Practice the June 2026 Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the third week of June 2026.
The Current Affairs Quiz of 15 to 21 June features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.
3rd Week of June 2026: Current Affairs Quiz
1. India’s engagement with the G7 process began in the year:
A) 1998
B) 2000
C) 2003
D) 2005
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2003
2. Which country joined the G6 in 1976 to form the G7?
A) Russia
B) Australia
C) Canada
D) European Union
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Canada
3. Russia’s participation in the G8 was suspended in 2014 following:
A) Its invasion of Ukraine
B) The annexation of Crimea
C) Its withdrawal from the Paris Agreement
D) A trade war with the United States
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) The annexation of Crimea
4. G7 members collectively account for approximately what percentage of globalGDP?
A) 15%
B) 20%
C) 30%
D) 45%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 30%
5. The G7 is described as an ‘informal forum’ primarily because:
A) It meets only once every two years
B) It does not function under a treaty-based structure and its decisions are not legally binding
C) Only heads of state may attend, without officials
D) Membership is open to any country wishing to join
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) It does not function under a treaty-based structure and its decisions are not legally binding
6. India’s geographic position makes it important to the G7 primarily in the context of:
A) Arctic resource exploration
B) Central Asian trade routes
C) Indo-Pacific maritime security and supply-chain resilience
D) Transatlantic investment flows
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Indo-Pacific maritime security and supply-chain resilience
7. The Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) measures the proportion of the working-age population that is:
A) Only currently employed
B) Either employed or actively seeking employment
C) Employed in the formal sector only
D) Registered with a government employment exchange
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Either employed or actively seeking employment
8. India’s Employment Rate declined from approximately 42.7% in 2016–17 to what level in 2025–26?
A) 35.2%
B) 36.9%
C) 38.7%
D) 40.1%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 38.7%
9. Despite a declining Employment Rate, total employment in India increased from nearly 406 million to approximately:
A) 415 million
B) 425 million
C) 438 million
D) 450 million
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 438 million
10. Which age groups recorded slight improvements in Employment Rate, as exceptions to the general declining trend?
A) 15–19 years and 60–64 years
B) 20–24 years and 50–54 years
C) 25–29 years and 55–59 years
D) 30–34 years and 40–44 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 25–29 years and 55–59 years
11. The concept of ‘Jobless Growth’ in the Indian context primarily refers to:
A) Economic expansion driven by capital-intensive sectors generating relatively fewer jobs
B) Growth achieved without any increase in government spending
C) GDP growth recorded only in rural areas without creating urban employment
D) Growth driven entirely by agricultural productivity
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Economic expansion driven by capital-intensive sectors generating relatively fewer jobs
12. Which government scheme provides collateral-free working capital loans specifically to street vendors?
A) PMKVY
B) PM SVANidhi
C) PMMY (Mudra Yojana)
D) DAY-NULM
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) PM SVANidhi
13. The PM Vishwakarma Scheme primarily targets:
A) Urban gig economy workers
B) Traditional artisans and craftspeople
C) Graduates seeking internships in public sector
D) Women entrepreneurs in rural areas
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Traditional artisans and craftspeople
14. RSETIs (Rural Self Employment and Training Institutes) primarily focus on:
A) Providing interest-free loans to farmers
B) Building rural infrastructure under MGNREGA
C) Entrepreneurship development and skill training for self-employment
D) Setting up public digital infrastructure in villages
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Entrepreneurship development and skill training for self employment
15. El Niño is characterised by abnormal warming of sea surface temperatures in which region?
A) North Atlantic Ocean
B) Central and eastern equatorial Pacific Ocean
C) Western Indian Ocean
D) Southern Ocean near Antarctica
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Central and eastern equatorial Pacific Ocean
16. Under normal (non-El Niño) conditions, trade winds across the equatorial Pacific blow in which direction?
A) West to East
B) North to South
C) East to West
D) South to North
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) East to West
17. During El Niño, the ‘upwelling’ of cold, nutrient-rich waters along the South American coast is:
A) Enhanced, bringing more nutrients to the surface
B) Unaffected by trade wind changes
C) Reduced, altering marine ecosystem productivity
D) Reversed, sending warm water toward the ocean floor
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Reduced, altering marine ecosystem productivity
18. El Niño typically occurs every:
A) 1–2 years
B) 2–7 years
C) 10–15 years
D) 20–25 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 2–7 years
19. The El Niño–Southern Oscillation (ENSO) cycle consists of El Niño and its opposite phase, known as:
A) La Mesa
B) La Tierra
C) La Niña
D) La Brisa
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) La Niña
20. Compared to El Niño, La Niña is associated with which of the following effects on the Indian Monsoon?
A) Generally weaker monsoon
B) Generally stronger monsoon
C) No significant impact on monsoon
D) Delayed onset of monsoon by 4–6 weeks
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Generally stronger monsoon
21. Project Kusha is being developed by which Indian defence organisation?
A) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)
B) Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL)
C) Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
D) Tata Advanced Systems Limited
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
22. Project Kusha is classified as which type of weapon system?
A) Anti-ship cruise missile
B) Long-range Surface-to-Air Missile (SAM) system
C) Hypersonic glide vehicle
D) Tactical ballistic missile
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Long-range Surface-to-Air Missile (SAM) system
23. The M3 Interceptor under Project Kusha has an expected interception range of:
A) 150 km
B) 250 km
C) 300 km
D) 350–400 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 350–400 km
24. Project Kusha forms a key component of which broader Indian air defence mission?
A) Mission Aakash Raksha
B) Mission Sudarshan Chakra
C) Mission Trishul Shield
D) Mission Prithvi Guard
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Mission Sudarshan Chakra
25. The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) granted Acceptance of Necessity (AoN) for Project Kusha in 2023, approving procurement of how many squadrons for the Indian Air Force?
A) Three
B) Four
C) Five
D) Six
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Five
26. Varya, India’s indigenous AI video generation model, was developed by:
A) IIT Bombay AI Lab
B) Avataar
C) C-DAC
D) Infosys AI Division
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Avataar
27. Varya was launched under the support of which government mission?
A) Digital India Mission
B) National AI Strategy
C) IndiaAI Mission
D) NASSCOM AI Initiative
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) IndiaAI Mission
28. ‘Model Distillation’, the technique used to enhance Varya’s efficiency, involves:
A) Merging multiple large AI models into one
B) A smaller model learning from the outputs of a larger, more complex AI model
C) Compressing video files using machine learning algorithms
D) Extracting training data from publicly available sources
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) A smaller model learning from the outputs of a larger, more complex AI model
29. The Great Nicobar Island Mega Project’s International Container Transshipment Terminal (ICTT) is proposed to be established at:
A) Campbell Bay
B) Indira Point
C) Galathea Bay
D) Port Blair Outer Harbour
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Galathea Bay
30. Coral reefs support approximately what percentage of all marine species despite occupying a small portion of the ocean floor?
A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 25%
D) 40%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 25%
31. The Supreme Court introduced a new compensation head titled ‘Loss of Domestic Care’ under which legislation?
A) Consumer Protection Act, 2019
B) Motor Vehicles Act, 1988
C) Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
D) Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Motor Vehicles Act, 1988
32. As per the Supreme Court’s guidelines, Motor Accident Claims Tribunals should add how much per month as the notional value of domestic care services for deceased homemakers?
A) ₹15,000
B) ₹20,000
C) ₹25,000
D) ₹30,000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) ₹30,000
33. The notional domestic care value fixed by the Supreme Court is to increasecumulatively by what percentage every three years?
A) 5%
B) 8%
C) 10%
D) 15%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 10%
34. The Supreme Court’s recognition of homemakers as ‘nation builders’ strengthens which constitutional provisions?
A) Articles 19 and 21
B) Articles 14 and 21
C) Articles 32 and 226
D) Articles 38 and 39
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Articles 14 and 21
35. Which judgment first acknowledged the economic significance of a homemaker’s unpaid services while determining compensation?
A) Kirti v. Oriental Insurance Co. (2021)
B) Arun Kumar Agrawal v. National Insurance Co. (2010)
C) Lata Wadhwa v. State of Bihar (2001)
D) National Insurance Co. v. Pranay Sethi (2017)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Lata Wadhwa v. State of Bihar (2001)
36. In Kirti v. Oriental Insurance Co. (2021), the Supreme Court directed courts to:
A) Exclude homemakers from compensation claims entirely
B) Assign a notional income to homemakers while computing compensation
C) Cap homemaker compensation at a fixed lifetime limit
D) Refer all homemaker compensation cases to arbitration
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Assign a notional income to homemakers while computing compensation
37. The judgment’s recognition of unpaid care work aligns with the objectives of which Sustainable Development Goal (SDG)?
A) SDG 1
B) SDG 4
C) SDG 5
D) SDG 8
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) SDG 5
38. ‘Time poverty’, as discussed in the context of homemakers, refers to:
A) Lack of financial resources for daily expenses
B) Insufficient discretionary time due to excessive domestic and caregiving
responsibilities
C) Inadequate access to public transport for working women
D) Shortage of skilled domestic help in urban areas
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Insufficient discretionary time due to excessive domestic and caregiving responsibilities
39. PM Modi and President Macron jointly inaugurated ‘Bharat Innovates 2026’ in:
A) Paris
B) Nice
C) Marseille
D) Lyon
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Nice
40. The High-Level Mechanism established during the visit aims to increase bilateral trade between India and France to:
A) US$20 billion within 5 years
B) US$25 billion within 5 years
C) US$32 billion within 5 years
D) US$40 billion within 5 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) US$32 billion within 5 years
41. ISRO and which French space agency signed a Letter of Intent on space cooperation during the visit?
A) ESA
B) DLR
C) CNES
D) JAXA
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) CNES
42. The National Centre of Excellence for Skilling in Aeronautics, agreed upon during the visit, will be established at:
A) IIT Kanpur
B) National Skill Training Institute Kanpur
C) HAL Bengaluru
D) DRDO Hyderabad
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) National Skill Training Institute Kanpur
43. As part of the visit’s outcomes, UPI acceptance was extended to:
A) London Underground stations
B) Paris Airport and Retail networks in Nice
C) German railway ticketing systems
D) Major hotels across the European Union
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Paris Airport and Retail networks in Nice
44. The India-France Centre of Digital Sciences is being established jointly by India’s DST and which French institution?
A) CNRS
B) INRIA
C) CEA
D) Sorbonne University
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) INRIA
45. The Indore Declaration was adopted at the BRICS Agriculture Ministers’ Meeting held under:
A) China’s BRICS Presidency
B) Brazil’s BRICS Presidency
C) India’s BRICS Presidency 2026
D) Russia’s BRICS Presidency
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) India’s BRICS Presidency 2026
46. BRICS countries collectively account for approximately what share of global foodgrain production?
A) 30%
B) 35%
C) 42%
D) 50%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 42%
47. The BRICS Agricultural Research Platform is proposed to be transformed into a:
A) Global Seed Bank Consortium
B) Knowledge-to-Action (Lab-to-Land) Hub
C) Digital Agri-Trade Exchange
D) Climate Resilience Fund
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Knowledge-to-Action (Lab-to-Land) Hub
48. The BRICS Grain Exchange mechanism, discussed at the Indore Declaration, is intended to:
A) Replace national agricultural subsidies
B) Improve transparency in agricultural trade and strengthen market stability
C) Establish a single common currency for grain trade
D) Eliminate import tariffs among BRICS nations
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Improve transparency in agricultural trade and strengthen market stability
49. BRICS AgriN, a newly launched initiative, focuses on sharing:
A) Defence technology among member states
B) Agricultural inputs, genetic resources, and technical information
C) Digital currency frameworks
D) Healthcare and pharmaceutical research
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Agricultural inputs, genetic resources, and technical information
50. Article 6 of the Paris Agreement primarily establishes mechanisms for:
A) Climate finance disbursement to developing nations
B) International cooperation through carbon markets and emissions trading
C) Setting binding national emission targets
D) Establishing a global carbon tax
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) International cooperation through carbon markets and emissions trading
51. The Article 6.4 mechanism under the Paris Agreement replaced which earlier system used under the Kyoto Protocol?
A) Joint Implementation (JI)
B) Clean Development Mechanism (CDM)
C) Emissions Trading Scheme (ETS)
D) Adaptation Fund Mechanism
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Clean Development Mechanism (CDM)
52. A carbon credit represents one tonne of:
A) Methane equivalent removed from the atmosphere
B) Carbon dioxide equivalent (CO₂e) reduced, avoided, or removed
C) Nitrous oxide captured through industrial filters
D) Sulphur dioxide eliminated from power plant emissions
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Carbon dioxide equivalent (CO₂e) reduced, avoided, or removed
53. The controversial first carbon credit project issued under Article 6.4 was located in which region?
A) Rakhine State, Myanmar
B) Sagaing Region, Myanmar
C) Mandalay Region, Myanmar
D) Shan State, Myanmar
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Sagaing Region, Myanmar
54. ‘Over-crediting’ in carbon markets refers to:
A) Issuing more carbon credits than the actual emissions reductions achieved
B) Allocating credits exclusively to government-owned projects
C) Trading credits below their verified market price
D) Granting credits retroactively for past decades
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Issuing more carbon credits than the actual emissions reductions achieved
55. Corals and giant clams identified for translocation at Great Nicobar Island are protected under which Schedule of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972?
A) Schedule I
B) Schedule II
C) Schedule III
D) Schedule IV
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Schedule I
56. Apart from Great Nicobar, India has previously undertaken coral translocation efforts in which two locations?
A) Gulf of Mannar and Sundarbans
B) Gulf of Kachchh and Lakshadweep
C) Malvan and Chilika Lake
D) Andaman Islands and Goa coast
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Gulf of Kachchh and Lakshadweep
57. India’s cotton output is estimated to have declined to how many bales in 2025 26?
A) 25 million
B) 29 million
C) 33 million
D) 38 million
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 29 million
58. The Mission for Cotton Productivity (2026–31) aims to increase lint productivity from approximately 440 kg/ha to:
A) 600 kg/ha
B) 650 kg/ha
C) 700 kg/ha
D) 755 kg/ha
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 755 kg/ha
59. As per the Container Port Performance Index (CPPI) 2025, which Indian port was India’s highest-performing container port, ranked 22nd globally?
A) Mundra Port
B) Pipavav Port
C) Jawaharlal Nehru Port Authority (JNPA)
D) Chennai Port
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Jawaharlal Nehru Port Authority (JNPA)
60. India is targeting an installed wind energy capacity of 100 GW by 2030. What is India’s current global ranking in installed wind power capacity?
A) 2nd largest
B) 3rd largest
C) 4th largest
D) 5th largest
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 4th largest
61. Indian seafarers constitute approximately what fraction of the world’s merchant shipping workforce?
A) One-tenth
B) One-eighth
C) One-sixth
D) One-fourth
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) One-sixth
62. ‘Flags of Convenience’ (FoC) refers to the practice of:
A) Naval vessels flying dual national flags during joint exercises
B) Registering ships in countries other than the vessel owner’s home country
C) Merchant ships displaying flags of all countries they trade with
D) Temporary flag changes during war-time blockades
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Registering ships in countries other than the vessel owner’s home country
63. UNCLOS, 1982 is often described as the:
A) ‘Charter of Global Trade’
B) ‘Constitution of the Oceans’
C) ‘Treaty of Maritime Peace’
D) ‘Magna Carta of Shipping’
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) ‘Constitution of the Oceans’
64. The International Maritime Organization (IMO) develops global maritime safety standards through conventions such as:
A) MARPOL only
B) Safety of Life at Sea (SOLAS), 1974
C) The Hague-Visby Rules
D) The Hamburg Rules
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Safety of Life at Sea (SOLAS), 1974
65. A key jurisdictional challenge in protecting Indian seafarers arises because:
A) Most Indian seafarers are unregistered with any maritime authority
B) A significant number work aboard foreign-flagged vessels, restricting India’s direct legal authority
C) India lacks any maritime law enforcement agency
D) International waters are governed exclusively by the United Nations Security Counci
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) A significant number work aboard foreign-flagged vessels, restricting India’s direct legal authority
66. The proposed US–Iran peace framework agreement proposes extending the existing ceasefire for an additional:
A) 30 days
B) 45 days
C) 60 days
D) 90 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 60 days
67. The US–Iran framework agreement was facilitated through diplomatic mediation by:
A) Switzerland
B) Qatar
C) Pakistan
D) Oman
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Pakistan
68. The formal signing of the US–Iran framework agreement is scheduled to take place on 19 June in:
A) Geneva, Switzerland
B) Vienna, Austria
C) Doha, Qatar
D) Muscat, Oman
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Geneva, Switzerland
69. The reopening of which strategic maritime corridor is a key feature of the proposed US–Iran agreement?
A) Strait of Malacca
B) Bab-el-Mandeb Strait
C) Strait of Hormuz
D) Bosphorus Strait
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Strait of Hormuz
70. The Allahabad High Court’s concerns over excessive use of preventive detention arose while hearing which case?
A) Rekha v. State of Tamil Nadu
B) Chander Pal Singh Case
C) Dhanya M v. State of Kerala
D) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Chander Pal Singh Case
71. Which Article of the Constitution provides safeguards against arbitrary arrest while also laying down provisions on preventive detention?
A) Article 19
B) Article 21
C) Article 22
D) Article 32
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Article 22
72. Under Article 22(4), preventive detention beyond three months requires review and approval by:
A) The High Court concerned
B) An Advisory Board
C) The President of India
D) A Parliamentary Standing Committee
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) An Advisory Board
73. The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 proposed reducing the period for Advisory Board review of preventive detention from three months to:
A) One month
B) Two months
C) Six weeks
D) Four months
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Two months
74. Preventive detention powers can trace their colonial-era legacy to laws such as Regulation III of 1818 and:
A) The Government of India Act, 1935
B) The Rowlatt Act
C) The Indian Press Act, 1910
D) The Vernacular Press Act, 1878
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) The Rowlatt Act
75. Which case held that if a detention order is based even partly on an irrelevant or invalid ground, the entire order may become unsustainable?
A) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
B) Shibban Lal Saxena v. State of Uttar Pradesh
C) Rekha v. State of Tamil Nadu
D) Dhanya M v. State of Kerala
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Shibban Lal Saxena v. State of Uttar Pradesh
76. Entry 9 of the Union List empowers Parliament to legislate on preventive detention concerning:
A) State security and public order
B) Defence of India, foreign affairs, and national security
C) Essential supplies and services
D) Local self-governance and municipal law
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Defence of India, foreign affairs, and national security
77. Which case clarified that preventive detention is an exceptional measure and should not substitute ordinary criminal law and investigation?
A) Rekha v. State of Tamil Nadu
B) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
C) Shibban Lal Saxena v. State of UP
D) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Rekha v. State of Tamil Nadu
78. The work that India and China are jointly seeking to nominate for UNESCO documentary heritage recognition is:
A) The Travels of Marco Polo
B) The Great Tang Records on the Western Regions (Si-Yu-Ki)
C) The Journey to the West
D) The Diamond Sutra
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) The Great Tang Records on the Western Regions (Si-Yu-Ki)
79. Xuanzang (Hiuen Tsang) travelled across India during the reign of:
A) Chandragupta II
B) Harshavardhana
C) Kanishka
D) Samudragupta
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Harshavardhana
80. Xuanzang studied Buddhist philosophy and scriptures at which renowned institution?
A) Takshashila
B) Vikramashila
C) Nalanda University
D) Vallabhi University
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Nalanda University
81. Xuanzang returned to China after his Indian travels in:
A) 605 CE
B) 625 CE
C) 645 CE
D) 665 CE
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 645 CE
82. Apart from the Xuanzang nomination with China, India is also pursuing a joint UNESCO nomination of the Panchatantra with which country?
A) Afghanistan
B) Iran
C) Sri Lanka
D) Indonesia
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Iran
83. The Global Peace Index (GPI) 2026 is released by:
A) United Nations Development Programme
B) Institute for Economics & Peace
C) Stockholm International Peace Research Institute
D) World Economic Forum
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Institute for Economics & Peace
84. Global peacefulness has deteriorated for how many consecutive years as per the GPI 2026?
A) 8
B) 10
C) 12
D) 15
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 12
85. As per GPI 2026, the number of active state-based conflicts reached 61 in 2024 —the highest level recorded since:
A) The Cold War era
B) World War II
C) The 9/11 attacks
D) The 2008 financial crisis
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) World War II
86. The global economic cost of violence in 2025, as estimated by GPI 2026, amounted to approximately what share of global GDP?
A) 5.2%
B) 7.8%
C) 10.5%
D) 15.3%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 10.5%
87. As per GPI 2026, India’s ranking declined from 115th (2025) to which position?
A) 120th
B) 122nd
C) 127th
D) 133rd
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 127th
88. Which country was ranked as the most peaceful in South Asia, securing 16th position globally in GPI 2026?
A) Nepal
B) Sri Lanka
C) Bhutan
D) Bangladesh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Bhutan
89. The DISHA Scheme, under which Nyaya Prabodh was launched, was introduced in the year:
A) 2019
B) 2020
C) 2021
D) 2022
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2021
90. The Tele-Law component under the DISHA Scheme connects beneficiaries with legal experts using a network of approximately how many Common Service Centres (CSCs)?
A) 1 lakh
B) 1.5 lakh
C) 2 lakh
D) 2.5 lakh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 2.5 lakh
91. The United Kingdom’s announced ban on social media access for children below 16 years is scheduled to come into effect from:
A) 2026
B) 2027
C) 2028
D) 2030
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 2027
92. Under the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023, a ‘child’ is defined as any individual below the age of:
A) 13 years
B) 16 years
C) 18 years
D) 21 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 18 years
93. Under Section 9 of the DPDP Act, 2023, data fiduciaries must obtain which of the following before processing a child’s personal data?
A) Self-declared consent of the child
B) Verifiable parental consent
C) Consent from the local school authority
D) Approval from the Data Protection Board
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Verifiable parental consent
94. Section 9(3) of the DPDP Act, 2023 prohibits which of the following practices targeting children?
A) Educational content recommendations, and targeted advertising directed at minors
B) Behavioural tracking, monitoring, and targeted advertising directed at minors
C) Age verification through Aadhaar, and targeted advertising directed at minors
D) Parental control app installations, and targeted advertising directed at minors
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Behavioural tracking, monitoring, and targeted advertising directed at minors
95. Which state became the first in India to announce restrictions on social media use by children below 16 years?
A) Kerala
B) Tamil Nadu
C) Karnataka
D) Maharashtra
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Karnataka
96. Andhra Pradesh has proposed social media restrictions for children below what age?
A) 10 years
B) 13 years
C) 15 years
D) 16 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 13 years
97. In Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India, the Supreme Court emphasised the importance of internet access in exercising freedoms under:
A) Article 14
B) Article 19(1)(a)
C) Article 21
D) Article 25
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Article 19(1)(a)
98. The PRAGYATA Guidelines, relevant to children’s digital well-being, were issued in:
A) 2018
B) 2019
C) 2020
D) 2021
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2020
99. The Joint Parliamentary Committee on the Personal Data Protection Bill (2021) recommended reclassifying platforms lacking robust age-verification systems as:
A) Significant Data Fiduciaries
B) Accountable Publishers
C) Critical Information Infrastructure
D) Restricted Intermediaries
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Accountable Publishers
100. The India–Japan Joint Crediting Mechanism (JCM) operates under which Article of the Paris Agreement?
A) Article 6.2
B) Article 6.4
C) Article 4.1
D) Article 9.3
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Article 6.2
101. The Joint Crediting Mechanism (JCM) is best described as:
A) A multilateral carbon trading exchange under the UNFCCC
B) A bilateral carbon-crediting framework for greenhouse gas mitigation cooperation
C) A unilateral climate finance fund operated by Japan
D) A WTO-administered carbon tariff mechanism
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) A bilateral carbon-crediting framework for greenhouse gas mitigation cooperation
102. Under the India-Japan JCM, generated carbon credits are:
A) Retained entirely by the investing country
B) Sold exclusively in international carbon markets
C) Shared between India and Japan according to agreed rules
D) Transferred fully to the UNFCCC Secretariat
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Shared between India and Japan according to agreed rules
103. Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) are submitted by countries under which agreement?
A) Kyoto Protocol
B) Paris Agreement
C) Montreal Protocol
D) Copenhagen Accord
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Paris Agreement
104. PM Modi’s visit to Slovakia marked the first-ever visit by an Indian Prime Minister since Slovakia’s independence in:
A) 1989
B) 1991
C) 1993
D) 1995
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1993
105. India and Slovakia agreed to elevate their bilateral relationship to a:
A) Strategic Partnership
B) Comprehensive Partnership
C) Special Relationship
D) Global Strategic Alliance
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Comprehensive Partnership
106. Slovakia conferred which highest civilian award upon PM Modi during his visit?
A) Order of the White Lion
B) Order of the White Double Cross, First Class
C) Grand Cross of Merit
D) Knight’s Cross of the Royal Norwegian Order
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Order of the White Double Cross, First Class
107. Slovakia’s independence from Czechoslovakia in 1993, achieved through peaceful dissolution, is commonly known as:
A) The Silent Split
B) The Velvet Divorce
C) The Prague Separation
D) The Danube Accord
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) The Velvet Divorce
108. Slovakia is often referred to as the ‘Detroit of Europe’ due to its:
A) Strong steel manufacturing industry
B) Highly developed automobile manufacturing sector
C) Advanced semiconductor production
D) Leading aerospace engineering sector
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Highly developed automobile manufacturing sector
109. Bratislava, the capital of Slovakia, is situated along the banks of which river?
A) Rhine River
B) Elbe River
C) Vistula River
D) Danube River
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Danube River
110. Which of the following countries does NOT share a border with Slovakia?
A) Austria
B) Poland
C) Germany
D) Hungary
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Germany
111. The Long-Range Land Attack Cruise Missile (LRLACM) was tested by DRDO from:
A) Chandipur Test Range
B) Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam Island
C) Pokhran Test Range
D) Sriharikota Range
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam Island
112. LRLACM is often compared with which US cruise missile due to its long-range precision-strike capability?
A) Patriot Missile
B) Trident Missile
C) Tomahawk Missile
D) Minuteman Missile
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Tomahawk Missile
113. LRLACM is capable of striking targets at distances exceeding:
A) 500 km
B) 750 km
C) 1,000 km
D) 1,500 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1,000 km
114. LRLACM operates at approximately what cruise speed?
A) Mach 0.8 (subsonic)
B) Mach 1.5 (supersonic)
C) Mach 3 (hypersonic)
D) Mach 5 (hypersonic)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Mach 0.8 (subsonic)
115. LRLACM’s indigenous propulsion system is powered by the:
A) Kaveri Turbofan Engine
B) Manik Small Turbofan Engine
C) Agni Propulsion Module
D) Brahmos Ramjet Engine
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Manik Small Turbofan Engine
116. LRLACM is the direct successor to which earlier Indian cruise missile programme?
A) BrahMos
B) Akash
C) Nirbhay
D) Prithvi
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Nirbhay
117. The ‘Namo Cities’ initiative envisions four greenfield urban centres, with one city each planned in the NCR portions of Delhi, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, and:
A) Punjab
B) Rajasthan
C) Madhya Pradesh
D) Himachal Pradesh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Rajasthan
118. Transit-Oriented Development (TOD), the planning model behind Namo Cities, is best defined as:
A) Urban planning focused exclusively on highway expansion
B) An urban planning strategy integrating land use with public transportation systems
C) A method to restrict urban growth around city centres
D) A model promoting suburban low-density housing
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) An urban planning strategy integrating land use with public transportation systems
119. The Miyazaki Mango, popularly known as the ‘Egg of the Sun’, originates from:
A) Okinawa Prefecture, Japan
B) Miyazaki Prefecture, Japan
C) Kyoto Prefecture, Japan
D) Hokkaido Prefecture, Japan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Miyazaki Prefecture, Japan
120. World Day to Combat Desertification and Drought is observed every year on:
A) 5 June
B) 17 June
C) 22 June
D) 5 December
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 17 June
121. Recent remarks challenging the perception that welfare programmes discourage work were made by Nobel laureate economist:
A) Amartya Sen
B) Abhijit Banerjee
C) Raghuram Rajan
D) Esther Duflo
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Abhijit Banerjee
122. A meta-analysis covering 140 research studies on welfare benefits found:
A) Strong evidence of reduced labour participation
B) Little evidence that welfare benefits reduce labour participation
C) No measurable effect of welfare on any economic indicator
D) Welfare benefits significantly increased unemployment
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Little evidence that welfare benefits reduce labour participation
123. The West Bengal Asset Transfer Study, which demonstrated sustained income growth among the poorest households, was conducted in:
A) 1987
B) 1997
C) 2007
D) 2017
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 1997
124. Generation Z generally refers to individuals born between:
A) 1981–1996
B) 1990–2005
C) 1997–2012
D) 2000–2015
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1997–2012
125. ‘Procedural justice’, discussed in the context of governance trust, refers to:
A) Speedy delivery of court judgments
B) Fairness, transparency, and impartiality in decision-making processes
C) Strict enforcement of criminal procedure codes
D) Equal distribution of government welfare benefits
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Fairness, transparency, and impartiality in decision-making processes
126. The 10th India–Thailand Defence Dialogue was held in:
A) New Delhi
B) Chiang Mai
C) Bangkok
D) Phuket
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Bangkok
127. India–Thailand bilateral ties were elevated to a Strategic Partnership in:
A) 2022
B) 2023
C) 2024
D) 2025
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 2025
128. The MAITREE exercise between India and Thailand is a bilateral exercise of which armed force?
A) Navy
B) Army
C) Air Force
D) Coast Guard
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Army
129. SIAM BHARAT is a bilateral exercise between India and Thailand involving which service?
A) Army
B) Navy
C) Air Force
D) Marine Commandos
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Air Force
130. The India–Myanmar–Thailand Trilateral Highway primarily aims to:
A) Connect India’s Northeast directly to China
B) Establish seamless overland connectivity between South and Southeast Asia
C) Bypass ASEAN trade regulations
D) Replace maritime trade routes in the Bay of Bengal
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Establish seamless overland connectivity between South and Southeast Asia
131. The 52nd G7 Summit was held in:
A) Hiroshima, Japan
B) Apulia, Italy
C) Évian-les-Bains, France
D) Kananaskis, Canada
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Évian-les-Bains, France
132. PM Modi’s participation in the 52nd G7 Summit marked India’s how many consecutive invitation to the summit?
A) Fifth
B) Sixth
C) Seventh
D) Eighth
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Seventh
133. The United States will host the 53rd G7 Summit in:
A) 2026
B) 2027
C) 2028
D) 2029
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 2027
134. At the 52nd G7 Summit, the ‘Call on a Safer Digital Space for Minors’ specifically addressed protection against:
A) Cyberbullying only
B) AI-generated deepfakes and algorithm-driven harms
C) Online gambling among teenagers
D) Excessive screen time in schools
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) AI-generated deepfakes and algorithm-driven harms
135. The coordinated international response called for at the 52nd G7 Summit addressed the Bundibugyo Ebola outbreak affecting Uganda and:
A) Kenya
B) Democratic Republic of the Congo
C) Tanzania
D) South Sudan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Democratic Republic of the Congo
136. India restored approximately how many million hectares of degraded land between 2011 and 2020, as per the MoEFCC-IUCN report?
A) 15.4 million hectares
B) 18.9 million hectares
C) 21.76 million hectares
D) 26.3 million hectares
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 21.76 million hectares
137. The Bonn Challenge, a global land restoration initiative, was launched in 2011 jointly by IUCN and:
A) France
B) Germany
C) United Kingdom
D) Brazil
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Germany
138. At UNCCD COP-14 (2019), India increased its land restoration commitment from 21 million hectares to:
A) 24 million hectares by 2030
B) 26 million hectares by 2030
C) 30 million hectares by 2030
D) 35 million hectares by 2030
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 26 million hectares by 2030
139. As per the report, approximately what percentage of India’s total geographical area remains affected by land degradation and desertification?
A) 18.5%
B) 22.3%
C) 29.77%
D) 35.4%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 29.77%
140. The Dancing Girl figurine was discovered in 1926 at:
A) Harappa
B) Lothal
C) Mohenjo-daro
D) Dholavira
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Mohenjo-daro
141. The Dancing Girl figurine was produced using which metal-casting technique?
A) Sand casting
B) Investment casting
C) Lost-wax (cire perdue) casting
D) Die casting
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Lost-wax (cire perdue) casting
142. The Dancing Girl figurine is portrayed in which characteristic posture, meaning ‘three bends’?
A) Abhanga
B) Tribhanga
C) Samabhanga
D) Atibhanga
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Tribhanga
143. State Development Loans (SDLs) are issued and auctioned by the RBI through which electronic platform?
A) NDS-OM
B) e-Kuber
C) CCIL
D) NEFT Gateway
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) e-Kuber
144. State borrowing powers in India are governed by which Article of the
Constitution?
A) Article 280
B) Article 282
C) Article 293
D) Article 304
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Article 293
145. The Anti-Defection Law (Tenth Schedule) was introduced through which Constitutional Amendment?
A) 44th Amendment, 1978
B) 52nd Amendment, 1985
C) 61st Amendment, 1989
D) 91st Amendment, 2003
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 52nd Amendment, 1985
146. Under the Tenth Schedule’s merger exception, protection from disqualification requires agreement from at least what fraction of a legislative party’s members?
A) One-half
B) Three-fifths
C) Two-thirds
D) Three-fourths
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Two-thirds
147. In Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu (1992), the Supreme Court held that decisions of the Presiding Officer on disqualification are:
A) Final and not subject to any review
B) Subject to judicial review
C) Binding only on Rajya Sabha matters
D) Reviewable only by a Constitution Bench
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Subject to judicial review
148. Observations from the Alpha Particle X-ray Spectrometer (APXS) aboard the Pragyan Rover found lunar soil at Shiv Shakti Point chemically similar to which lunar meteorite?
A) Apollo 11 sample
B) Luna 24 sample
C) ALHA 81005
D) NWA 11789
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ALHA 81005
149. ALHA 81005, discovered in Antarctica in 1982, holds historical significance as:
A) The largest meteorite ever recovered from Antarctica
B) The first meteorite conclusively identified as originating from the Moon
C) The first meteorite to contain organic compounds
D) The first meteorite traced to Mars
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) The first meteorite conclusively identified as originating from the Moon
150. The Kishau Multi-Purpose Dam Project is being developed on the Tons River, which is the largest tributary of which river?
A) Ganga River
B) Yamuna River
C) Ghaghara River
D) Beas River
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Yamuna River
151. The Central Government’s power to block public access to online information is granted under which Section of the IT Act, 2000?
A) Section 66A
B) Section 69A
C) Section 79
D) Section 87
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Section 69A
152. Under emergency blocking provisions, immediate blocking orders without a prior hearing can be directed by:
A) The Prime Minister’s Office
B) The Secretary, MeitY
C) The Cabinet Committee on Security
D) A District Magistrate
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) The Secretary, MeitY
153. The Sahyog Portal, used for digital content-removal requests, was developed by which Ministry?
A) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
B) Ministry of Home Affairs
C) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
D) Ministry of Law and Justice
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Ministry of Home Affairs
154. ‘Safe Harbour’ protection for intermediaries is provided under which Section of the IT Act?
A) Section 66
B) Section 69
C) Section 79
D) Section 84
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Section 79
155. Under Section 79(3)(b), platforms are generally required to act on a lawful takedown notice within:
A) 24 hours
B) 36 hours
C) 48 hours
D) 72 hours
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 36 hours
156. In Shreya Singhal v. Union of India (2015), the Supreme Court struck down which provision of the IT Act as unconstitutional?
A) Section 69A
B) Section 66A
C) Section 79
D) Section 43A
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Section 66A
157. The First Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951 was given assent by President:
A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
C) Dr. Zakir Husain
D) V.V. Giri
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
158. . Which Article was amended by the First Amendment to add ‘public order’ and ‘friendly relations with foreign States’ as grounds for restricting free speech?
A) Article 14
B) Article 19(2)
C) Article 21
D) Article 32
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Article 19(2)
159. The First Amendment inserted Article 15(4) to provide constitutional backing for:
A) Right to Education
B) Special provisions for socially and educationally backward classes, SCs and STs
C) Abolition of untouchability
D) Protection of minority language rights
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Special provisions for socially and educationally backward classes, SCs and STs
160. Which Articles, inserted by the First Amendment, protected land reform legislation from challenges under Fundamental Rights?
A) Articles 29 and 30
B) Articles 31A and 31B
C) Articles 32 and 33
D) Articles 39A and 39B
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Articles 31A and 31B
161. The Ninth Schedule, created by the First Constitutional Amendment, was originally intended to:
A) List languages recognised under the Constitution
B) Protect socio-economic reform laws, particularly land reforms, from judicial review
C) Enumerate Union and State subjects
D) Define emergency powers of the President
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Protect socio-economic reform laws, particularly land reforms, from judicial review
162. Which landmark case held that Ninth Schedule laws enacted after 24 April 1973 are subject to judicial review if they violate the Basic Structure?
A) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
B) I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu
C) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
D) Indra Sawhney v. Union of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu
163. The Basic Structure Doctrine, which limits Parliament’s amending power, was established in which case?
A) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
B) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
C) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
D) S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
164. The amendment to Article 19(6) made by the First Amendment primarily facilitated:
A) Reservation in private educational institutions
B) State monopolies and nationalisation measures in trade and business
C) Restrictions on freedom of assembly
D) Press censorship during emergencies
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) State monopolies and nationalisation measures in trade and business
165. The Bonn Climate Change Conference (SB64) serves as a preparatory platform ahead of the annual:
A) G20 Summit
B) Conference of Parties (COP)
C) World Economic Forum
D) UN General Assembly
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Conference of Parties (COP)
166. The UNFCCC, the foundational treaty governing global climate action, was adopted during the Rio Earth Summit in:
A) 1987
B) 1992
C) 1997
D) 2002
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 1992
167. At SB64, the COP31 Presidency of which country unveiled a new climate action agenda with targets extending to 2035?
A) Brazil
B) Azerbaijan
C) Türkiye
D) United Arab Emirates
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Türkiye
168. As per the ‘Indicators of Global Climate Change 2025’ report, which indicator was identified as the fastest-worsening, recording a 61% increase?
A) Sea-level rise
B) Arctic ice melt
C) Marine heatwaves
D) Ocean acidification
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Marine heatwaves
169. As per NISE’s nationwide assessment, India’s reservoirs possess the potential to support approximately how much floating solar power capacity?
A) 75.4 GW
B) 88.6 GW
C) 102.18 GW
D) 120.5 GW
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 102.18 GW
170. The National Institute of Solar Energy (NISE) functions under which Ministry?
A) Ministry of Power
B) Ministry of Science and Technology
C) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
D) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
✔ Answer: C) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
171. India’s largest floating solar project, located in Madhya Pradesh with a 600 MW capacity, is the:
A) Ramagundam Floating Solar Plant
B) Omkareshwar Floating Solar Project
C) Kayamkulam Floating Solar Plant
D) Rajghat Floating Solar Project
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Omkareshwar Floating Solar Project
172. India’s first large-scale operational floating solar project, located in Telangana, is the:
A) Omkareshwar Floating Solar Project
B) Ramagundam Floating Solar Plant
C) Neyveli Floating Solar Project
D) Kawas Floating Solar Plant
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Ramagundam Floating Solar Plant
173. Helium-3, unlike the more common Helium-4, contains:
A) 2 protons and 2 neutrons
B) 1 proton and 2 neutrons
C) 2 protons and 1 neutron
D) 1 proton and 1 neutron
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2 protons and 1 neutron
174. On the Moon, Helium-3 has accumulated in the lunar regolith primarily due to:
A) Volcanic outgassing from the lunar mantle
B) Implantation of solar wind particles over billions of years
C) Meteorite impacts depositing helium-rich material
D) Radioactive decay of lunar minerals
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Implantation of solar wind particles over billions of years
175. Helium-3 is considered a promising future fuel for which energy technology, owing to producing fewer radioactive by-products?
A) Nuclear fission reactors
B) Nuclear fusion reactors
C) Hydrogen fuel cells
D) Solid-state batteries
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Nuclear fusion reactors
176. In the QS World University Rankings 2027, which university retained the top global position for the 15th consecutive year?
A) Stanford University
B) Imperial College London
C) Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT)
D) University of Oxford
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT)
177. India’s highest-ranked institution in QS World University Rankings 2027, improving to 118th position, was:
A) IIT Bombay
B) IIT Delhi
C) Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru
D) IIT Madras
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) IIT Delhi
178. India’s representation in QS rankings increased by what percentage over the last decade, the fastest growth rate among G20 nations?
A) 150%
B) 200%
C) 271%
D) 320%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 271%
179. RELOS, India’s reciprocal defence logistics agreement operationalised with Russia, was originally signed in:
A) December 2024
B) February 2025
C) June 2025
D) October 2025
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) February 2025
180. The Kazan Declaration 2026, adopted by ASEAN and Russia, commemorates how many years of ASEAN–Russia relations?
A) 25 years
B) 30 years
C) 35 years
D) 40 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 35 years
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