Practice the August 2026 Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the forth week of August 2026.
The Current Affairs Quiz of 22 to 31 August features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.
4th Week of August 2026: Current Affairs Quiz
1. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), which section deals with deliberate and malicious acts intended to outrage religious feelings?
A) Section 296
B) Section 298
C) Section 299
D) Section 302
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Section 299
2. Section 298 of the BNS primarily addresses:
A) Deliberate insult through expression
B) Injuring or defiling a place of worship or sacred object with intent to insult a religion
C) Hate speech on social media
D) Incitement to communal violence
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Injuring or defiling a place of worship or sacred object with intent to insult a religion
3. In Ramji Lal Modi v. State of Uttar Pradesh, the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of the former Section 295A IPC by linking the restriction to:
A) National security
B) Public-order considerations
C) Economic stability
D) Diplomatic relations
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Public-order considerations
4. The ‘Heckler’s Veto’ concern, as discussed in the context of religious-offence laws, refers to:
A) A judge’s power to overturn legislation
B) An offended group effectively silencing lawful expression through complaints or protests
C) A veto power held by religious leaders in Parliament
D) A constitutional bar on criticizing religion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) An offended group effectively silencing lawful expression through complaints or protests
5. India and Japan recently signed a Memorandum of Arrangement on:
A) Cyber Security Cooperation
B) Maritime Security Cooperation
C) Space Technology Cooperation
D) Nuclear Energy Cooperation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Maritime Security Cooperation
6. The UNICORN system, whose deployment India and Japan agreed to accelerate, refers to:
A) An underwater drone network
B) The Unified Complex Radio Antenna system
C) A joint satellite constellation
D) A missile defence radar array
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) The Unified Complex Radio Antenna system
7. Japan’s Acquisition, Technology & Logistics Agency (ATLA) is deepening cooperation with which Indian body in defence research?
A) ISRO
B) DRDO
C) BEL
D) HAL
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) DRDO
8. The La Pérouse (Soya) Strait separates Japan’s Hokkaido from which Russian territory?
A) Kuril Islands
B) Sakhalin Island
C) Kamchatka Peninsula
D) Primorsky Krai
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Sakhalin Island
9. The Senkaku/Diaoyu Islands are disputed between Japan and:
A) South Korea
B) Russia
C) China
D) Taiwan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) China
10. The Global Digital Capacity Building Alliance (GDCBA) was launched on 20 February 2026 at which summit?
A) G20 Digital Economy Summit
B) India AI Impact Summit, New Delhi
C) World Economic Forum, Davos
D) UN Digital Cooperation Forum
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) India AI Impact Summit, New Delhi
11. GDCBA is initiated by which Indian body and builds upon which national programme?
A) NITI Aayog; Digital India Mission
B) Capacity Building Commission (CBC); Mission Karmayogi
C) MeitY; Skill India Mission
D) DoPT; National e-Governance Plan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Capacity Building Commission (CBC); Mission Karmayogi
12. The Scheme for Economic Empowerment of DNTs (SEED) was launched in which year with an outlay of ₹200 crore?
A) 2020
B) 2021
C) 2022
D) 2023
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2022
13. Under SEED, health insurance coverage of up to ₹5 lakh per year is provided through convergence with:
A) ESIC scheme
B) Ayushman Bharat–PM-JAY
C) CGHS
D) State Health Insurance Schemes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Ayushman Bharat–PM-JAY
14. India’s public capital expenditure rose from ₹2 lakh crore in FY 2014-15 to how much in FY 2026-27?
A) ₹8.2 lakh crore
B) ₹10.2 lakh crore
C) ₹12.2 lakh crore
D) ₹14.2 lakh crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ₹12.2 lakh crore
15. The Chenab Bridge, the world’s highest railway arch bridge, rises how many metres above the Chenab River?
A) 259 metres
B) 309 metres
C) 359 metres
D) 409 metres
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 359 metres
16. India’s operational airports increased from 74 in 2014 to how many by July 2026?
A) 145
B) 155
C) 165
D) 175
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 165
17. India’s National Waterways increased from 5 in 2014 to how many in 2026, of which 32 are operational?
A) 101
B) 111
C) 121
D) 131
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 111
18. The Bharat Audyogik Vikas Yojana (BHAVYA), approved in March 2026, aims to develop how many new plug-and-play industrial parks?
A) 50
B) 75
C) 100
D) 150
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 100
19. The Supreme Court’s nine-judge Bench ruling clarified that the broad ‘triple test’ definition of ‘industry’ from which 1978 case will not apply to disputes under the Industrial Relations Code, 2020?
A) Balaji v. State of Mysore
B) Bangalore Water Supply and Sewerage Board v. R. Rajappa
C) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
D) D.C. Dewan Mohideen Sahib v. Industrial Tribunal
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Bangalore Water Supply and Sewerage Board v. R. Rajappa
20. The Bangalore Water Supply ‘triple test’ for determining whether an activity is an ‘industry’ includes systematic activity, employer-employee cooperation and:
A) Government ownership
B) Production of goods or services to satisfy human needs
C) Formal registration under Companies Act
D) Minimum employee strength of 100
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Production of goods or services to satisfy human needs
21. Zonal Councils were established under Part III of which Act?
A) Government of India Act, 1935
B) States Reorganisation Act, 1956
C) North Eastern Council Act, 1971
D) Inter-State Council Order, 1990
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) States Reorganisation Act, 1956
22. Who serves as the Chairperson of all five Zonal Councils?
A) The Prime Minister
B) The Union Home Minister
C) The Cabinet Secretary
D) NITI Aayog CEO
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) The Union Home Minister
23. The Southern Zonal Council, whose 31st meeting was held in Tamil Nadu, has its headquarters at:
A) Bengaluru
B) Hyderabad
C) Chennai
D) Thiruvananthapuram
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Chennai
24. The National Medical Commission’s proposed ‘One Nation, One License’ framework would issue doctors a Unique Identification Number (UID) through which board?
A) Undergraduate Medical Education Board (UGMEB)
B) Postgraduate Medical Education Board (PGMEB)
C) Medical Assessment and Rating Board (MARB)
D) Ethics and Medical Registration Board (EMRB)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Ethics and Medical Registration Board (EMRB)
25. The National Medical Commission, established in September 2020, replaced which earlier body?
A) Indian Medical Association
B) Medical Council of India (MCI)
C) Dental Council of India
D) National Board of Examinations
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Medical Council of India (MCI)
26. At least what percentage of the National Medical Commission’s members must be medical practitioners?
A) 40%
B) 50%
C) 60%
D) 75%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 60%
27. The ‘One Day, One University’ initiative, proposed by the Union Cabinet, is designed for direct engagement between students and:
A) State Governors
B) Union Ministers
C) University Vice-Chancellors only
D) UGC officials
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Union Ministers
28. India will host the 5th Coast Guard Global Summit (CGGS) in New Delhi in February 2027, coinciding with the Indian Coast Guard’s:
A) 25th anniversary
B) 40th anniversary
C) 50th anniversary
D) 60th anniversary
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 50th anniversary
29. The Coast Guard Global Summit was established in 2017 by the Japan Coast Guard along with:
A) The Nippon Foundation
B) JICA
C) The Sasakawa Peace Foundation
D) IMO
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) The Nippon Foundation
30. Kikuchi-Fujimoto Disease, first identified in Japan in 1972, primarily affects which part of the body?
A) The liver
B) Lymph nodes
C) The kidneys
D) The lungs
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Lymph nodes
31. With reference to Vaishya Tekri Stupa, consider the following statements:
- It is located near Ujjain on the banks of the Sipra River.
- It is tentatively dated to the 3rd century BCE.
- It is believed to have been constructed during the Gupta period.
- Its estimated diameter is around 350 feet.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. 1, 2 and 4 only
32. Which one of the following correctly describes an architectural feature of Vaishya Tekri Stupa?
A. Its core was constructed entirely of dressed sandstone.
B. A bowl-shaped masonry base helped counter outward lateral pressure.
C. It was surrounded by a circular stone wall without any depression.
D. Its core consisted primarily of burnt bricks without any earthen material.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. A bowl-shaped masonry base helped counter outward lateral pressure.
33. The earlier archaeological findings at Vaishya Tekri included:
- Mauryan-era punch-marked coins
- Cast Avanti coins
- Gupta gold coins
- Roman amphorae
Select the correct answer using the code below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. 1 and 2 only
34. Consider the following pairs:
| Place/Term | Description |
| 1. Ujjayini | Capital of ancient Avanti Mahajanapada |
| 2. Ozene | Name associated with Ujjain in Ptolemy’s writings |
| 3. Sipra | Tributary of the Chambal |
| 4. Ujjain | “India’s Greenwich” |
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 2 and 4 only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
35. The Pradhan Mantri Janjatiya Vikas Mission (PMJVM) is best described as:
A. A Centrally Sponsored Scheme implemented by State Governments
B. A Central Sector Scheme under the Ministry of Tribal Affairs
C. A Ministry of Rural Development scheme focused exclusively on agriculture
D. A Ministry of Commerce scheme for tribal exports
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. A Central Sector Scheme under the Ministry of Tribal Affairs
36. Which of the following is NOT a stated function of PMJVM?
A. Procurement of Minor Forest Produce at MSP
B. Training in processing and packaging of tribal products
C. Modernisation of local Haat Bazaars
D. Direct provision of crop insurance to all tribal farmers
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D. Direct provision of crop insurance to all tribal farmers
37. With reference to Van Dhan Vikas Kendras (VDVKs), which of the following statements is/are correct?
- Each VDVK comprises approximately 15 Van Dhan SHGs.
- Each SHG can have up to 20 gatherers.
- At least 60% of members must belong to Scheduled Tribes.
- VDVKs function primarily as banking institutions for tribal communities.
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 only
38. Under the Forest Rights Act, 2006, Minor Forest Produce refers to:
A. All forest produce including timber and minerals
B. Only products obtained from wild animals
C. Non-timber forest produce of plant origin
D. Agricultural products cultivated exclusively inside forests
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. Non-timber forest produce of plant origin
39. Which of the following rights is recognised under Section 3(1)(c) of the Forest Rights Act, 2006, as mentioned in the source?
A. Right of forest-dwelling communities to own, collect, use and dispose of MFP
B. Exclusive right of State Governments to market MFP
C. Right of Gram Sabhas to impose income tax on MFP traders
D. Right to convert all forest land into agricultural land
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. Right of forest-dwelling communities to own, collect, use and dispose of MFP
40. Consider the following statements regarding India’s coconut sector:
- India ranks first globally in coconut production.
- India ranks third globally in area under coconut cultivation.
- Tamil Nadu has the largest area under coconut cultivation.
- Andhra Pradesh has the highest productivity.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. 1, 2 and 4 only
41. Which one of the following correctly matches a coconut-related fact with the relevant institution?
A. Copra procurement — NAFED and NCCF
B. Copra procurement — TRIFED and NABARD
C. Coconut nursery accreditation — NCDC and NDDB
D. Coconut export regulation — PESA institutions
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. Copra procurement — NAFED and NCCF
42. With reference to the Shompen tribe, consider the following statements:
- They inhabit the interior rainforests and river basins of Great Nicobar Island.
- They are classified among India’s PVTGs.
- They are traditionally a nomadic hunter-gatherer community.
- Their traditional diet includes Pandanus fruit.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
43. Which of the following legal provisions is specifically associated with habitat rights for eligible tribal communities?
A. Section 3(1)(c) of FRA, 2006
B. Section 3(1)(e) of FRA, 2006
C. Section 4(m)(ii) of PESA, 1996
D. Section 2(i) of FRA, 2006
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Section 3(1)(e) of FRA, 2006
44. The Shompen issue in relation to the Great Nicobar Project primarily highlights which of the following dilemmas?
A. Conflict between urbanisation and industrialisation
B. Balancing infrastructure development with tribal rights and ecological conservation
C. Conflict between agricultural expansion and food security
D. Balancing mining expansion with export promotion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Balancing infrastructure development with tribal rights and ecological conservation
45. Maveeran Ondiveeran is associated with:
A. The Revolt of 1857 in northern India
B. The early armed resistance against the British East India Company in southern India
C. The Quit India Movement
D. The Swadeshi Movement in Bengal
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. The early armed resistance against the British East India Company in southern India
46. Consider the following pairs:
| Personality | Association |
| Maveeran Ondiveeran | Puli Thevar |
| Puli Thevar | Nerkattumseval |
| Puli Thevar | Early organised armed resistance against the East India Company |
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3
47. The MQ-9B Sea Guardian is classified as a:
A. Medium-Altitude Short-Endurance combat aircraft
B. High-Altitude Long-Endurance Remotely Piloted Aircraft System
C. Low-Altitude Short-Range helicopter drone
D. Supersonic unmanned fighter aircraft
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. High-Altitude Long-Endurance Remotely Piloted Aircraft System
48. Which combination correctly represents the surveillance systems that can be configured on the MQ-9B Sea Guardian?
A. Maritime surface-search radar, AIS and EO/IR sensors
B. Sonar, torpedoes and satellite phone only
C. Lidar, ballistic missile radar and underwater sonar
D. Weather radar, agricultural sensors and seismic detectors
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. Maritime surface-search radar, AIS and EO/IR sensors
49. Which of the following is a distinctive feature of the Sea Guardian’s mission architecture?
A. Fixed equipment configuration that cannot be altered
B. Bolt-on/bolt-off open architecture
C. Exclusive dependence on satellite imagery
D. Operation only during daylight hours
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Bolt-on/bolt-off open architecture
50. Bharat Taxi is distinctive because it seeks to combine:
A. Private ownership with government-operated transport
B. Digital technology with the cooperative model
C. Railway transport with inland waterways
D. Public-sector banking with insurance services
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Digital technology with the cooperative model
51. Which of the following is NOT among the eight founding institutions of Bharat Taxi?
A. NABARD
B. IFFCO
C. NAFED
D. SIDBI
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D. SIDBI
52. Under Bharat Taxi’s earnings model, which of the following is correct?
A. 20% of cooperative earnings is credited towards Bharat Taxi as Sarathis’ capital and 80% is distributed based on kilometres travelled.
B. 80% is retained by Bharat Taxi and 20% is distributed among Sarathis.
C. The entire fare is transferred to Bharat Taxi, which pays fixed salaries to drivers.
D. 50% is distributed equally and 50% is retained by the platform.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. 20% of cooperative earnings is credited towards Bharat Taxi as Sarathis’ capital and 80% is distributed based on kilometres travelled.
53. Consider the following statements regarding Bharat Taxi:
- Sarathis can become cooperative members by contributing to share capital.
- Each cooperative share has a face value of ₹100.
- A Sarathi can acquire ownership rights by purchasing shares worth ₹500.
- Sarathis have no role in cooperative decision-making.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only
54. With reference to the EU’s Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM), consider the following statements:
- It is a climate-trade instrument of the European Union.
- It places a carbon-related cost on selected emission-intensive imports.
- It became operational from January 2026.
- Its stated objective includes preventing carbon leakage.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
55. Which of the following sectors is NOT among the six sectors initially covered by CBAM?
A. Aluminium
B. Fertilisers
C. Hydrogen
D. Textiles
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D. Textiles
56. BRICS criticism of CBAM is primarily linked to which principle under the UNFCCC?
A. Polluter Pays Principle
B. Common but Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities
C. Precautionary Principle
D. Principle of Permanent Sovereignty over Natural Resources
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Common but Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities
57. According to the source, India’s exposure to CBAM is particularly significant because approximately what share of India’s EU trade affected by the mechanism is linked to iron and steel?
A. 40%
B. 60%
C. 75%
D. 90%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D. 90%
58. Which of the following correctly describes the SMILE Scheme?
A. A Central Sector umbrella scheme launched in 2022 under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
B. A Centrally Sponsored Scheme launched by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs
C. A Central Sector scheme exclusively for agricultural labourers
D. A Ministry of Labour scheme for industrial workers
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. A Central Sector umbrella scheme launched in 2022 under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
59. With reference to the Makhana sector, which of the following statements are correct?
- India is the world’s largest producer of makhana.
- Bihar accounts for nearly 75% of India’s output.
- Mithila Makhana has received a GI tag.
- Around 40% of India’s makhana production is exported.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
60. Consider the following pairs:
| Initiative/Platform | Key feature |
| 1. Friends of My Bharat | Connects with Indian-origin youth abroad |
| 2. MutAIverse | Uses Generative AI to investigate factors associated with cancer-causing DNA damage |
| 3. National Makhana Board | Strengthens the fragmented makhana value chain |
| 4. Garima Greh | Shelter and support centres for transgender persons |
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
61. Vaishya Tekri, where archaeological excavation is set to resume, is located near which city?
a) Sanchi
b) Ujjain
c) Vidisha
d) Bhopal
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Ujjain
62. Which stupa is regarded as the largest brick stupa in India?
a) Great Stupa at Sanchi
b) Kesariya Stupa, Bihar
c) Vaishya Tekri Stupa
d) Amaravati Stupa
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Kesariya Stupa, Bihar
63. According to local tradition, the Vaishya Tekri stupa was commissioned by whom?
a) Ashoka himself
b) Devi, wife of Ashoka
c) Chandragupta Maurya
d) Bindusara
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Devi, wife of Ashoka
64. Ujjain earned the epithet “India’s Greenwich” because of:
a) Its location on the Tropic of Cancer
b) Its use as a meridian in ancient astronomical calculations
c) Being the capital of British India
d) Its trade with Greece
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Its use as a meridian in ancient astronomical calculations
65. Which ministry implements the Pradhan Mantri Janjatiya Vikas Mission (PMJVM)?
a) Ministry of Rural Development
b) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
c) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
d) Ministry of Agriculture
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
66. Under PMJVM, what minimum percentage of Van Dhan SHG members must belong to Scheduled Tribes?
a) 40%
b) 50%
c) 60%
d) 75%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 60%
67. Which Act’s Section 4(m)(ii) directs State Legislatures to confer MFP ownership on Gram Sabhas in Fifth Schedule Areas?
a) Forest Rights Act, 2006
b) PESA Act, 1996
c) Indian Forest Act, 1927
d) Panchayati Raj Act, 1992
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) PESA Act, 1996
68. India ranks 1st globally in coconut production. Which state has the largest area under coconut cultivation?
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Karnataka
c) Kerala
d) Andhra Pradesh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Kerala
69. Which state records the highest coconut productivity?
a) Kerala
b) Andhra Pradesh
c) West Bengal
d) Tamil Nadu
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Andhra Pradesh
70. Copra procurement under the MSP regime is handled by which central nodal agencies?
a) FCI and CCI
b) NAFED and NCCF
c) TRIFED and NABARD
d) SFAC and APEDA
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) NAFED and NCCF
71. The Shompen tribe, a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group, inhabits which island?
a) South Andaman
b) Great Nicobar Island
c) North Sentinel Island
d) Little Andaman
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Great Nicobar Island
72. Which physical characteristic distinguishes the Shompen from Negrito groups like the Jarawas and Onges?
a) Austroasiatic ancestry
b) Mongoloid traits
c) Caucasoid traits
d) Dravidian traits
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Mongoloid traits
73. Maveeran Ondiveeran served as a trusted commander of which Polygar leader?
a) Veerapandiya Kattabomman
b) Puli Thevar
c) Kattabomman’s uncle
d) Marudhu Pandiyar
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Puli Thevar
74. Puli Thevar was the Palaiyakkarar (Polygar) of which place?
a) Nerkattumseval, Tenkasi district
b) Panchalankurichi
c) Sivaganga
d) Madurai
Show Answer
Correct Answer: a) Nerkattumseval, Tenkasi district
75. The MQ-9B Sea Guardian drones have been leased by India from which company, and for what duration?
a) Lockheed Martin, for 20 months
b) General Atomics Aeronautical Systems, for 30 months
c) Boeing, for 24 months
d) General Atomics, for 36 months
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) General Atomics Aeronautical Systems, for 30 months
76. What is the approximate endurance and operating altitude of the MQ-9B Sea Guardian?
a) 15 hours, 25,000 feet
b) 30 hours, above 40,000 feet
c) 48 hours, above 50,000 feet
d) 20 hours, 30,000 feet
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 30 hours, above 40,000 feet
77. Bharat Taxi, India’s first cooperative-led ride-hailing platform, is registered under which Act?
a) Companies Act, 2013
b) Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 2002
c) Cooperative Societies Act, 1912
d) Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 2002
78. Under Bharat Taxi’s earnings-sharing model, what percentage is distributed among Sarathis based on kilometres travelled?
a) 60%
b) 70%
c) 80%
d) 90%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 80%
79. The EU’s Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM), criticised by BRICS, became operational from:
a) January 2025
b) January 2026
c) October 2025
d) July 2026
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) January 2026
80. Which sector accounts for around 90% of India’s EU trade affected by CBAM?
a) Aluminium
b) Cement
c) Iron and steel
d) Fertilisers
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Iron and steel
81. The SMILE Scheme’s core objective is expressed through which vision?
a) Sabka Saath Sabka Vikas
b) Bhiksha Vritti Mukt Bharat (Begging-Free India)
c) Atmanirbhar Bharat
d) Sahkar se Samriddhi
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Bhiksha Vritti Mukt Bharat (Begging-Free India)
82. Garima Grehs, established under the SMILE Scheme, provide shelter primarily to:
a) Elderly destitute persons
b) Destitute transgender persons
c) Street children
d) Migrant labourers
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Destitute transgender persons
83. Which state dominates India’s makhana (fox nut) production, contributing nearly 75% of national output?
a) Uttar Pradesh
b) West Bengal
c) Bihar
d) Assam
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Bihar
84. Which is the largest export destination for Indian makhana?
a) Canada
b) UAE
c) United States
d) United Kingdom
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) United States
85. According to NITI Aayog’s ‘Reimagining Skilling for Viksit Bharat@2047’ report, roughly what percentage of graduates get jobs aligned with their qualification?
a) 8.25%
b) 18%
c) 34%
d) 36%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: a) 8.25%
86. As per the July 2026 PLFS data, how did rural Female Labour Force Participation Rate (FLFPR) change?
a) Increased from 33.0% to 45.9%
b) Increased from 23.3% to 27.7%
c) Decreased from 45.9% to 33.0%
d) Remained constant at 30%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: a) Increased from 33.0% to 45.9%
87. NADCP aims to eradicate Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD) in India by which year?
a) 2025
b) 2028
c) 2030
d) 2035
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 2030
88. Under PM-AASHA’s Price Support Scheme (PSS), what is the general procurement ceiling for pulses, oilseeds and copra from 2024–25?
a) 15% of State/UT production
b) 25% of State/UT production
c) 40% of State/UT production
d) 100% of State/UT production
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 25% of State/UT production
89. The Mobile Phone Manufacturing Scheme (MPMS), with an outlay of ₹62,500 crore, replaces which earlier scheme?
a) Make in India Scheme
b) PLI Scheme for Large Scale Electronics Manufacturing
c) Digital India Programme
d) SPECS Scheme
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) PLI Scheme for Large Scale Electronics Manufacturing
90. Thiksey Monastery in Ladakh, popularly called ‘Little Potala’, belongs to which sect of Tibetan Buddhism?
a) Nyingma
b) Kagyu
c) Gelug (Yellow Hat)
d) Sakya
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Gelug (Yellow Hat)
91. The “barren-land fallacy” refers to the mistaken assumption that:
a) Deserts can never support agriculture
b) Land without dense tree cover is inherently degraded
c) Grasslands are more productive than forests
d) Wastelands cannot be regulated
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Land without dense tree cover is inherently degraded
92. Which critically endangered bird is threatened by the conversion of natural grasslands into dense tree cover?
a) Sarus Crane
b) Great Indian Bustard
c) Lesser Florican
d) Indian Vulture
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Great Indian Bustard
93. According to Land Use Statistics 2022-23, barren and unculturable land accounts for approximately what share of India’s reporting area?
a) 2.1%
b) 5.4%
c) 8.7%
d) 12.3%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 5.4%
94. Land-related matters, including land use, primarily fall under which entry of the State List?
a) Entry 14
b) Entry 18
c) Entry 24
d) Entry 33
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Entry 18
95. Which of the following is NOT a core principle of regenerative agriculture?
a) Minimise soil disturbance
b) Maintain continuous soil cover
c) Maximise use of synthetic fertilisers
d) Integrate livestock with crop production
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Maximise use of synthetic fertilisers
96. By March 2026, natural farming clusters under the National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF) covered how many hectares?
a) 4.5 lakh hectares
b) 6.2 lakh hectares
c) 8.80 lakh hectares
d) 10.5 lakh hectares
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 8.80 lakh hectares
97. Which scheme supports Participatory Guarantee System (PGS) certification for organic produce?
a) National Mission on Natural Farming
b) Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY)
c) Soil Health Card Scheme
d) Rainfed Area Development
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY)
98. The ‘Rangelands Rising’ report was released during which UNCCD conference?
a) COP15
b) COP16
c) COP17
d) COP18
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) COP17
99. The ‘Rangelands Rising’ report was jointly prepared by UNCCD, IUCN, and which other organisation?
a) FAO
b) International Livestock Research Institute (ILRI)
c) World Bank
d) UNEP
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) International Livestock Research Institute (ILRI)
100. Rangelands occupy approximately what share of the Earth’s land surface?
a) 34%
b) 44%
c) 54%
d) 64%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 54%
101. According to the Rangelands Rising report, rangelands feature in the Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) of how many countries, compared to 181 for forests?
a) 12 countries
b) 24 countries
c) 48 countries
d) 96 countries
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 24 countries
102. COP17 of the UNCCD is being held in which city?
a) Bonn
b) Nairobi
c) Ulaanbaatar
d) Riyadh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Ulaanbaatar
103. What is the theme of COP17 of the UNCCD?
a) Land for Life
b) Restoring Land. Restoring Hope
c) Zero Net Land Degradation
d) One Earth, One Future
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Restoring Land. Restoring Hope
104. The Drought Resilience Capacity Index (DRCI), launched at COP17, was developed by:
a) UNCCD
b) UNEP
c) World Bank
d) FAO
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) UNEP
105. India’s second progress report at COP17 highlighted restoration of how much degraded land during 2011-2020?
a) 15.5 million hectares
b) 18.2 million hectares
c) 21.76 million hectares
d) 26 million hectares
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 21.76 million hectares
106. UKMTO (United Kingdom Maritime Trade Operations) was originally established in Dubai in which year?
a) 1998
b) 2001
c) 2008
d) 2014
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 2001
107. UKMTO’s primary operations were shifted to which location in 2014?
a) London, UK
b) Portsmouth, UK
c) Bahrain
d) Singapore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Portsmouth, UK
108. India’s Information Fusion Centre that cooperates with UKMTO is known as:
a) IFC-IOR
b) NMA
c) MDA-India
d) INS Kattabomman
Show Answer
Correct Answer: a) IFC-IOR
109. The Jojari River is the principal right-bank tributary of which river?
a) Chambal River
b) Luni River
c) Banas River
d) Sabarmati River
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Luni River
110. The Luni River, into which the Jojari flows, originates in which location?
a) Mount Abu
b) Pushkar Valley, Aravalli Range
c) Nag Pahar
d) Sambhar Lake
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Pushkar Valley, Aravalli Range
111. The Luni River ultimately dissipates in which region, reflecting its endorheic drainage?
a) Thar Desert
b) Rann of Kachchh
c) Arabian Sea
d) Gulf of Khambhat
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Rann of Kachchh
112. India’s first non-GMO, high-expansion popcorn maize hybrid seeds, launched in Andhra Pradesh, are named:
a) Pusa Popcorn and Krishi459
b) Krisna459 and Godari234
c) Amber101 and Swarna88
d) Makka202 and Bhoomi77
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Krisna459 and Godari234
113. The nationwide Cloud and AI Skilling Initiative is a partnership between NSDC, Cultus Education, and which company?
a) Google Cloud
b) Microsoft Azure
c) Amazon Web Services (AWS)
d) IBM
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Amazon Web Services (AWS)
114. Under the initiative, how many participants will receive intensive, employment-oriented cloud training through the AWS re/Start programme?
a) 5,000
b) 10,000
c) 15,000
d) 25,000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 10,000
115. INS Sudarshini reached Lisbon, Portugal, as part of which expedition?
a) Sagar Parikrama
b) Lokayan 26
c) Tarini Voyage
d) Sagar Kanya Mission
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Lokayan 26
116. Portugal, the westernmost country of mainland Europe, lies on which peninsula?
a) Balkan Peninsula
b) Iberian Peninsula
c) Scandinavian Peninsula
d) Apennine Peninsula
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Iberian Peninsula
117. South Sudan, where UN peacekeepers were recently attacked, became independent from Sudan in which year?
a) 2005
b) 2008
c) 2011
d) 2013
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 2011
118. The Al Sudd Wetland, located in central South Sudan, is fed primarily by which river?
a) Blue Nile
b) White Nile
c) Nile Proper
d) Atbara River
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) White Nile
119. South Sudan’s highest point, Mount Kinyeti, is located in which mountain range?
a) Nuba Mountains
b) Imatong Mountains
c) Ethiopian Highlands
d) Marrah Mountains
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Imatong Mountains
120. National Space Day is observed every year on which date, commemorating Chandrayaan-3’s Vikram lander touchdown?
a) August 15
b) August 23
c) September 7
d) October 2
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) August 23
121. Sarnath was inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List during which session of the World Heritage Committee?
a) 47th Session, Paris
b) 48th Session, Busan
c) 46th Session, Riyadh
d) 49th Session, Delhi
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 48th Session, Busan
122. With Sarnath’s inscription, how many UNESCO World Heritage properties does India now have?
a) 37
b) 42
c) 45
d) 48
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 45
123. The UNESCO World Heritage Convention was adopted in which year?
a) 1965
b) 1972
c) 1983
d) 1994
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 1972
124. As of July 2026, which country has the highest number of World Heritage properties?
a) China
b) India
c) Italy
d) France
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Italy
125. India’s first four World Heritage inscriptions came in 1983. Which of the following was NOT among them?
a) Agra Fort
b) Taj Mahal
c) Sanchi Stupa
d) Ellora Caves
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Sanchi Stupa
126. Which organisation is India’s nodal agency for World Heritage matters?
a) Ministry of Culture
b) Archaeological Survey of India (ASI)
c) INTACH
d) ICOMOS
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Archaeological Survey of India (ASI)
127. ICOMOS, which evaluates cultural and mixed heritage sites, was established in which year?
a) 1945
b) 1965
c) 1972
d) 1985
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 1965
128. The Gyan Bharatam Mission, launched in 2025, focuses on:
a) Digitising India’s manuscript heritage
b) Documenting monuments and antiquities
c) Repatriating stolen artefacts
d) Adopting heritage sites
Show Answer
Correct Answer: a) Digitising India’s manuscript heritage
129. The Hindu Kush Himalaya (HKH) region is popularly known as the:
a) Roof of the World
b) Third Pole
c) Water Tower of Asia
d) Abode of Snow
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Third Pole
130. The HKH region extends across how many countries?
a) Six
b) Seven
c) Eight
d) Nine
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Eight
131. ICIMOD, a regional intergovernmental knowledge institution for the HKH region, is headquartered in:
a) New Delhi
b) Dhaka
c) Kathmandu
d) Thimphu
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Kathmandu
132. The SECURE Himalaya Project focuses on high-altitude biodiversity conservation and is implemented in collaboration between the Government of India and:
a) UNEP
b) UNDP
c) WWF
d) World Bank
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) UNDP
133. PM SVANidhi scheme is a Central Sector micro-credit scheme launched in which year?
a) 2018
b) 2019
c) 2020
d) 2021
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 2020
134. Which agency serves as the Technical Implementation Agency for PM SVANidhi?
a) NABARD
b) SIDBI
c) NHB
d) RBI
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) SIDBI
135. Under PM SVANidhi, what is the maximum loan amount and tenure under the Third Tranche?
a) ₹15,000 for 12 months
b) ₹25,000 for 18 months
c) ₹50,000 for 36 months
d) ₹40,000 for 24 months
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) ₹50,000 for 36 months
136. PM SVANidhi has been extended up to which year under its restructured phase?
a) 2027
b) 2028
c) 2030
d) 2032
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 2030
137. T.B. Cunha, regarded as the ‘Father of Goan Nationalism,’ founded the Goa Congress Committee in which year?
a) 1918
b) 1928
c) 1938
d) 1946
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 1928
138. Goa Revolution Day is commemorated on which date?
a) 17 December
b) 18 June
c) 19 December
d) 15 August
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 18 June
139. Operation Vijay, which liberated Goa from Portuguese rule, was launched in which year?
a) 1954
b) 1958
c) 1961
d) 1965
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 1961
140. Which Constitutional Amendment Act granted Goa full statehood?
a) 12th Amendment Act, 1962
b) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
c) 56th Amendment Act, 1987
d) 61st Amendment Act, 1989
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 56th Amendment Act, 1987
141. Approximately how long did Portuguese colonial rule last in Goa?
a) 351 years
b) 401 years
c) 451 years
d) 501 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 451 years
142. Which of the following missile systems is EXCLUDED from the recent Transfer of Technology (ToT) to Indian defence industry?
a) ASTRA
b) RUDRAM
c) NAG
d) Agni series
Show Answer
Correct Answer: d) Agni series
143. NAG missile, covered under the recent ToT initiative, is a type of:
a) Anti-radiation missile
b) Anti-tank guided missile (ATGM)
c) Air-to-air missile
d) Air defence system
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Anti-tank guided missile (ATGM)
144. Dak MITRA app has been developed under which platform as part of DoP IT 2.0 Modernization?
a) Digital India Platform
b) Advanced Postal Technology (APT) platform
c) BHASHINI Platform
d) India Post Payments Platform
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Advanced Postal Technology (APT) platform
145. The Dak Sewa app provides citizen access to postal services in how many Indian languages through BHASHINI?
a) 12
b) 18
c) 23
d) 28
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 23
146. The WHO declared Uganda Ebola-free after completion of a mandatory monitoring period of:
a) 21 days
b) 30 days
c) 42 days
d) 60 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 42 days
147. Which lake, forming part of Uganda’s boundary with Kenya and Tanzania, is traditionally regarded as the primary source of the White Nile?
a) Lake Albert
b) Lake Edward
c) Lake Victoria
d) Lake Tanganyika
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Lake Victoria
148. ADxFluor, a smartphone-based Alzheimer’s detection platform, uses which molecule to detect amyloid-β?
a) TZ-24
b) TZ-48
c) AB-52
d) FL-36
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) TZ-48
149. Samarthak, India’s first indigenously designed Multi-Purpose Vessel (MPV), was built by which company?
a) Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders
b) Cochin Shipyard
c) Larsen & Toubro (L&T)
d) Garden Reach Shipbuilders
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Larsen & Toubro (L&T)
150. World Water Week 2026, held in Stockholm, was organised under the theme:
a) Water for Life
b) Water for People and Progress
c) Water Security for All
d) Blue Peace
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Water for People and Progress
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