3–5 saplings
119. The Madras High Court recognised the Thamirabarani (Porunai) River as a ‘legal person’ primarily based on its:
A) Status as an interstate river
B) Rights of nature doctrine
C) Religious and cultural status as a Hindu deity
D) Economic importance for irrigation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Religious and cultural status as a Hindu deity
120. The Thamirabarani River originates near Agastyarkoodam Peak in which hills of the Western Ghats and enters the sea at Punnakayal estuary?
A) Anamalai Hills
B) Pothigai Hills
C) Nilgiri Hills
D) Cardamom Hills
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Pothigai Hills
121. Section 2 of which Act provides for the application of Muslim personal law, including matters of marriage, to specified persons?
A) Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986
B) Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937
C) Special Marriage Act, 1954
D) Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937
122. Bigamy is criminalised under which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023?
A) Section 63
B) Section 74
C) Section 82
D) Section 103
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Section 82
123. In Javed v. State of Haryana (2003), the Supreme Court held that polygamy under Muslim personal law is:
A) A fundamental right under Article 25
B) Not an essential religious practice protected under Article 25
C) Absolutely prohibited under all circumstances
D) Subject to state-specific regulation only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Not an essential religious practice protected under Article 25
124. In Sarla Mudgal v. Union of India (1995), the Supreme Court held that a Hindu husband cannot:
A) Remarry without his first wife’s consent
B) Convert to Islam merely to contract a second marriage while the first subsists
C) Divorce his wife without court approval
D) Adopt children without registration
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Convert to Islam merely to contract a second marriage while the first subsists
125. According to NFHS-5 (2019–21) data cited in the context, which religious community showed the highest reported prevalence of polygamy?
A) Hindus
B) Muslims
C) Christians
D) Sikhs
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Christians
126. Which Indian state became the first to implement a Uniform Civil Code, prohibiting polygamy and bigamy with exemptions for Scheduled Tribes?
A) Himachal Pradesh
B) Uttarakhand
C) Goa
D) Gujarat
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Uttarakhand
127. According to the UNESCO report, every US$1 invested in investigative journalism can generate more than how much in public savings?
A) US$50
B) US$75
C) US$100
D) US$150
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) US$100
128. According to the UNESCO report, deterioration in press freedom was associated with an estimated decline in real GDP growth of:
A) 0.5–1%
B) 1–2%
C) 2–3%
D) 3–4%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 1–2%
129. UNESCO proposes allocating around what share of global GDP towards strengthening public-interest media?
A) 0.05%
B) 0.1%
C) 0.5%
D) 1%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 0.1%
130. As per the 2026 World Press Freedom Index, only around what share of the world’s population lives in countries with ‘good’ press freedom?
A) 1%
B) 5%
C) 10%
D) 15%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) 1%
131. The Malaysia–India Governance Partnership Action Plan, introduced at the 2nd Joint Working Group Meeting, provides a roadmap for which period?
A) 2026–2028
B) 2027–2029
C) 2028–2030
D) 2027–2030
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 2027–2029
132. India showcased ‘Samadhan Didi’ at the India–Malaysia meeting; this refers to:
A) A digital land records platform
B) An AI-enabled multilingual grievance redressal chatbot
C) A rural skilling programme
D) A women’s entrepreneurship scheme
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) An AI-enabled multilingual grievance redressal chatbot
133. India and Malaysia elevated their relationship to a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership in which year?
A) 2022
B) 2023
C) 2024
D) 2025
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2024
134. India–Malaysia bilateral trade reached approximately how much in FY 2024–25?
A) US$14.86 billion
B) US$16.86 billion
C) US$19.86 billion
D) US$22.86 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) US$19.86 billion
135. India became an Observer in the Arctic Council in which year?
A) 2008
B) 2013
C) 2016
D) 2019
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 2013
136. India is an original signatory to which 1920 treaty granting rights relating to access and commercial activity in the Svalbard archipelago?
A) Svalbard Treaty
B) Antarctic Treaty
C) Spitsbergen Accord
D) Polar Cooperation Treaty
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Svalbard Treaty
137. India’s principal institution coordinating polar research activities, including in the Arctic, is:
A) ISRO
B) National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR), Goa
C) National Institute of Oceanography
D) Wadia Institute of Himalayan Geology
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR), Goa
138. India’s Arctic research station in Svalbard is known as:
A) IndARC
B) Himadri Research Station
C) Maitri Station
D) Bharati Station
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Himadri Research Station
139. The Parliamentary Standing Committee on India’s Arctic Policy recommended appointing a dedicated:
A) Arctic Development Bank
B) Special Envoy/Polar Ambassador for Arctic Affairs
C) National Arctic Regulatory Authority
D) Arctic Trade Commission
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Special Envoy/Polar Ambassador for Arctic Affairs
140. The U.S. sanctioned ICC President Tomoko Akane and senior prosecutor Abdoulaye Seye by invoking:
A) Executive Order 13818
B) Executive Order 14203
C) The Global Magnitsky Act
D) The International Emergency Economic Powers Act alone
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Executive Order 14203
141. The ICC was established through the Rome Statute, which was adopted in 1998 and became operational in:
A) 1999
B) 2000
C) 2002
D) 2005
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2002
142. Under the ICC’s principle of complementarity, the Court generally intervenes when:
A) A UN Security Council referral occurs automatically
B) A state is unwilling or genuinely unable to prosecute international crimes
C) Any state requests ICC involvement
D) The accused person consents to jurisdiction
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) A state is unwilling or genuinely unable to prosecute international crimes
143. Ukraine became the how many-th State Party to the Rome Statute, according to figures cited in the source material?
A) 120th
B) 123rd
C) 125th
D) 128th
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 125th
144. The Incentive Scheme for Promotion of Domestic PNG Connections will come into effect from:
A) 1 April 2026
B) 1 July 2026
C) 1 September 2026
D) 1 January 2027
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1 September 2026
145. Under the PNG incentive scheme, eligible CGD entities receive an additional how many SCM of lower-priced domestic APM gas per qualifying new billed connection?
A) 100 SCM
B) 150 SCM
C) 200 SCM
D) 250 SCM
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 200 SCM
146. The PNG incentive scheme is expected to reduce the payback period for a household PNG connection from around 10 years to nearly:
A) 2 years
B) 3 years
C) 4 years
D) 5 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 3 years
147. China’s Zhuque-3 rocket achieved a significant milestone by recovering its first stage:
A) On a sea-based platform for the first time ever
B) On land, marking China’s first successful land-based recovery
C) In orbit using robotic arms
D) Via parachute over open ocean
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) On land, marking China’s first successful land-based recovery
148. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC) was established in 1988 under which Act?
A) Consumer Protection Act, 1986
B) Consumer Protection Act, 2019
C) Sale of Goods Act, 1930
D) MRTP Act, 1969
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Consumer Protection Act, 1986
149. Under the three-tier consumer dispute redressal system, the NCDRC generally has original jurisdiction for claims above:
A) ₹50 lakh
B) ₹1 crore
C) ₹2 crore
D) ₹5 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ₹2 crore
150. India is the largest troop-contributing country to UNMISS, with approximately how many personnel deployed, as cited in the context?
A) 1,275
B) 1,575
C) 1,775
D) 1,975
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1,775
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