Practice the June 2026 Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the second week of June 2026.
The Current Affairs Quiz of 8 to 14 June features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.
2nd Week of June 2026: Current Affairs Quiz
1. The University of Liverpool has received approval to establish a branch campus in India under which UGC Regulations?
A) UGC (Foreign Collaboration) Regulations, 2018
B) UGC (Setting Up and Operation of Campuses of Foreign Higher Educational Institutions in India) Regulations, 2023
C) UGC (Academic Partnerships) Regulations, 2021
D) UGC (International Research Collaboration) Regulations, 2020
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) UGC (Setting Up and Operation of Campuses of Foreign Higher Educational Institutions in India) Regulations, 2023
2. The University of Liverpool’s approved campus in India will be located in:
A) Mumbai
B) Hyderabad
C) Bengaluru
D) GIFT City, Gujarat
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Bengaluru
3. Which of the following foreign universities became operational in India in 2024?
A) University of Southampton
B) University of Liverpool
C) Deakin University
D) University of Manchester
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Deakin University
4. More than how many Indian students currently pursue higher education abroad, making India one of the largest sources of international students globally?
A) 5 lakh
B) 8 lakh
C) 13 lakh
D) 20 lakh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 13 lakh
5. Which scheme invites distinguished international faculty to teach and collaborate with Indian institutions?
A) Study in India (SII) Programme
B) SPARC Scheme
C) Global Initiative of Academic Networks (GIAN)
D) IMPRINT India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Global Initiative of Academic Networks (GIAN)
6. The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) kept the policy repo rate unchanged at:
A) 5.00%
B) 5.25%
C) 5.50%
D) 6.00%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 5.25%
7. What is the current rate of the Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) as per the latest MPC decision?
A) 5.00%
B) 5.25%
C) 5.50%
D) 5.75%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 5.50%
8. The MPC revised India’s real GDP growth projection for FY 2026–27 to:
A) 6.3%
B) 6.6%
C) 6.9%
D) 7.1%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 6.6%
9. CPI-based inflation is projected at what percentage for FY 2026–27 as per the latest MPC forecast?
A) 4.2%
B) 4.6%
C) 5.1%
D) 5.9%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 5.1%
10. The Monetary Policy Committee was constituted under which Act?
A) Banking Regulation Act, 1949
B) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
C) Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999
D) Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
11. Under the Flexible Inflation Targeting Framework adopted in 2016, what is the CPI inflation target with its tolerance band?
A) 3% ± 1%
B) 4% ± 2%
C) 5% ± 1%
D) 4% ± 1%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 4% ± 2%
12. In case of a tie in MPC voting, who exercises the casting vote?
A) Deputy Governor in charge of monetary policy
B) Finance Secretary
C) RBI Governor
D) The government-nominated member with seniority
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) RBI Governor
13. Which of the following is NOT a monetary policy instrument of the RBI?
A) Cash Reserve Ratio
B) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
C) Fiscal Deficit Ratio
D) Market Stabilisation Scheme
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Fiscal Deficit Ratio
14. India’s GDP growth rate for FY 2025–26 (Provisional Estimates) was recorded at:
A) 7.1%
B) 7.4%
C) 7.6%
D) 7.7%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 7.7%
15. Which sector recorded the highest growth of 10.7% in FY 2025–26?
A) Agriculture
B) Manufacturing
C) Financial Services
D) Construction
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Manufacturing
16. Private Final Consumption Expenditure (PFCE) growth in FY 2025–26 was:
A) 6.5%
B) 7.0%
C) 7.7%
D) 8.2%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 7.7%
17. Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) expanded by what percentage in FY 2025 26?
A) 6.5%
B) 7.5%
C) 8.2%
D) 9.0%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 8.2%
18. GDP estimates are compiled and released by which body in India?
A) Reserve Bank of India
B) NITI Aayog
C) National Statistical Office (NSO) under MoSPI
D) Finance Ministry’s Economic Division
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) National Statistical Office (NSO) under MoSPI
19. India’s current GDP series uses which year as the base year?
A) 2011–12
B) 2017–18
C) 2020–21
D) 2022–23
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 2022–23
20. Which GDP calculation method measures economic output by aggregating incomes earned by factors of production such as wages, profits, rent, and interest?
A) Expenditure Approach
B) Income Approach
C) Production (Value-Added) Approach
D) Purchasing Power Parity Approach
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Income Approach
21. The exemption from capital gains tax on government bond investments for foreign investors is effective from:
A) 1 January 2026
B) 1 April 2026
C) 1 July 2026
D) 1 October 2026
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 1 April 2026
22. Under the new tax framework, Long-Term Capital Gains (LTCG) tax at what rate has been exempted for foreign investors on government securities held for more than 12 months?
A) 10%
B) 12.5%
C) 20%
D) 30%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 12.5%
23. Short-Term Capital Gains (STCG) tax at what rate has been exempted for foreigninvestors on government securities held for 12 months or less?
A) 15%
B) 20%
C) 25%
D) 30%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 30%
24. Which of the following is NOT listed among eligible beneficiaries of the new tax exemption on government bond investments?
A) Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs)
B) Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs)
C) Bank for International Settlements (BIS)
D) Non-Resident Indians (NRIs)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Non-Resident Indians (NRIs)
25. Tax deducted at source before income is paid to a non-resident investor is called:
A) Short-Term Capital Gains Tax
B) Advance Tax
C) Withholding Tax
D) Securities Transaction Tax
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Withholding Tax
26. Surha Tal (Jai Prakash Narayan Bird Sanctuary) has been designated as India’s __ Ramsar Site.
A) 75th
B) 85th
C) 99th
D) 100th
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 100th
27. Surha Tal is located in which district of Uttar Pradesh?
A) Varanasi
B) Ballia
C) Gorakhpur
D) Prayagraj
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Ballia
28. Surha Tal is a natural perennial oxbow lake formed due to:
A) Glacial retreat in the Himalayan foothills
B) Artificial damming of the Ghaghara River
C) The changing course of the Ganga River
D) Seasonal flooding of the Yamuna River
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) The changing course of the Ganga River
29. The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands was signed in the year:
A) 1961
B) 1971
C) 1975
D) 1982
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 1971
30. India became a contracting party to the Ramsar Convention on:
A) 1 January 1975
B) 5 June 1981
C) 1 February 1982
D) 26 January 1985
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1 February 1982
31. Venezuela possesses the world’s largest proven crude oil reserves, estimated at approximately:
A) 150 billion barrels
B) 200 billion barrels
C) 303 billion barrels
D) 450 billion barrels
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 303 billion barrels
32. India’s bilateral trade with Venezuela reached approximately how much in FY 2025–26?
A) USD 200 million
B) USD 450 million
C) USD 678.94 million
D) USD 1.2 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) USD 678.94 million
33. Which Indian company holds a 40% stake in Venezuela’s San Cristóbal Oil Field?
A) Indian Oil Corporation (IOC)
B) ONGC Videsh
C) Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL)
D) Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) ONGC Videsh
34. Venezuelan crude is characterised as:
A) Light and low-sulphur
B) Ultra-light and sweet
C) Heavy and sulphur-rich
D) Medium and sulphur-free
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Heavy and sulphur-rich
35. India’s refinery complex at Jamnagar, well-suited to process Venezuelan crude, belongs to:
A) Indian Oil Corporation
B) ONGC Videsh
C) Reliance Industries
D) Bharat Petroleum Corporation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Reliance Industries
36. The President of India can promulgate an Ordinance under which Article of the Constitution?
A) Article 78
B) Article 110
C) Article 123
D) Article 143
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Article 123
37. The Governor of a State can promulgate an Ordinance under which Article?
A) Article 200
B) Article 208
C) Article 213
D) Article 356
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Article 213
38. An Ordinance promulgated by the President ceases to operate if not approved by Parliament within how many weeks of Parliament reassembling?
A) Two weeks
B) Four weeks
C) Six weeks
D) Eight weeks
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Six weeks
39. In which landmark case did the Supreme Court hold that repeated re-promulgation of Ordinances amounts to a ‘fraud on the Constitution’?
A) A.K. Roy v. Union of India (1982)
B) D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar (1986)
C) Krishna Kumar Singh v. State of Bihar (2017)
D) S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar (1986)
40. In Krishna Kumar Singh v. State of Bihar (2017), how many judges formed the Constitution Bench?
A) Five
B) Six
C) Seven
D) Nine
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Seven
41. In A.K. Roy v. Union of India (1982), the Supreme Court clarified that Ordinances are:
A) Immune from judicial review as they are executive acts
B) Subject to judicial scrutiny and can be reviewed for bad faith or lack of genuine necessity
C) Permanent laws until repealed by Parliament
D) Only valid if ratified by both Houses of Parliament within 30 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Subject to judicial scrutiny and can be reviewed for bad faith or lack of genuine necessity
42. The recent Ordinance that reignited debate over executive overreach was related to:
A) The Citizenship Amendment Act
B) The Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Ordinance, 2026
C) The Foreign Contribution Regulation Amendment Ordinance, 2026
D) The Parliamentary Proceedings (Amendment) Ordinance, 2026
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) The Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Ordinance, 2026
43. Government Securities (G-Secs) are tradable debt instruments issued by:
A) Reserve Bank of India only
B) Central and State Governments
C) SEBI-registered entities
D) Public Sector Undertakings
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Central and State Governments
44. The Fully Accessible Route (FAR) allows foreign investors to invest in specified Government Securities with:
A) A 6% ceiling on Central Government Securities
B) A 2% ceiling on State Development Loans
C) No investment caps on eligible securities
D) A 10% ceiling on total outstanding stock
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) No investment caps on eligible securities
45. Under recent G-Sec reforms, the FAR has been expanded to include Government Securities of which maturities?
A) 5-year, 10-year, and 20-year
B) 10-year, 20-year, and 30-year
C) 15-year, 30-year, and 40-year
D) 20-year, 30-year, and 50-year
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 15-year, 30-year, and 40-year
46. Under the General Route for foreign investment in G-Secs, the overall investment ceiling for Central Government Securities is:
A) 2% of outstanding stock
B) 4% of outstanding stock
C) 6% of outstanding stock
D) 10% of outstanding stock
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 6% of outstanding stock
47. The overall investment ceiling for State Government Securities (SDLs) under the General Route is:
A) 1% of outstanding stock
B) 2% of outstanding stock
C) 4% of outstanding stock
D) 5% of outstanding stock
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 2% of outstanding stock
48. Which of the following limits has NOT been eliminated under the liberalisation of the General Route for G-Sec investment?
A) Short-term investment limits
B) Concentration limits
C) Security-wise investment limits
D) Overall investment ceilings
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Overall investment ceilings
49. Inclusion of Sovereign Green Bonds under the FAR is primarily expected to:
A) Reduce government borrowing costs immediately
B) Encourage greater international participation in India’s sustainability initiatives
C) Replace conventional bonds in the G-Sec market
D) Restrict investment only to ESG-focused funds
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Encourage greater international participation in India’s sustainability initiatives
50. India’s first quantum-safe cryptographic algorithm to receive C-SAFE recognition is:
A) Qrypt-I
B) Ci2
C) IndiCrypt-1
D) BharatSecure-Q
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Ci2
51. The Ci2 algorithm was developed by:
A) IIT Delhi
B) C-DAC
C) Fortytwo Labs
D) DRDO Cyber Wing
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Fortytwo Labs
52. C-SAFE certification was awarded by:
A) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
B) CERT-In
C) Data Security Council of India (DSCI)
D) National Cyber Security Coordinator
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Data Security Council of India (DSCI)
53. C-SAFE stands for:
A) Cyber Security Assessment and Functional Evaluation
B) Cryptographic Security Assessment and Functional Evaluation
C) Critical System Authentication and Framework Evaluation
D) Certified Security Algorithm for Functional Encryption
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Cryptographic Security Assessment and Functional Evaluation
54. Quantum-safe cryptography is primarily needed because:
A) Existing algorithms consume too much computing power
B) Quantum computers could potentially break conventional encryption systems
C) Current encryption methods are too expensive for governments
D) International standards mandate quantum-resistant protocols by 2026
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Quantum computers could potentially break conventional encryption systems
55. The Data Security Council of India (DSCI) was founded by:
A) Ministry of Electronics and IT
B) Reserve Bank of India
C) NASSCOM
D) SEBI
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) NASSCOM
56. Which of the following is NOT listed as a key application area of C-SAFE certification?
A) Banking and financial systems
B) Digital identity infrastructure
C) Space-based communications satellite systems
D) Critical information infrastructure
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Space-based communications satellite systems
57. The Dalai Lama won the 2026 Grammy Award in which category?
A) Best Inspirational Album
B) Best Spoken Word Album
C) Best Audiobook, Narration, and Storytelling Recording
D) Best World Music Album
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Best Audiobook, Narration, and Storytelling Recording
58. The Grammy Awards are presented annually by:
A) Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Sciences
B) Recording Academy
C) Billboard Music Institute
D) American Music Association
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Recording Academy
59. The current and 14th Dalai Lama’s personal name is:
A) Lobsang Gyatso
B) Ngawang Lobsang
C) Tenzin Gyatso
D) Jetsun Jamphel
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Tenzin Gyatso
60. The Dalai Lama is the spiritual head of which school of Tibetan Buddhism?
A) Kagyu School
B) Nyingma School
C) Sakya School
D) Gelug School
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Gelug School
61. The Supreme Court’s Draft Regulations for Use of Artificial Intelligence in Courts, 2026 is chaired by:
A) Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
B) Justice B.R. Gavai
C) Justice P.S. Narasimha
D) Justice Sanjiv Khanna
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Justice P.S. Narasimha
62. Under the Draft AI Regulations 2026, which of the following is explicitly PROHIBITED?
A) AI-assisted legal research
B) AI-assisted sentencing
C) AI-based case-law retrieval
D) AI-assisted translation of court documents
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) AI-assisted sentencing
63. The Draft AI Regulations bar the use of AI for ‘predicting recidivism’. What does recidivism mean?
A) Likelihood of a witness turning hostile
B) The tendency of a convicted person to reoffend
C) The probability of bail being granted
D) A defendant’s flight risk from jurisdiction
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) The tendency of a convicted person to reoffend
64. Which legislation must all AI deployment in courts comply with under the Draft Regulations?
A) Information Technology Act, 2000
B) Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023
C) Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery) Act, 2016
D) National Cyber Security Policy, 2013
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023
65. The proposed Apex Supervisory Body overseeing AI in courts shall be chaired by:
A) The Chief Justice of India
B) A Supreme Court judge designated ex-officio
C) The Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government
D) The Secretary, Ministry of Law and Justice
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) A Supreme Court judge designated ex-officio
66. Which of the following is listed as a PERMITTED use of AI under the Draft Regulations?
A) Determining bail eligibility
B) Profiling litigants based on case history
C) Summarisation of pleadings and record management
D) Autonomous determination of sentencing guidelines
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Summarisation of pleadings and record management
67. The Three-Language Formula (TLF) was originally conceptualised by which body?
A) University Grants Commission
B) Radhakrishnan Commission
C) Central Advisory Board of Education (1956)
D) Kothari Commission
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Central Advisory Board of Education (1956)
68. Under the Three-Language Formula in Hindi-speaking states, the third language is ideally:
A) Sanskrit or Urdu
B) A modern Indian language, preferably a Southern language
C) A classical language such as Tamil or Telugu
D) English
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) A modern Indian language, preferably a Southern language
69. The National Education Policy 2020 mandates that under the Three-Language Formula, at least how many of the three languages must be Indian languages?
A) One
B) Two
C) All three
D) No mandatory requirement
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Two
70. Which Article of the Constitution directs promotion of Hindi as a link language?
A) Article 29
B) Article 344
C) Article 350A
D) Article 351
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Article 351
71. Article 350B of the Constitution provides for:
A) Recognition of Scheduled Languages in the Eighth Schedule
B) Mother-tongue education at the primary level
C) A Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
D) Promotion of Sanskrit as a classical language
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) A Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
72. India’s rank in the World Bank Doing Business Report improved from 142 in 2014 to which position in 2019?
A) 50th
B) 63rd
C) 77th
D) 100th
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 63rd
73. SPICe+ stands for:
A) Simplified Process for Incorporating Companies Effectively Plus
B) Simplified Proforma for Incorporating Company Electronically Plus
C) Structured Platform for Integrated Company Entry Plus
D) Single-Platform Interface for Company Entry Plus
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Simplified Proforma for Incorporating Company Electronically Plus
74. ULPIN, introduced under land reforms, stands for:
A) Uniform Land Plot Identification Network
B) Unified Land Parcel Information Number
C) Unique Land Parcel Identification Number
D) Universal Land Property Index Number
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Unique Land Parcel Identification Number
75. TReDS, which helps MSMEs access working capital, stands for:
A) Trade Receivables Discounting System
B) Trade Registration and Equity Discounting Scheme
C) Transparent Receivables and Enterprise Discounting System
D) Treasury Receivables Digital System
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Trade Receivables Discounting System
76. The Jan Vishwas Act primarily contributed to Ease of Doing Business by:
A) Reducing corporate tax rates for MSMEs
B) Decriminalising several minor regulatory offences
C) Allowing automatic FDI approval in all sectors
D) Establishing a single national business registry
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Decriminalising several minor regulatory offences
77. E85 fuel is a blend containing approximately what percentage of anhydrous ethanol?
A) 20–25%
B) 40–50%
C) 60–70%
D) 80–85%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 80–85%
78. The Research Octane Number (RON) of ethanol ranges between:
A) 80–85
B) 87–92
C) 95–100
D) 105–108
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 105–108
79. E85 fuel can reduce lifecycle greenhouse gas emissions by up to:
A) 20%
B) 40%
C) 61%
D) 80%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 61%
80. A major limitation of E85 fuel is that vehicles running on it experience a fuel efficiency reduction of approximately:
A) 5–10%
B) 15–25%
C) 30–40%
D) 50%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 15–25%
81. FCNR(B) stands for:
A) Foreign Currency Non-Resident (Bank) Deposit
B) Fixed Currency Non-Repatriable (Bank) Deposit
C) Foreign Capital Non-Resident (Bond) Deposit
D) Forex Currency Non-Resident (Borrowing) Deposit
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Foreign Currency Non-Resident (Bank) Deposit
82. Which of the following currencies is NOT listed among the permitted currencies for FCNR(B) deposits?
A) US Dollar (USD)
B) Swiss Franc (CHF)
C) Japanese Yen (JPY)
D) Australian Dollar (AUD)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Swiss Franc (CHF)
83. Interest earned on FCNR(B) deposits is:
A) Taxable at 30% flat rate in India
B) Taxable at standard income-tax slab rates
C) Tax-free in India for eligible NRIs
D) Subject to TDS at 10%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Tax-free in India for eligible NRIs
84. Hedging cost in the context of FCNR(B) deposits refers to:
A) The penalty banks pay for late filing of returns
B) The expense incurred by banks to protect against currency fluctuation risks
C) The cost of converting foreign currency into rupees
D) The commission paid to NRI account holders
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) The expense incurred by banks to protect against currency fluctuation risks
85. Majorana 2, a quantum processor, was developed by:
A) Google DeepMind
B) IBM Quantum
C) Microsoft
D) Intel Labs
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Microsoft
86. Topological qubits store information in:
A) The spin state of individual electrons
B) Photonic interference patterns
C) The topological properties of a quantum state
D) Superconducting current loops
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) The topological properties of a quantum state
87. Majorana 2 achieves an average quantum coherence time of approximately:
A) A few milliseconds
B) 1 second
C) 20 seconds
D) 5 minutes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 20 seconds
88. The Zojila Tunnel connects which two locations?
A) Srinagar and Leh
B) Baltal (J&K) and Meenamarg (Ladakh)
C) Kargil and Drass
D) Sonamarg and Dras
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Baltal (J&K) and Meenamarg (Ladakh)
89. The Zojila Tunnel is being constructed using which tunnelling method?
A) Tunnel Boring Machine (TBM) method
B) Cut-and-Cover method
C) New Austrian Tunnelling Method (NATM)
D) Immersed Tube method
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) New Austrian Tunnelling Method (NATM)
90. World Oceans Day was officially recognised by the United Nations General Assembly in:
A) 1992
B) 2000
C) 2005
D) 2008
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 2008
91. Kerala’s ‘Project Menstrual Dignity’ offers up to how many days of optional monthly menstrual leave for schoolgirls?
A) One day
B) Two days
C) Three days
D) Five days
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Three days
92. The Supreme Court has recognised Menstrual Health and Hygiene (MHH) as an integral component of the Right to Life under:
A) Article 14
B) Article 19
C) Article 21
D) Article 39
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Article 21
93. Which state became India’s first to introduce menstrual leave, in 1992?
A) Kerala
B) Karnataka
C) Bihar
D) Tamil Nadu
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Bihar
94. Which state became the first to extend a statutory one-day paid monthly menstrual leave to eligible women in both public and private sectors?
A) Bihar
B) Karnataka
C) Kerala
D) Maharashtra
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Karnataka
95. According to NFHS data, the use of hygienic menstrual protection among women aged 15–24 increased from about 58% (NFHS-4) to what level in NFHS-6?
A) 65.4%
B) 72.3%
C) 79.2%
D) 89.4%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 79.2%
96. As per recent data, only what percentage of young women have access to all essential menstrual hygiene components (hygienic products, private toilets, water, and soap)?
A) 27.7%
B) 43.5%
C) 53.6%
D) 72.3%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) 27.7%
97. Under the Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP), affordable biodegradable sanitary pads are supplied under the brand name:
A) Saheli Pads
B) Suvidha
C) Asmita
D) Freedom
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Suvidha
98. The Menstrual Hygiene Scheme (MHS) provides subsidised sanitary napkins to rural adolescent girls primarily through:
A) Anganwadi Centres
B) ASHA workers
C) Self-Help Groups under NRLM
D) Primary Health Centres
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) ASHA workers
99. Which river was granted legal personhood by New Zealand in 2017?
A) Waikato River
B) Whanganui River
C) Clutha River
D) Rakaia River
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Whanganui River
100. Which country became the first to constitutionally recognise the ‘Rights of Nature’ (Pacha Mama) in 2008?
A) Bolivia
B) New Zealand
C) Ecuador
D) Costa Rica
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Ecuador
101. In 2017, which High Court declared the Ganga and Yamuna rivers as legal persons, later extending the concept to the Himalayan ecosystem?
A) Delhi High Court
B) Allahabad High Court
C) Uttarakhand High Court
D) Himachal Pradesh High Court
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Uttarakhand High Court
102. A key implementation challenge in India’s legal personhood ruling was that the State, designated as guardian, simultaneously acted as:
A) Judge, jury, and executioner
B) Developer, regulator, and protector
C) Lender, borrower, and guarantor
D) Owner, tenant, and arbitrator
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Developer, regulator, and protector
103. The 2013 disaster often cited as a warning sign for Himalayan ecological fragility occurred at:
A) Joshimath
B) Kedarnath
C) Nainital
D) Chamoli
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Kedarnath
104. Te Urewera and Mount Taranaki, accorded special legal status, are located in:
A) Australia
B) Ecuador
C) New Zealand
D) Canada
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) New Zealand
105. The SIPRI Yearbook is published annually by the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute since:
A) 1959
B) 1969
C) 1979
D) 1989
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 1969
106. According to SIPRI Yearbook 2026, global military expenditure reached a record figure of:
A) $1.9 trillion
B) $2.2 trillion
C) $2.5 trillion
D) $2.9 trillion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) $2.9 trillion
107. Global military spending in 2025 accounted for approximately what percentage of global GDP?
A) 1.5%
B) 2.5%
C) 3.5%
D) 4.5%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 2.5%
108. As per SIPRI Yearbook 2026, India ranked as the __ largest military spender globally.
A) Third
B) Fourth
C) Fifth
D) Seventh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Fifth
109. India’s defence expenditure reached approximately how much in 2025, reflecting an 8.9% increase?
A) $72.1 billion
B) $81.4 billion
C) $92.1 billion
D) $105.3 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) $92.1 billion
110. India remained the second-largest importer of major arms (8.2% of global arms imports), behind:
A) Saudi Arabia
B) Ukraine
C) China
D) Egypt
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Ukraine
111. India’s estimated nuclear stockpile increased from 180 warheads in 2025 to howmany in 2026, as per SIPRI?
A) 185
B) 190
C) 195
D) 200
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 190
112. The world’s nine nuclear-armed states collectively possessed approximately how many nuclear warheads as per SIPRI Yearbook 2026?
A) 9,500
B) 10,500
C) 12,187
D) 13,500
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 12,187
113. The Istanbul Platform: Zero Waste Package was launched as part of coordination efforts under which UNFCCC framework?
A) Glasgow Climate Pact
B) Marrakech Partnership for Global Climate Action (MPGCA)
C) Bali Action Plan
D) Cancun Adaptation Framework
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Marrakech Partnership for Global Climate Action (MPGCA)
114. The Marrakech Partnership for Global Climate Action (MPGCA) was established in 2016 at which COP?
A) COP21
B) COP22
C) COP23
D) COP24
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) COP22
115. The International Day of Zero Waste is observed annually on:
A) 5 June
B) 22 March
C) 30 March
D) 8 June
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 30 March
116. The ‘triple planetary crisis’, as defined by the UN, comprises Climate Change, Pollution and Waste, and:
A) Resource Depletion
B) Biodiversity Loss
C) Ocean Acidification
D) Desertification
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Biodiversity Loss
117. The 1996 Ganga Water Treaty between India and Bangladesh is set to expire in:
A) June 2026
B) September 2026
C) December 2026
D) March 2027
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) December 2026
118. The India-Bangladesh border, often cited in migration disputes, spans approximately:
A) 2,216 km
B) 3,323 km
C) 4,096 km
D) 4,900 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 4,096 km
119. Mindanao, the second-largest island in the Philippines, is popularly known as the:
A) Pearl of the Pacific
B) Food Basket of the Philippines
C) Gateway to Southeast Asia
D) Spice Island of Asia
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Food Basket of the Philippines
120. The Sea of Azov is connected to the Black Sea through which strait?
A) Bosphorus Strait
B) Strait of Hormuz
C) Kerch Strait
D) Dardanelles Strait
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Kerch Strait
121. Birsa Munda is revered as ‘Dharti Aaba’, meaning:
A) Son of the Soil
B) Father of the Earth
C) Protector of the Forest
D) Leader of the Tribes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Father of the Earth
122. Birsa Munda founded which monotheistic faith combining elements of Munda traditions, Hinduism, and Christianity?
A) Sarna Dharma
B) Birsait Faith
C) Tana Bhagat Movement
D) Kherwal Dharma
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Birsait Faith
123. The Ulgulan, led by Birsa Munda, took place during:
A) 1885–1886
B) 1895–1896
C) 1899–1900
D) 1905–1906
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1899–1900
124. Birsa Munda’s movement sought to establish ‘Abua Raj’, meaning:
A) Tribal Council
B) Self-Rule
C) Land Reform
D) Religious Freedom
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Self-Rule
125. The Ulgulan uprising compelled the British to enact which legislation in 1908?
A) Bengal Tenancy Act
B) Chotanagpur Tenancy Act
C) Forest Rights Act
D) Indian Land Revenue Act
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Chotanagpur Tenancy Act
126. The Chotanagpur Tenancy Act, 1908 recognised which system of ancestral land rights for original tribal settlers?
A) Zamindari System
B) Khuntkatti System
C) Ryotwari System
D) Mahalwari System
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Khuntkatti System
127. Birsa Munda’s birth anniversary, observed as Janjatiya Gaurav Diwas, falls on:
A) 9 August
B) 15 November
C) 26 January
D) 2 October
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 15 November
128. The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 is issued and administered by:
A) Ministry of Law and Justice
B) Election Commission of India
C) Parliament of India
D) Supreme Court of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Election Commission of India
129. As per the latest revision (May 2025), how many symbols are included in the ECI’s Free Symbols List?
A) 156
B) 169
C) 184
D) 198
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 184
130. Which political party continues to use the elephant symbol due to a grandfathering provision despite the ECI’s ban on new animal symbols?
A) Indian National Congress
B) Bahujan Samaj Party
C) Samajwadi Party
D) Telugu Desam Party
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Bahujan Samaj Party
131. Two recognised parties from different states may legally possess the same election symbol if:
A) They belong to the same political alliance
B) They are unlikely to contest against one another
C) Both were registered in the same year
D) The ECI grants special joint permission
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) They are unlikely to contest against one another
132. Unrecognised parties and independent candidates contesting elections must choose their symbol from:
A) Reserved Symbols List
B) National Symbols Register
C) Free Symbols List
D) State Symbols Directory
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Free Symbols List
133. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment shifted ‘Education’ from the State List to which Entry of the Concurrent List?
A) Entry 11
B) Entry 25
C) Entry 41
D) Entry 54
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Entry 25
134. Under Article 254, in case of inconsistency between Union and State law on a Concurrent List subject:
A) State law prevails automatically
B) Union law prevails over State law
C) The matter is referred to the President for arbitration
D) Both laws operate simultaneously
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Union law prevails over State law
135. Under which Entry of the Union List does Parliament have exclusive authority over coordination and determination of standards in higher education?
A) Entry 63
B) Entry 64
C) Entry 65
D) Entry 66
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Entry 66
136. Under Entry 32 of the State List, State Governments have the power to:
A) Set national academic standards
B) Establish, regulate, and dissolve universities within their jurisdiction
C) Approve all central university appointments
D) Override UGC regulations
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Establish, regulate, and dissolve universities within their jurisdiction
137. The University Grants Commission (UGC) was established under the UGC Act of:
A) 1950
B) 1956
C) 1961
D) 1972
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 1956
138. Which Commission recommended increasing public expenditure on education to 6% of GDP?
A) Sarkaria Commission (1988)
B) Kothari Commission (1966)
C) Punchhi Commission (2010)
D) National Knowledge Commission (2007)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Kothari Commission (1966)
139. The Yashpal Committee (2009) recommended creating which body to replace multiple regulators in higher education?
A) Independent Regulatory Authority for Higher Education (IRAHE)
B) National Commission for Higher Education and Research (NCHER)
C) National Education Council (NEC)
D) Higher Education Standards Authority (HESA)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) National Commission for Higher Education and Research (NCHER)
140. The Punchhi Commission (2010) recommended that university Chancellors should be:
A) Retained as the Governor with enhanced powers
B) Appointed by the UGC directly
C) Eminent academicians instead of the Governor
D) Elected by university faculty members
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Eminent academicians instead of the Governor
141. The proposed Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan Bill, 2025 primarily seeks to:
A) Increase state autonomy in curriculum design
B) Overhaul the existing higher education regulatory structure
C) Abolish the UGC entirely without replacement
D) Transfer all education subjects fully to the State List
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Overhaul the existing higher education regulatory structure
142. India’s public expenditure on higher education remains around what percentage of GDP?
A) 0.5%
B) 1%
C) 3%
D) 6%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 1%
143. India’s diaspora remitted a record amount in FY 2025–26, which stood at approximately:
A) $87.55 billion
B) $98.30 billion
C) $110.47 billion
D) $125.60 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) $110.47 billion
144. Remittances reached a 13-year high in Q4 FY26, amounting to approximately:
A) $25.40 billion
B) $28.90 billion
C) $31.07 billion
D) $35.20 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) $31.07 billion
145. Compared to External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs), remittances are considered advantageous because they:
A) Generate higher returns for investors
B) Create no future repayment obligations
C) Are taxed at lower rates
D) Are guaranteed by the RBI
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Create no future repayment obligations
146. The Assam Blue Valley Cluster, launched in Guwahati, is a collaborative initiative between Assam and:
A) ASEAN
B) The European Union
C) The United States
D) Japan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) The European Union
147. ‘Bioeconomy’, as referenced in the Assam Blue Valley Cluster initiative, primarily refers to economic activities based on:
A) Digital and IT services
B) Renewable biological resources such as plants, animals, and biomass
C) Mineral and fossil fuel extraction
D) Financial services and banking
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Renewable biological resources such as plants, animals, and biomass
148. SAPLING Dialogue 2026, concluded in Ahmedabad, was jointly organised by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries and:
A) World Health Organization
B) Food and Agriculture Organization
C) World Bank Group
D) Asian Development Bank
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) World Bank Group
149. According to India’s Food Processing Report discussed at SAPLING 2026, the share of food processing in agriculture increased from 10% (2016) to nearly what level by 2023?
A) 13%
B) 17%
C) 23%
D) 30%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 17%
150. The Made-in-India C-295 military transport aircraft, which completed its maiden flight, is manufactured jointly by Airbus and:
A) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)
B) Tata Advanced Systems Limited
C) Bharat Electronics Limited
D) Larsen & Toubro Defence
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Tata Advanced Systems Limited
151. India’s Total Fertility Rate (TFR) has declined to 2.0, which is below the replacement-level fertility rate of:
A) 1.8
B) 2.0
C) 2.1
D) 2.5
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2.1
152. Total Fertility Rate (TFR) refers to the average number of children a woman is expected to have during her reproductive years, which are defined as:
A) 15–45 years
B) 15–49 years
C) 18–45 years
D) 18–49 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 15–49 years
153. As per regional TFR data, which state recorded the highest TFR in India?
A) Uttar Pradesh
B) Bihar
C) Madhya Pradesh
D) Jharkhand
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Bihar
154. Which Union Territory recorded the lowest TFR in India at 0.9?
A) Lakshadweep
B) Chandigarh
C) Andaman & Nicobar Islands
D) Puducherry
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Andaman & Nicobar Islands
155. Out of 36 States/UTs, how many now record fertility rates below replacement level?
A) 25
B) 28
C) 31
D) 34
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 31
156. The TFR of Urban India and Rural India are recorded at approximately:
A) Urban 1.6, Rural 2.1
B) Urban 2.1, Rural 1.6
C) Urban 1.8, Rural 2.4
D) Urban 2.0, Rural 2.0
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Urban 1.6, Rural 2.1
157. Mission Parivar Vikas, mentioned as a key family planning intervention, primarily aims to:
A) Promote institutional deliveries in urban slums
B) Improve contraceptive access and reproductive health services
C) Provide cash incentives for having a second child
D) Reduce maternal mortality through free surgeries
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Improve contraceptive access and reproductive health services
158. India’s Infant Mortality Rate (IMR), cited as a factor in declining TFR, has reduced to approximately:
A) 18
B) 24
C) 32
D) 40
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 24
159. The ‘China’s 4-2-1 family model’, referenced as a demographic risk for India, describes a structure where:
A) Four grandparents, two parents, and one child support each other in an inverted dependency pyramid
B) Four children support two parents and one grandparent
C) One child supports four working adults and two elderly dependents
D) Two children support four elderly grandparents and one working parent
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Four grandparents, two parents, and one child support each other in an inverted dependency pyramid
160. A declining TFR could potentially affect India’s federal structure because future delimitation exercises based on population might:
A) Increase representation for all states equally
B) Reduce relative parliamentary representation of states that successfully lowered fertility
C) Eliminate the need for delimitation altogether
D) Shift delimitation authority entirely to the Election Commission
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Reduce relative parliamentary representation of states that
successfully lowered fertility
161. The India–Nepal border is approximately how long, and is characterised as open and porous?
A) 1,100 km
B) 1,400 km
C) 1,850 km
D) 2,200 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1,850 km
162. The ‘Roti-Beti’ relationship between India and Nepal primarily refers to:
A) Trade in food grains between the two countries
B) Cross-border marriages and deep civilisational/cultural ties
C) A bilateral agricultural cooperation agreement
D) Joint military training programmes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Cross-border marriages and deep civilisational/cultural ties
163. Nepal’s estimated hydropower potential, relevant to India-Nepal energy cooperation, stands at approximately:
A) 42,000 MW
B) 60,000 MW
C) 83,000 MW
D) 100,000 MW
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 83,000 MW
164. The India-Nepal Treaty of Peace and Friendship, which some sections of Nepal’s leadership want revised, was signed in:
A) 1947
B) 1950
C) 1962
D) 1971
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 1950
165. The Kalapani, Lipulekh, and Limpiyadhura border disputes between India and Nepal stem from differing interpretations of which treaty and river origin?
A) Treaty of Sugauli and the origin of the Kali River
B) Treaty of Gandamak and the origin of the Karnali River
C) Treaty of Thapathali and the origin of the Mahakali River
D) Anglo-Nepalese Treaty and the origin of the Saryu River
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Treaty of Sugauli and the origin of the Kali River
166. Recruitment of Nepali Gorkhas into the Indian Army has remained stalled due to Nepal’s reservations regarding:
A) The BBIN sub-regional initiative
B) The Agnipath Scheme
C) The UPI-NPI payment linkage
D) The Raxaul-Kathmandu Railway project
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) The Agnipath Scheme
167. India and Nepal have agreed on a framework to facilitate the import of how much electricity from Nepal over a decade?
A) 5,000 MW
B) 7,500 MW
C) 10,000 MW
D) 15,000 MW
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 10,000 MW
168. Which of the following rail connectivity projects is mentioned as enhancing India Nepal trade and tourism?
A) Raxaul–Kathmandu Railway
B) Siliguri–Kakarbhitta Railway
C) Gorakhpur–Pokhara Railway
D) Patna–Biratnagar Railway
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Raxaul–Kathmandu Railway
169. The UPI-NPI payment linkage between India and Nepal is primarily intended to:
A) Facilitate remittances and promote financial inclusion
B) Replace the Nepalese Rupee with a digital currency
C) Establish a common currency for both countries
D) Provide subsidised loans to Nepali traders
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Facilitate remittances and promote financial inclusion
170. The National SC-ST Hub (NSSH) Scheme was launched in:
A) 2014
B) 2015
C) 2016
D) 2018
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2016
171. The National SC-ST Hub (NSSH) Scheme is implemented under which Ministry?
A) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
B) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
C) Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
D) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
172. The NSSH Scheme is implemented by which agency?
A) National Small Industries Corporation (NSIC)
B) Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)
C) Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC)
D) National Backward Classes Finance and Development Corporation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) National Small Industries Corporation (NSIC)
173. Under the Public Procurement Policy, NSSH facilitates achievement of what percentage annual procurement target from SC/ST-owned MSEs by Central Ministries, Departments, and CPSEs?
A) 2%
B) 3%
C) 4%
D) 5%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 4%
174. Under the Special Credit Linked Capital Subsidy Scheme (SCLCSS), the capital subsidy provided for technology upgradation is:
A) 15%, up to ₹15 lakh
B) 20%, up to ₹20 lakh
C) 25%, up to ₹25 lakh
D) 30%, up to ₹30 lakh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 25%, up to ₹25 lakh
175. Under the Single Point Registration Scheme (SPRS), SC/ST entrepreneurs registered through NSIC are exempted from paying:
A) Goods and Services Tax
B) Earnest Money Deposit (EMD)
C) Stamp duty on tender documents
D) Annual registration renewal fee
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Earnest Money Deposit (EMD)
176. The Special Marketing Assistance Scheme under NSSH primarily provides financial support for:
A) Setting up new manufacturing units
B) Participation in domestic trade fairs, international exhibitions, and buyer-seller meets
C) Repayment of existing business loans
D) Purchase of raw materials at subsidised rates
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Participation in domestic trade fairs, international exhibitions, and buyer-seller meets
177. The Sangeet Natak Akademi Ratna (Fellowship), the highest honour conferred by the Akademi, carries a cash award of:
A) ₹1 lakh
B) ₹2 lakh
C) ₹3 lakh
D) ₹5 lakh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ₹3 lakh
178. The Sangeet Natak Akademi Ratna Fellowship is restricted to a maximum of how many living Fellows at any given time?
A) 25
B) 30
C) 35
D) 40
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 40
179. The Sangeet Natak Akademi was created through a Government of India Resolution in 1952 and became functional in:
A) 1952
B) 1953
C) 1954
D) 1956
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 1953
180. The Chairman of the Sangeet Natak Akademi is appointed by the President of India for a tenure of:
A) 3 years
B) 4 years
C) 5 years
D) 6 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 5 years
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