Practice the November 2025 4th Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the Fourth week of November 2025.
The Current Affairs Quiz of 22 to 30 November features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.
4th Week of November 2025: Current Affairs Quiz
1. What percentage of children worldwide live in extreme monetary poverty (less than USD 3 per day)?
A) Over 15%
B) Over 17%
C) Over 19%
D) Over 21%
Show Answer
Answer: C) Over 19%
2. How many children in India face at least one deprivation according to SoWC 2025?
A) 186 million
B) 196 million
C) 206 million
D) 216 million
Show Answer
Answer: C) 206 million
3. How many children in India experience two or more deprivations?
A) 52 million
B) 57 million
C) 62 million
D) 67 million
Show Answer
Answer: C) 62 million
4. Which emerges as the most common severe deprivation for children in India?
A) Education
B) Health
C) Nutrition
D) Sanitation
Show Answer
Answer: D) Sanitation
5. How many policy pillars did UNICEF propose to end child poverty?
A) Three
B) Four
C) Five
D) Six
Show Answer
Answer: C) Five
6. How many Juvenile Justice Boards does India have across its districts (2023-24)?
A) 657
B) 687
C) 707
D) 737
Show Answer
Answer: C) 707
7. Across how many districts are these JJBs distributed?
A) 745
B) 755
C) 765
D) 775
Show Answer
Answer: C) 765
8. What percentage of cases were disposed between Nov 2022 – Oct 2023?
A) 35%
B) 40%
C) 45%
D) 50%
Show Answer
Answer: C) 45%
9. What percentage of children in custodial care are lodged in Observation Homes?
A) Nearly 73%
B) Nearly 78%
C) Nearly 83%
D) Nearly 88%
Show Answer
Answer: C) Nearly 83%
10. How many Observation Homes exist in India according to the report?
A) 299
B) 309
C) 319
D) 329
Show Answer
Answer: C) 319
11. When was the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act enacted?
A) 2013
B) 2014
C) 2015
D) 2016
Show Answer
Answer: C) 2015
12. For heinous offences, the JJB must assess children in which age group?
A) 14-16 years
B) 15-17 years
C) 16-18 years
D) 17-19 years
Show Answer
Answer: C) 16-18 years
13. Under which Article did the President seek advisory opinion on judicially-imposed timelines?
A) Article 131
B) Article 136
C) Article 143
D) Article 148
Show Answer
Answer: C) Article 143
14. When did the Supreme Court deliver its opinion in the 16th Presidential Reference?
A) 19 November 2025
B) 20 November 2025
C) 21 November 2025
D) 22 November 2025
Show Answer
Answer: C) 21 November 2025
15. How many judges constituted the Constitution Bench for this case?
A) Three
B) Five
C) Seven
D) Nine
Show Answer
Answer: B) Five
16. Which Article deals with the Governor’s decision on State Bills?
A) Article 199
B) Article 200
C) Article 201
D) Article 202
Show Answer
Answer: B) Article 200
17. Which Article deals with the President’s decision on Reserved Bills?
A) Article 199
B) Article 200
C) Article 201
D) Article 202
Show Answer
Answer: C) Article 201
18. What elevation defines an “Aravalli Hill” according to the Supreme Court-accepted criteria?
A) 50 metres or more
B) 75 metres or more
C) 100 metres or more
D) 150 metres or more
Show Answer
Answer: C) 100 metres or more
19. What distance defines an “Aravalli Range” (hills situated within this distance of each other)?
A) 300 metres
B) 400 metres
C) 500 metres
D) 600 metres
Show Answer
Answer: C) 500 metres
20. What is the highest peak in the Aravalli Range?
A) Mount Abu
B) Guru Shikhar
C) Kumbhalgarh Peak
D) Taragarh Peak
Show Answer
Answer: B) Guru Shikhar
21. Which institution will provide technical support for preparing the MPSM?
A) Forest Survey of India
B) Wildlife Institute of India
C) Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE)
D) National Biodiversity Authority
Show Answer
Answer: C) Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE)
22. By what percentage did oilseed output increase in 2024-25 compared to 2023-24?
A) Over 5%
B) Over 6%
C) Over 7%
D) Over 8%
Show Answer
Answer: D) Over 8%
23. What is the time period for the Self-Reliance in Pulses Mission?
A) 2024-25 to 2029-30
B) 2025-26 to 2030-31
C) 2026-27 to 2031-32
D) 2027-28 to 2032-33
Show Answer
Answer: B) 2025-26 to 2030-31
24. What is the capital of Seychelles?
A) Port Louis
B) Victoria
C) Moroni
D) Antananarivo
Show Answer
Answer: B) Victoria
25. How many islands comprise Seychelles?
A) 115 islands
B) 135 islands
C) 155 islands
D) 175 islands
Show Answer
Answer: C) 155 islands
26. Seychelles is recognized as the smallest African country in:
A) Area only
B) Population only
C) Both area and population
D) Neither area nor population
Show Answer
Answer: C) Both area and population
27. What position does Seychelles hold in the Colombo Security Conclave?
A) 4th member
B) 5th member
C) 6th member
D) Observer
Show Answer
Answer: C) 6th member
28. Which country will host UNFCCC COP31?
A) Australia
B) Brazil
C) Turkiye
D) India
Show Answer
Answer: C) Turkiye
29. Which country will hold the COP31 Presidency?
A) Australia
B) Brazil
C) Turkiye
D) UAE
Show Answer
Answer: A) Australia
30. What is the total value of the U.S. arms sale to India (Javelin and Excalibur)?
A) $83 million
B) $88 million
C) $93 million
D) $98 million
Show Answer
Answer: C) $93 million
31. How many existing labour laws were merged to create the four Labour Codes?
A) 25
B) 27
C) 29
D) 31
Show Answer
Answer: C) 29
32. Which is NOT one of the four Labour Codes enacted?
A) Code on Wages, 2019
B) Industrial Relations Code, 2020
C) Labour Welfare Code, 2020
D) Code on Social Security, 2020
Show Answer
Answer: C) Labour Welfare Code, 2020
33. When was the Code on Wages enacted?
A) 2018
B) 2019
C) 2020
D) 2021
Show Answer
Answer: B) 2019
34. How many laws were subsumed under the Code on Social Security, 2020?
A) 7 laws
B) 8 laws
C) 9 laws
D) 10 laws
Show Answer
Answer: C) 9 laws
35. How many laws were subsumed under the OSHWC Code, 2020?
A) 11 laws
B) 12 laws
C) 13 laws
D) 14 laws
Show Answer
Answer: C) 13 laws
36. What is the new threshold for requiring government approval for lay-off/retrenchment/closure?
A) 200+ workers
B) 250+ workers
C) 300+ workers
D) 350+ workers
Show Answer
Answer: C) 300+ workers
37. What was the previous threshold for government approval for retrenchment?
A) 50 workers
B) 75 workers
C) 100 workers
D) 150 workers
Show Answer
Answer: C) 100 workers
38. Fixed Term Employment workers become eligible for gratuity after how long?
A) Six months
B) One year
C) Two years
D) Three years
Show Answer
Answer: B) One year
39. What is the monthly earning limit for supervisory personnel to be included in the expanded definition of
“Worker”?
A) ₹15,000
B) ₹16,000
C) ₹18,000
D) ₹20,000
Show Answer
Answer: C) ₹18,000
40. At what age does mandatory annual health check-up become required for workers under OSHWC Code?
A) Above 35 years
B) Above 40 years
C) Above 45 years
D) Above 50 years
Show Answer
Answer: B) Above 40 years
41. What percentage of women and girls globally lack legal protection against digital violence?
A) 38%
B) 41%
C) 44%
D) 47%
Show Answer
Answer: C) 44%
42. What is the prevalence range of technology-facilitated violence affecting women globally?
A) 12-48%
B) 16-58%
C) 20-62%
D) 24-66%
Show Answer
Answer: B) 16-58%
43. What is the most common form of digital violence according to the report?
A) Deepfakes
B) Doxing
C) Online misinformation and defamation
D) Cyberbullying
Show Answer
Answer: C) Online misinformation and defamation
44. What percentage of women journalists report experiencing online attacks?
A) 63%
B) 68%
C) 73%
D) 78%
Show Answer
Answer: C) 73%
45. What percentage of deepfakes are non-consensual sexual content?
A) 80-85%
B) 85-90%
C) 90-95%
D) 95-100%
Show Answer
Answer: C) 90-95%
46. What percentage of deepfakes involve women?
A) ~80%
B) ~85%
C) ~90%
D) ~95%
Show Answer
Answer: C) ~90%
47. By how many times did UPF consumption rise in India between 2006-2019?
A) 30-fold
B) 35-fold
C) 40-fold
D) 45-fold
Show Answer
Answer: C) 40-fold
48. What is the FSSAI cap on trans fats as percentage of total oils/fats?
A) 1%
B) 2%
C) 3%
D) 5%
Show Answer
Answer: B) 2%
49. What is the GST rate on sugary/aerated drinks in India?
A) 28%
B) 32%
C) 36%
D) 40%
Show Answer
Answer: D) 40%
50. Which organization promotes the “Eat Right India” initiative?
A) ICMR
B) FSSAI
C) Ministry of Health
D) WHO India
Show Answer
Answer: B) FSSAI
51. At which COP did parties agree to establish a work programme on just transition?
A) COP26 (2021)
B) COP27 (2022)
C) COP28 (2023)
D) COP29 (2024)
Show Answer
Answer: B) COP27 (2022)
52. At which COP was the UAE JTWP operationalized?
A) COP26 (2021)
B) COP27 (2022)
C) COP28 (2023)
D) COP29 (2024)
Show Answer
Answer: C) COP28 (2023)
53. How many annual technical dialogues does the UAE JTWP structure include?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
Show Answer
Answer: B) Two
54. How many annual ministerial meetings does the UAE JTWP include?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
Show Answer
Answer: A) One
55. Under which scheme was the National Framework on Traceability in Fisheries developed?
A) PMMSY
B) PM-MKSSY
C) Blue Revolution
D) Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi
Show Answer
Answer: B) PM-MKSSY
56. PM-MKSSY is a sub-scheme under which parent scheme?
A) Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana
B) Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY)
C) National Fisheries Development Board
D) Blue Revolution Scheme
Show Answer
Answer: B) Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY)
57. On which Indonesian island is Mount Semeru located?
A) Sumatra
B) Bali
C) East Java
D) Sulawesi
Show Answer
Answer: C) East Java
58. What type of volcano is Mount Semeru?
A) Shield volcano
B) Stratovolcano
C) Cinder cone
D) Lava dome
Show Answer
Answer: B) Stratovolcano
59. What does TIPS stand for in the context of UPI-TIPS interlinkage?
A) Trans-border Instant Payment System
B) TARGET Instant Payment Settlement
C) Trans-European Instant Payment Service
D) Total Instant Payment Solution
Show Answer
Answer: B) TARGET Instant Payment Settlement
60. Which organisation operates TIPS?
A) European Commission
B) European Parliament
C) Eurosystem (European Central Bank + Euro Area national central banks)
D) European Banking Authority
Show Answer
Answer: C) Eurosystem (European Central Bank + Euro Area national central banks)
61. Where was the G20 Summit 2025 held?
A) Cape Town, South Africa
B) Johannesburg, South Africa
C) Durban, South Africa
D) Pretoria, South Africa
Show Answer
Answer: B) Johannesburg, South Africa
62. What was the theme of the G20 Summit 2025?
A) “Unity, Progress, Prosperity”
B) “Solidarity, Equality, Sustainability”
C) “Growth, Inclusion, Innovation”
D) “Together for Tomorrow”
Show Answer
Answer: B) “Solidarity, Equality, Sustainability”
63. When was the G20 established?
A) 1997
B) 1998
C) 1999
D) 2000
Show Answer
Answer: C) 1999
64. Following which crisis was the G20 established?
A) Dot-com bubble (2000)
B) Asian financial crisis (1997-98)
C) Global financial crisis (2008)
D) Oil crisis (1973)
Show Answer
Answer: B) Asian financial crisis (1997-98)
65. How many members does the G20 have?
A) 18
B) 19
C) 20
D) 21
Show Answer
Answer: C) 20
66. During South Africa’s 2025 Presidency, which countries formed the Troika?
A) India, South Africa, United States
B) Brazil, South Africa, United States
C) Brazil, South Africa, Italy
D) India, Brazil, South Africa
Show Answer
Answer: B) Brazil, South Africa, United States
67. How many certified trainers does India’s Africa Skills Multiplier Programme aim to produce?
A) 500,000
B) 750,000
C) 1 million
D) 1.5 million
Show Answer
Answer: C) 1 million
68. When was the IBSA Forum founded?
A) 2001
B) 2002
C) 2003
D) 2004
Show Answer
Answer: C) 2003
69. Through which declaration was the IBSA Forum founded?
A) Johannesburg Declaration
B) New Delhi Declaration
C) Brasilia Declaration
D) Cape Town Declaration
Show Answer
Answer: C) Brasilia Declaration
70. When was the IBSA Trust Fund established?
A) 2003
B) 2004
C) 2005
D) 2006
Show Answer
Answer: B) 2004
71. Which UN office manages the IBSA Fund?
A) UNDP
B) UNOSSC (United Nations Office for South-South Cooperation)
C) UNEP
D) UN-Habitat
Show Answer
Answer: B) UNOSSC (United Nations Office for South-South Cooperation)
72. What is the name of the tri-national maritime exercise involving IBSA countries?
A) IBSAEX
B) IBSAMAR
C) TRILANT
D) TROIKA
Show Answer
Answer: B) IBSAMAR
73. In which city was UNFCCC COP30 held?
A) Rio de Janeiro, Brazil
B) São Paulo, Brazil
C) Belém, Brazil
D) Brasília, Brazil
Show Answer
Answer: C) Belém, Brazil
74. What is the climate finance target for developing countries by 2035 under the Belém Package?
A) At least USD 1.0 trillion annually
B) At least USD 1.3 trillion annually
C) At least USD 1.5 trillion annually
D) At least USD 2.0 trillion annually
Show Answer
Answer: B) At least USD 1.3 trillion annually
75. By when should adaptation finance be doubled according to the Belém Package?
A) 2024
B) 2025
C) 2027
D) 2030
Show Answer
Answer: B) 2025
76. How many indicators were included in the Global Goal on Adaptation (GGA)?
A) 50
B) 60
C) 70
D) 80
Show Answer
Answer: B) 60
77. What is the duration of the Global Implementation Accelerator programme?
A) One year
B) Two years
C) Three years
D) Five years
Show Answer
Answer: B) Two years
78. How much adaptation project pipeline does the FINI Initiative seek to unlock within three years?
A) USD 500 billion
B) USD 750 billion
C) USD 1 trillion
D) USD 1.5 trillion
Show Answer
Answer: C) USD 1 trillion
79. What percentage of FINI funding should come from the private sector?
A) 15%
B) 20%
C) 25%
D) 30%
Show Answer
Answer: B) 20%
80. Under which Article is Chandigarh currently governed?
A) Article 238
B) Article 239
C) Article 240
D) Article 241
Show Answer
Answer: B) Article 239
81. Who currently serves as the Administrator of Chandigarh?
A) President of India
B) Prime Minister
C) Governor of Punjab
D) Chief Justice of Punjab and Haryana High Court
Show Answer
Answer: C) Governor of Punjab
82. Which Union Territory is NOT under Article 240?
A) Andaman & Nicobar Islands
B) Lakshadweep
C) Chandigarh
D) Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu
Show Answer
Answer: C) Chandigarh
83. Chandigarh serves as the joint capital of which two states?
A) Punjab and Himachal Pradesh
B) Punjab and Haryana
C) Haryana and Himachal Pradesh
D) Punjab and Rajasthan
Show Answer
Answer: B) Punjab and Haryana
84. What does ACITI stand for?
A) Asian-Canadian Innovation and Technology Initiative
B) Australia-Canada-India Technology and Innovation
C) Atlantic-Canadian-Indian Technology Integration
D) Asia-Commonwealth Innovation and Trade Initiative
Show Answer
Answer: B) Australia-Canada-India Technology and Innovation
85. When was Bharat NCAP introduced?
A) October 2021
B) October 2022
C) October 2023
D) October 2024
Show Answer
Answer: C) October 2023
86. Till when is the current phase of Bharat NCAP valid?
A) 2025
B) 2026
C) 2027
D) 2028
Show Answer
Answer: C) 2027
87. Which institute issues Bharat NCAP ratings?
A) ARAI, Pune
B) CIRT, Pune
C) ICAT, Manesar
D) VRDE, Ahmednagar
Show Answer
Answer: B) CIRT, Pune
88. How many assessment categories will determine a vehicle’s star rating under Bharat NCAP 2.0?
A) Three
B) Four
C) Five
D) Six
Show Answer
Answer: C) Five
89. When was APDIM established?
A) 2013
B) 2014
C) 2015
D) 2016
Show Answer
Answer: C) 2015
90. Where is APDIM headquarters located?
A) Bangkok, Thailand
B) New Delhi, India
C) Tehran, Iran
D) Jakarta, Indonesia
Show Answer
Answer: C) Tehran, Iran
91. What is the position number of Justice Surya Kant as Chief Justice of India?
A) 51st
B) 52nd
C) 53rd
D) 54th
Show Answer
Answer: C) 53rd
92. Under which Article is the CJI appointed?
A) Article 124(1)
B) Article 124(2)
C) Article 124(3)
D) Article 125
Show Answer
Answer: B) Article 124(2)
93. Which case established that the senior-most judge should be appointed as CJI?
A) First Judges Case (1981)
B) Second Judges Case (1993)
C) Third Judges Case (1998)
D) Fourth Judges Case (2015)
Show Answer
Answer: B) Second Judges Case (1993)
94. How many senior-most SC judges, along with the CJI, form the Collegium?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
Show Answer
Answer: C) Four
95. What is the retirement age for Supreme Court judges including the CJI?
A) 62 years
B) 64 years
C) 65 years
D) 67 years
Show Answer
Answer: C) 65 years
96. For how many years must a person be a High Court Judge to be eligible for SC judgeship?
A) At least 3 years
B) At least 5 years
C) At least 7 years
D) At least 10 years
Show Answer
Answer: B) At least 5 years
97. For how many years must a person be a High Court advocate to be eligible for SC judgeship?
A) At least 5 years
B) At least 7 years
C) At least 10 years
D) At least 15 years
Show Answer
Answer: C) At least 10 years
98. Which Act prescribes the detailed procedure for removal of SC judges?
A) Judges Inquiry Act, 1965
B) Judges Inquiry Act, 1968
C) Judges Inquiry Act, 1970
D) Judges Inquiry Act, 1972
Show Answer
Answer: B) Judges Inquiry Act, 1968
99. What majority is required in Parliament to remove a Supreme Court judge?
A) Simple majority only
B) Two-thirds of members present only
C) Majority of total membership AND two-thirds of members present and voting
D) Three-fourths of total membership
Show Answer
Answer: C) Majority of total membership AND two-thirds of members present and voting
100. Which Supreme Court body released the White Paper on AI and the Judiciary?
A) SC Registry
B) Centre for Research and Planning (CRP)
C) SC Technology Committee
D) National Judicial Data Grid
Show Answer
Answer: B) Centre for Research and Planning (CRP)
101. Which US case involved AI producing false citations and non-existent references?
A) State v. Loomis
B) Roberto Mata v. Avianca
C) Brown v. Board of Education
D) Miranda v. Arizona
Show Answer
Answer: B) Roberto Mata v. Avianca
102. Which US tool was challenged for alleged racial bias in State v. Loomis?
A) PRISM
B) COMPAS
C) WATSON
D) CLARA
Show Answer
Answer: B) COMPAS
103. What percentage of deepfakes are non-consensual sexual content?
A) 80-85%
B) 85-90%
C) 90-95%
D) 95-100%
Show Answer
Answer: C) 90-95%
104. What is SUPACE used for?
A) Case scheduling
B) Translation services
C) Judicial support tool to analyse records and generate briefs/summaries
D) E-filing system
Show Answer
Answer: C) Judicial support tool to analyse records and generate briefs/summaries
105. What does SUVAS stand for?
A) Supreme Court Video Analysis Software
B) Supreme Court Vidhik Anuvaad Software
C) Supreme Court Virtual Assistance System
D) Supreme Court Visual Analytics Software
Show Answer
Answer: B) Supreme Court Vidhik Anuvaad Software
106. How many SC judgments have been translated using SUVAS?
A) Over 26,000
B) Over 31,000
C) Over 36,000
D) Over 41,000
Show Answer
Answer: C) Over 36,000
107. Into how many Indian languages has SUVAS translated SC judgments?
A) 15
B) 17
C) 19
D) 22
Show Answer
Answer: C) 19
108. When were the OECD Principles on AI established?
A) 2017
B) 2018
C) 2019
D) 2020
Show Answer
Answer: C) 2019
109. What is Brazil’s AI legal analytics platform called?
A) ATHOS
B) ZEUS
C) HERMES
D) APOLLO
Show Answer
Answer: A) ATHOS
110. After how many years did the Hayli Gubbi volcano erupt?
A) 10,000 years
B) 12,000 years
C) 15,000 years
D) 18,000 years
Show Answer
Answer: B) 12,000 years
111. In which layer of the Earth does magma originate?
A) Lithosphere
B) Asthenosphere
C) Mesosphere
D) Core
Show Answer
Answer: B) Asthenosphere
112. What is molten rock called when it is inside the Earth?
A) Lava
B) Magma
C) Pyroclast
D) Tephra
Show Answer
Answer: B) Magma
113. What is molten rock called when it reaches the Earth’s surface?
A) Lava
B) Magma
C) Pyroclast
D) Tephra
Show Answer
Answer: A) Lava
114. What does HAMMER stand for?
A) High Altitude Modular Munition Extended Range
B) Highly Agile Modular Munition Extended Range
C) High Accuracy Military Munition Extended Range
D) Highly Advanced Modular Missile Extended Range
Show Answer
Answer: B) Highly Agile Modular Munition Extended Range
115. Which French company is partnering with BEL to manufacture HAMMER in India?
A) Thales
B) Dassault
C) Safran
D) Airbus Defence
Show Answer
Answer: C) Safran
116. What is the operational range of HAMMER?
A) Over 50 km
B) Over 60 km
C) Over 70 km
D) Over 80 km
Show Answer
Answer: C) Over 70 km
117. With which bomb body classes is HAMMER compatible?
A) 100 kg, 200 kg, 400 kg
B) 125 kg, 250 kg, 500 kg, 1000 kg
C) 150 kg, 300 kg, 600 kg
D) 200 kg, 400 kg, 800 kg
Show Answer
Answer: B) 125 kg, 250 kg, 500 kg, 1000 kg
118. When was GAVI established?
A) 1998
B) 1999
C) 2000
D) 2001
Show Answer
Answer: C) 2000
119. How many children has GAVI provided vaccine support to since inception?
A) Over 800 million
B) Over 1.0 billion
C) Over 1.2 billion
D) Over 1.5 billion
Show Answer
Answer: C) Over 1.2 billion
120. How many deaths has GAVI helped avert since its inception?
A) More than 15 million
B) More than 20 million
C) More than 25 million
D) More than 30 million
Show Answer
Answer: B) More than 20 million
121. Which department developed BharatGen, India’s sovereign AI initiative?
A) Department of Electronics and IT
B) Department of Science and Technology (DST)
C) NITI Aayog
D) Ministry of Communications
Show Answer
Answer: B) Department of Science and Technology (DST)
122. BharatGen is part of which national mission?
A) National Mission on AI
B) National Mission on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems (NM-ICPS)
C) Digital India Mission
D) National Supercomputing Mission
Show Answer
Answer: B) National Mission on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems (NM-ICPS)
123. When was BharatGen launched?
A) 2023
B) 2024
C) 2025
D) 2026
Show Answer
Answer: C) 2025
124. Across how many Indian languages does BharatGen operate?
A) 18
B) 20
C) 22
D) 24
Show Answer
Answer: C) 22
125. What is Krishi Sathi under BharatGen?
A) A farming loan app
B) Voice-enabled WhatsApp advisory platform for farmers
C) Crop insurance scheme
D) Agricultural marketplace
Show Answer
Answer: B) Voice-enabled WhatsApp advisory platform for farmers
126. What is e-VikrAI designed to do?
A) Predict crop yields
B) Generate product descriptions from a single image
C) Manage inventory
D) Process payments
Show Answer
Answer: B) Generate product descriptions from a single image
127. When was the International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture adopted?
A) 1999
B) 2000
C) 2001
D) 2002
Show Answer
Answer: C) 2001
128. When did the ITPGRFA come into force?
A) 2002
B) 2003
C) 2004
D) 2005
Show Answer
Answer: C) 2004
129. Under which organization is ITPGRFA established?
A) WHO
B) FAO
C) UNESCO
D) UNEP
Show Answer
Answer: B) FAO
130. How frequently does the ITPGRFA Governing Body meet?
A) Annually
B) Biennially
C) Triennially
D) Every five years
Show Answer
Answer: B) Biennially
131. At which CBD COP was the Cali Fund for DSI established?
A) COP-14
B) COP-15
C) COP-16
D) COP-17
Show Answer
Answer: C) COP-16
132. Under which convention was the DSI concept developed?
A) Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) 1992
B) Kyoto Protocol 1997
C) Paris Agreement 2015
D) Nagoya Protocol 2010
Show Answer
Answer: A) Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) 1992
133. Which Article protects personality rights through right to privacy and dignity?
A) Article 19
B) Article 21
C) Article 22
D) Article 23
Show Answer
Answer: B) Article 21
134. Which Act grants performers exclusive rights against distortion or misuse?
A) IT Act, 2000
B) Copyright Act, 1957
C) Trade Marks Act, 1999
D) Consumer Protection Act
Show Answer
Answer: B) Copyright Act, 1957
135. In which year did the Anil Kapoor case regarding personality rights occur?
A) 2021
B) 2022
C) 2023
D) 2024
Show Answer
Answer: C) 2023
136. Which singer’s voice was protected from AI-based cloning in a 2024 case?
A) Sonu Nigam
B) Arijit Singh
C) Shreya Ghoshal
D) Armaan Malik
Show Answer
Answer: B) Arijit Singh
137. In which case did the Supreme Court mandate CCTV installation in police stations?
A) D.K. Basu vs. State of West Bengal
B) Prakash Singh vs. Union of India
C) Paramvir Singh Saini v. Baljit Singh
D) Shafhi Mohammad v. State of Himachal Pradesh
Show Answer
Answer: C) Paramvir Singh Saini v. Baljit Singh
138. When did the Supreme Court issue directions for CCTV installation in police stations?
A) 2018
B) 2019
C) 2020
D) 2021
Show Answer
Answer: C) 2020
139. For what minimum period must CCTV recordings be stored?
A) 12 months
B) 15 months
C) 18 months
D) 24 months
Show Answer
Answer: C) 18 months
140. How many custodial deaths in prisons were recorded in 2023?
A) 1,654
B) 1,754
C) 1,854
D) 1,954
Show Answer
Answer: B) 1,754
141. Which Article protects against self-incrimination?
A) Article 20(2)
B) Article 20(3)
C) Article 21(1)
D) Article 21(2)
Show Answer
Answer: B) Article 20(3)
142. In which year were NHRC Guidelines on Custodial Deaths issued?
A) 1991
B) 1993
C) 1995
D) 1997
Show Answer
Answer: B) 1993
143. Which landmark case laid down detailed arrest and detention guidelines in 1997?
A) Prakash Singh vs. Union of India
B) D.K. Basu vs. State of West Bengal
C) Shafhi Mohammad v. State of Himachal Pradesh
D) Paramvir Singh Saini v. Baljit Singh
Show Answer
Answer: B) D.K. Basu vs. State of West Bengal
144. From when will Australia’s social media ban for children under 16 take effect?
A) 1 December 2025
B) 10 December 2025
C) 15 December 2025
D) 1 January 2026
Show Answer
Answer: B) 10 December 2025
145. What is the maximum penalty for platforms violating Australia’s social media ban?
A) AUD 30 million
B) AUD 40 million
C) AUD 50 million
D) AUD 60 million
Show Answer
Answer: C) AUD 50 million
146. When is National Milk Day observed in India?
A) 15 November
B) 20 November
C) 26 November
D) 1 December
Show Answer
Answer: C) 26 November
147. In which year was Dr. Verghese Kurien born?
A) 1919
B) 1921
C) 1923
D) 1925
Show Answer
Answer: B) 1921
148. When did Dr. Verghese Kurien receive the Ramon Magsaysay Award?
A) 1961
B) 1963
C) 1965
D) 1967
Show Answer
Answer: B) 1963
149. When did Dr. Verghese Kurien receive the World Food Prize?
A) 1987
B) 1989
C) 1991
D) 1993
Show Answer
Answer: B) 1989
150. When was the Indian Constitution adopted?
A) 26 January 1950
B) 15 August 1947
C) 26 November 1949
D) 26 January 1949
Show Answer
Answer: C) 26 November 1949
151. What is the total financial outlay for the Sintered Rare Earth Permanent Magnets scheme?
A) ₹6,280 crore
B) ₹7,280 crore
C) ₹8,280 crore
D) ₹9,280 crore
Show Answer
Answer: B) ₹7,280 crore
152. How much is allocated for sales-linked incentives over 5 years?
A) ₹5,450 crore
B) ₹6,450 crore
C) ₹7,450 crore
D) ₹8,450 crore
Show Answer
Answer: B) ₹6,450 crore
153. What is the capital subsidy amount for manufacturing facility setup?
A) ₹650 crore
B) ₹700 crore
C) ₹750 crore
D) ₹800 crore
Show Answer
Answer: C) ₹750 crore
154. What integrated REPM manufacturing capacity will be created in India?
A) 5,000 MTPA
B) 6,000 MTPA
C) 7,000 MTPA
D) 8,000 MTPA
Show Answer
Answer: B) 6,000 MTPA
155. How many beneficiaries will capacity be allocated to?
A) Three
B) Four
C) Five
D) Six
Show Answer
Answer: C) Five
156. What is the maximum MTPA each beneficiary can receive?
A) 1,000 MTPA
B) 1,200 MTPA
C) 1,500 MTPA
D) 1,800 MTPA
Show Answer
Answer: B) 1,200 MTPA
157. What is the total duration of the scheme?
A) 5 years
B) 6 years
C) 7 years
D) 8 years
Show Answer
Answer: C) 7 years
158. What is the gestation period (facility setup) duration?
A) 1 year
B) 2 years
C) 3 years
D) 4 years
Show Answer
Answer: B) 2 years
159. Through which Constitutional Amendment was the NJAC created?
A) 97th Amendment Act, 2014
B) 98th Amendment Act, 2014
C) 99th Amendment Act, 2014
D) 100th Amendment Act, 2014
Show Answer
Answer: C) 99th Amendment Act, 2014
160. How many members comprised the NJAC?
A) Four
B) Five
C) Six
D) Seven
Show Answer
Answer: C) Six
161. In which case was the NJAC declared unconstitutional?
A) Second Judges Case (1993)
B) Third Judges Case (1998)
C) Fourth Judges Case (2015)
D) Fifth Judges Case (2018)
Show Answer
Answer: C) Fourth Judges Case (2015)
162. When was the NJAC declared unconstitutional?
A) 2013
B) 2014
C) 2015
D) 2016
Show Answer
Answer: C) 2015
163. How many senior-most SC judges are part of the SC Collegium for appointments?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
Show Answer
Answer: C) Four
164. In which Article are Fundamental Duties enshrined?
A) Article 50A
B) Article 51A
C) Article 52A
D) Article 53A
Show Answer
Answer: B) Article 51A
165. Through which Constitutional Amendment were Fundamental Duties added?
A) 40th Amendment Act, 1974
B) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
C) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
D) 46th Amendment Act, 1980
Show Answer
Answer: B) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
166. Which committee recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties?
A) Santhanam Committee
B) Swaran Singh Committee
C) Sarkaria Commission
D) Venkatachaliah Commission
Show Answer
Answer: B) Swaran Singh Committee
167. When were Fundamental Duties added to the Constitution?
A) 1974
B) 1976
C) 1978
D) 1980
Show Answer
Answer: B) 1976
168. How many Fundamental Duties were initially added?
A) 8
B) 9
C) 10
D) 11
Show Answer
Answer: C) 10
169. Which Amendment added the 11th Fundamental Duty?
A) 84th Amendment Act, 2000
B) 85th Amendment Act, 2001
C) 86th Amendment Act, 2002
D) 87th Amendment Act, 2003
Show Answer
Answer: C) 86th Amendment Act, 2002
170. What is the age range for the 11th Fundamental Duty regarding education of children?
A) 5-13 years
B) 6-14 years
C) 7-15 years
D) 8-16 years
Show Answer
Answer: B) 6-14 years
171. Which ministry administers the Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram?
A) Ministry of Rural Development
B) Ministry of Social Justice
C) Ministry of Minority Affairs
D) Ministry of Home Affairs
Show Answer
Answer: C) Ministry of Minority Affairs
172. What is the minority population percentage requirement in the catchment area for PMJVK coverage?
A) Exceeds 20%
B) Exceeds 25%
C) Exceeds 30%
D) Exceeds 35%
Show Answer
Answer: B) Exceeds 25%
173. What is the radius requirement for the catchment area under PMJVK?
A) 10 km
B) 15 km
C) 20 km
D) 25 km
Show Answer
Answer: B) 15 km
174. Which Article states that law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts?
A) Article 140
B) Article 141
C) Article 142
D) Article 143
Show Answer
Answer: B) Article 141
175. What is the binding legal principle in a judgment called?
A) Stare decisis
B) Ratio decidendi
C) Obiter dicta
D) Res judicata
Show Answer
Answer: B) Ratio decidendi
176. Which city will host the 2030 Commonwealth Games in India?
A) Mumbai
B) Bengaluru
C) Ahmedabad
D) Hyderabad
Show Answer
Answer: C) Ahmedabad
177. When were the first Commonwealth Games held?
A) 1926
B) 1930
C) 1934
D) 1938
Show Answer
Answer: B) 1930
178. Where were the first Commonwealth Games held?
A) London, UK
B) Sydney, Australia
C) Hamilton, Canada
D) Auckland, New Zealand
Show Answer
Answer: C) Hamilton, Canada
179. When was International IDEA established?
A) 1993
B) 1995
C) 1997
D) 1999
Show Answer
Answer: B) 1995
180. Where is International IDEA headquartered?
A) Geneva, Switzerland
B) Brussels, Belgium
C) Stockholm, Sweden
D) Oslo, Norway
Show Answer
Answer: C) Stockholm, Sweden
181. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a concern by the Supreme Court regarding online content?
A) Virality and velocity of harmful posts
B) Adult content access by minors
C) Lack of regional language content
D) Unregulated user-generated content channels
Show Answer
Answer: C) Lack of regional language content
182. What verification method did the Supreme Court suggest for accessing adult content?
A) Email verification
B) Mobile OTP
C) Aadhaar or PAN-based age verification
D) Biometric authentication
Show Answer
Answer: C) Aadhaar or PAN-based age verification
183. Which Act criminalizes defamation, obscenity, and incitement to violence in the digital space?
A) IT Act, 2000
B) Indian Penal Code, 1860
C) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023
D) Information Technology Act, 2021
Show Answer
Answer: C) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023
184. What year were the IT Rules requiring intermediaries to appoint grievance officers issued?
A) 2019
B) 2020
C) 2021
D) 2022
Show Answer
Answer: C) 2021
185. What grade did the IMF assign to India for National Accounts Statistics?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
Show Answer
Answer: C) C
186. What does an IMF ‘C’ grade indicate?
A) Data fully sufficient for surveillance
B) Minor issues but broadly adequate
C) Noticeable shortcomings that hinder surveillance
D) Serious deficiencies significantly obstructing surveillance
Show Answer
Answer: C) Noticeable shortcomings that hinder surveillance
187. What is India’s current base year for GDP calculations?
A) 2009-10
B) 2010-11
C) 2011-12
D) 2012-13
Show Answer
Answer: C) 2011-12
188. Which index does India lack that is widely used globally for measuring producer prices?
A) Consumer Price Index (CPI)
B) Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
C) Producer Price Index (PPI)
D) Industrial Production Index (IPI)
Show Answer
Answer: C) Producer Price Index (PPI)
189. Which survey did the IMF stress should be integrated for better data sources?
A) Annual Survey of Industries
B) Household Consumption and Expenditure Survey
C) Economic Census
D) Agricultural Census
Show Answer
Answer: B) Household Consumption and Expenditure Survey
190. What adjustment is lacking in India’s quarterly national accounts according to IMF?
A) Inflation adjustment
B) Currency adjustment
C) Seasonal adjustment
D) Population adjustment
Show Answer
Answer: C) Seasonal adjustment
191. How many operational nuclear reactors does India currently have?
A) 20
B) 22
C) 24
D) 26
Show Answer
Answer: C) 24
192. What is the combined capacity of India’s nuclear reactors?
A) 6.8 GW
B) 7.8 GW
C) 8.8 GW
D) 9.8 GW
Show Answer
Answer: C) 8.8 GW
193. What percentage of India’s power generation comes from nuclear energy?
A) 1%
B) 2%
C) 3%
D) 4%
Show Answer
Answer: B) 2%
194. What is India’s nuclear power target by 2032?
A) 18 GW
B) 20 GW
C) 22 GW
D) 25 GW
Show Answer
Answer: C) 22 GW
195. What is India’s nuclear power target by 2047?
A) 75 GW
B) 85 GW
C) 100 GW
D) 125 GW
Show Answer
Answer: C) 100 GW
196. When was the Atomic Energy Act enacted?
A) 1960
B) 1962
C) 1964
D) 1966
Show Answer
Answer: B) 1962
197. When was the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act enacted?
A) 2008
B) 2010
C) 2012
D) 2014
Show Answer
Answer: B) 2010
198. What is the operator liability limit under CLNDA?
A) Up to ₹1,000 crore
B) Up to ₹1,200 crore
C) Up to ₹1,500 crore
D) Up to ₹2,000 crore
Show Answer
Answer: C) Up to ₹1,500 crore
199. Which organization currently monopolizes reactor operations in India?
AA) BARC
B) DAE
C) NPCIL
D) IREL
Show Answer
Answer: C) NPCIL
200. How many years does it typically take to build nuclear plants?
A) 5-7 years
B) 7-10 years
C) 10-12 years
D) 12-15 years
Show Answer
Answer: B) 7-10 years
201. By which year does Phase 1 of the Army’s transformation plan extend?
A) 2030
B) 2032
C) 2035
D) 2037
Show Answer
Answer: B) 2032
202. Which of the following is NOT one of the four guiding principles (springboards)?
A) Atmanirbharta (Self-Reliance)
B) Anusandhan (Innovation)
C) Anukulan (Adaptation)
D) Antariksh (Space)
Show Answer
Answer: D) Antariksh (Space)
203. What is Phase 1 called in the Army’s transformation plan?
A) Decade of Innovation
B) Decade of Transformation
C) Decade of Modernization
D) Decade of Integration
Show Answer
Answer: B) Decade of Transformation
24. What is the focus of Phase 2 (2032-2037)?
A) Rapid capability enhancement
B) Consolidation
C) Full integration
D) Technology development
Show Answer
Answer: B) Consolidation
205. What is the final phase (2037-2047) aimed at achieving?
A) Modern Army
B) Technology-driven Army
C) Fully Integrated Future Force
D) Self-reliant Army
Show Answer
Answer: C) Fully Integrated Future Force
206. Which company developed Vikram-1?
A) Agnikul Cosmos
B) Skyroot Aerospace
C) Bellatrix Aerospace
D) Dhruva Space
Show Answer
Answer: B) Skyroot Aerospace
207. Where is the company that developed Vikram-1 based?
A) Bengaluru
B) Chennai
C) Hyderabad
D) Mumbai
Show Answer
Answer: C) Hyderabad
208. What is Vikram-1’s payload capacity to Low Earth Orbit (LEO)?
A) 250 kg
B) 300 kg
C) 350 kg
D) 400 kg
Show Answer
Answer: C) 350 kg
209. What is Vikram-1’s payload capacity to Sun-Synchronous Orbit (SSO)?
A) 220 kg
B) 240 kg
C) 260 kg
D) 280 kg
Show Answer
Answer: C) 260 kg
210. How many stages does the Vikram-1 rocket have?
A) 2 stages
B) 3 stages
C) 4 stages
D) 5 stages
Show Answer
Answer: C) 4 stages
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