Find the current affairs quiz 21 May 2026 by Exam Charcha.
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Current Affairs Quiz – 21 May 2026 (Test Now)
1. Section 43D(5) of UAPA, added through the 2008 Amendment, directs courts to deny bail if case records indicate accusations are prima facie true. This creates which key departure from ordinary criminal law?
A) It removes the right to legal representation for accused
B) It indirectly shifts the burden onto the accused at the bail stage, weakening the presumption of innocence
C) It permanently denies bail rights to all UAPA accused
D) It transfers jurisdiction from High Courts to Special NIA Courts
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) It indirectly shifts the burden onto the accused at the bail stage, weakening the presumption of innocence
2.Under UAPA, investigation can continue for up to how many days before filing a chargesheet, thereby delaying default/statutory bail?
A) 60 days
B) 90 days
C) 180 days
D) 365 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) 180 days
3In which case did the Supreme Court rule that Article 21 protections, especially the right to speedy trial, cannot be overridden by statutory bail restrictions under UAPA?
A) NIA v. Zahoor Ahmad Shah Watali (2019)
B) Union of India v. K.A. Najeeb (2021)
C) Vernon Gonsalves v. State of Maharashtra (2023)
D) Angela Harish Sontakke v. State of Maharashtra (2016)
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Union of India v. K.A. Najeeb (2021)
4.The NIA v. Zahoor Ahmad Shah Watali (2019) judgment is significant because it held that:
A) Bail should be liberally granted in UAPA cases to protect fundamental rights
B) Prosecution evidence should largely be accepted at face value during bail hearings, making bail under UAPA extremely difficult
C) UAPA provisions are unconstitutional for denying anticipatory bail
D) Courts must independently verify all evidence before denying bail under UAPA
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Prosecution evidence should largely be accepted at face value during bail hearings, making bail under UAPA extremely difficult
5.Section 43D(4) of UAPA bars which type of bail for offences punishable under the Act?
A) Regular bail by Sessions Court
B) Default bail under Section 167 CrPC
C) Anticipatory bail
D) Interim bail during appeal
Show Answer
Correct Answer:: C) Anticipatory bail
6.The Citizenship (Amendment) Rules, 2026 were notified by which Ministry and amend
which earlier rules?
A) Ministry of External Affairs; Citizenship Rules 2003
B) Ministry of Home Affairs; Citizenship Rules 2009
C) Ministry of Law and Justice; Citizenship Rules 2015
D) Ministry of Finance; Citizenship Acquisition Rules 2005
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Ministry of Home Affairs; Citizenship Rules 2009
7.. Under the Citizenship (Amendment) Rules 2026, applicants seeking citizenship under CAA must submit an affidavit disclosing passports of which three countries?
A) China, Nepal and Sri Lanka
B) Pakistan, Afghanistan and Bangladesh
C) Myanmar, Bangladesh and Nepal
D) Pakistan, Iran and Afghanistan
Show Answer
Correct Answer:: B) Pakistan, Afghanistan and Bangladesh
8.After approval of Indian citizenship under the 2026 rules, a foreign passport must be surrendered within how many days?
A) 7 days
B) 15 days
C) 30 days
D) 60 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer:: B) 15 days
9. Citizenship provisions in India are governed by which Articles of the Indian Constitution?
A) Articles 1 to 4
B) Articles 5 to 11
C) Articles 12 to 18
D) Articles 19 to 22
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Articles 5 to 11
10. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to regulate citizenship through law?
A) Article 5
B) Article 9
C) Article 11
D) Article 14
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) Article 11
11. The Right to Information Act, 2005 defines a ‘public authority’ under which Section?
A) Section 2(f)
B) Section 2(h)
C) Section 4(1)
D) Section 8(1)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Section 2(h)
12. In Zee Telefilms Ltd. v. Union of India (2005), the Supreme Court held that merely performing public functions does NOT make a body ‘State’ under Article 12. What three-part test was emphasised?
A) Constitutional status, Public funding and Democratic accountability
B) Government must exercise financial, functional and administrative domination
C) Public importance, Monopoly position and Use of public resources
D) Parliamentary creation, Government ownership and Revenue generation from public
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Government must exercise financial, functional and administrative
domination
13.In Supreme Court v. Subhash Chandra Agarwal (2019), the Supreme Court held that which office is a public authority under RTI?
A) Prime Minister’s Office
B) Office of Chief Justice of India
C) BCCI President’s Office
D) Election Commission of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Office of Chief Justice of India
14. Section 8(1) of the RTI Act provides exemptions from disclosure on which grounds?
A) National security, sovereignty and integrity, trade secrets, privacy and strategic interests
B) Political sensitivity, media confidentiality and corporate secrecy
C) Personal preferences of the government department concerned
D) Any information that a public authority deems commercially sensitive
Show Answer
Correct Answer:A) National security, sovereignty and integrity, trade secrets, privacy and strategic interests
15.India and Sweden elevated bilateral relations to a Strategic Partnership with a Joint Action Plan for which period?
A) 2025–2029
B) 2026–2030
C) 2027–2031
D) 2026–2032
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) 2026–2030
16. The Sweden–India Technology and AI Corridor (SITAC) was launched to connect which entities?
A) Startups, AI ecosystems, innovation hubs and research institutions
B) Defence PSUs, semiconductor firms and space agencies
C) Agricultural cooperatives, dairy federations and food tech startups
D) State governments, port authorities and logistics companies
Show Answer
Correct Answer:A) Startups, AI ecosystems, innovation hubs and research institutions
17.Sweden is India’s third largest trading partner in which region?
A) Europe
B) South Asia
C) Asia
D) Indo-Pacific
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Asia
18. A Privilege Notice is derived from which Article of the Indian Constitution?
A) Article 75
B) Article 105
C) Article 122
D) Article 143
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Article 105
19.Under Rajya Sabha rules, privilege notices are governed by which Rule number?
A) Rule 105
B) Rule 149
C) Rule 187
D) Rule 222
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Rule 187
20.The Privileges Committee of Rajya Sabha consists of how many members and is chaired by whom?
A) 15 members; Vice President
B) 10 members; Deputy Chairman
C) 12 members; Chairman
D) 8 members; Leader of Opposition
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) 10 members; Deputy Chairman
21.. The Countercyclical Capital Buffer (CCyB) is part of which international banking regulatory framework?
A) Basel I norms
B) Basel II norms
C) Basel III norms
D) OECD Financial Stability Framework
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Basel III norms
22.CCyB was introduced in India by RBI in which year?
A) 2010
B) 2012
C) 2015
D) 2018
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) 2015
23. The primary indicator used to decide CCyB activation is:
A) Inflation rate deviation from RBI target
B) Credit-to-GDP gap (deviation of credit growth from long-term GDP trends)
C) Current Account Deficit as percentage of GDP
D) Non-Performing Asset (NPA) ratio of scheduled commercial banks
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Credit-to-GDP gap (deviation of credit growth from long-term GDP trends)
24.. In the Maratha Empire’s peak expansion, influence stretched from Attock (present-day Pakistan) to Cuttack and from the Gulf of Khambhat to beyond which river in the south?
A) Krishna River
B) Godavari River
C) Kaveri River
D) Mahanadi River
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Kaveri River
25.The Battle of Patan (1790) was fought under the command of Benoît de Boigne (serving Mahadji Shinde). It defeated which alliance?
A) Sikh–Afghan alliance
B) Rajput–Mughal alliance
C) British–Hyderabad alliance
D) Mysore–Travancore alliance
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Rajput–Mughal alliance
26.The International Booker Prize 2026 was won by which novel, and what is its historical significance?
A) ‘The Memory Police’ by Yoko Ogawa; first Japanese work to win
B) ‘Taiwan Travelogue’ by Yang Shuang-zi; first Mandarin Chinese-translated work to win
C) ‘Tomb of Sand’ by Geetanjali Shree; first Hindi-translated work to win
D) ‘Prophet Song’ by Paul Lynch; first Irish novel to win
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) ‘Taiwan Travelogue’ by Yang Shuang-zi; first Mandarin Chinese translated work to win
27.SHE-MART stands for which full form and is implemented under which scheme?
A) Self Help Enterprises – Marketing Avenues for Rural Transformation; DAY-NRLM
B) Sustainable Home Entrepreneurs – Market and Retail Training; PM-JANMAN
C) Small Home Enterprises – Marketing and Retail Technology; PMEGP
D) SHG Help Enterprises – Marketing and Revenue Transformation; PMFBY
Show Answer
Correct Answer:A) Self Help Enterprises – Marketing Avenues for Rural Transformation; DAY-NRLM
28. SMILE is a joint space mission between ESA and which partner organisation?
A) ISRO (India)
B) JAXA (Japan)
C) Chinese Academy of Sciences (CAS)
D) NASA (USA)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Chinese Academy of Sciences (CAS)
29.SMILE’s key scientific distinction is that it provides the first-ever simultaneous imaging of Earth’s magnetosphere using which two methods?
A) Infrared and Radar imaging
B) X-ray and Ultraviolet imaging
C) Gamma-ray and LiDAR imaging
D) Optical and Microwave imaging
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) X-ray and Ultraviolet imaging
30.The UNESCO Guillermo Cano World Press Freedom Prize 2026 was awarded to which organisation?
A) Reporters Without Borders (RSF)
B) Committee to Protect Journalists (CPJ)
C) Sudanese Journalists Syndicate (SJS)
D) International Federation of Journalists (IFJ)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Sudanese Journalists Syndicate (SJS)
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