Practice the August 2025 4th Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the fourth week of August 2025.
The Current Affairs Quiz of 22 to 31 August features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.
4th Week of August 2025: Current Affairs Quiz
1. The Agni-5 missile test was conducted under the supervision of:
(a) Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
(b) Strategic Forces Command (SFC)
(c) Nuclear Command Authority (NCA)
(d) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO
Show Answer
Answer: b) Strategic Forces Command (SFC)
2. Agni-5 is powered by:
(a) Two-stage liquid-fuel propulsion system
(b) Three-stage solid-fuel propulsion system
(c) Four-stage hybrid propulsion system
(d) Single-stage solid-fuel system
Show Answer
Answer: b) Three-stage solid-fuel propulsion system
3. The successful test of Agni-5 places India among countries with MIRV-capable IRBMs alongside:
(a) United States, Russia, China
(b) United States, Russia, China, France
(c) United States, Russia, China, United Kingdom
(d) United States, Russia, China, France, United Kingdom
Show Answer
Answer: b) United States, Russia, China, France
4. According to the classification by range, Agni-5 with over 5,000 km range falls under:
(a) Medium-Range Ballistic Missile
(b) Intermediate-Range Ballistic Missile
(c) Long-Range Intercontinental Ballistic Missile
(d) Strategic Ballistic Missile
Show Answer
Answer: b) Intermediate-Range Ballistic Missile
5. The Parliamentary Standing Committee’s 370th report recommended reservation quotas in private HEIs as:
(a) 25% OBCs, 15% SCs, 7.5% STs
(b) 27% OBCs, 15% SCs, 7.5% STs
(c) 27% OBCs, 12% SCs, 8% STs
(d) 30% OBCs, 15% SCs, 7.5% STs
Show Answer
Answer: b) 27% OBCs, 15% SCs, 7.5% STs
6. What percentage of India’s colleges are private unaided according to the document?
(a) 60.3%
(b) 63.5%
(c) 65.3%
(d) 67.8%
Show Answer
Answer: c) 65.3%
7. The Supreme Court case that upheld the constitutional validity of Article 15(5) was:
(a) Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (1992)
(b) Pramati Educational and Cultural Trust v. Union of India (2014)
(c) Ashoka Kumar Thakur v. Union of India (2008)
(d) T.M.A. Pai Foundation v. State of Karnataka (2002)
Show Answer
Answer: b) Pramati Educational and Cultural Trust v. Union of India (2014)
8. Article 15(5) allows reservation in private institutions except:
(a) Professional institutions
(b) Technical institutions
(c) Minority institutions
(d) Medical institutions
Show Answer
Answer: c) Minority institutions
9. The committee recommended that costs of implementing reservation in private HEIs should be:
(a) Borne by the private institutions themselves
(b) Shared between government and institutions
(c) Borne by the State, similar to RTE Act 2009
(d) Funded through student fee structure
Show Answer
Answer: c) Borne by the State, similar to RTE Act 2009
10. BITS Pilani’s 2024-25 enrollment showed what percentage of SC students?
(a) 0.5%
(b) 0.8%
(c) 1.2%
(d) 10%
Show Answer
Answer: a) 0.5%
11. How many bills were introduced regarding removal of ministers facing criminal charges?
(a) Two bills
(b) Three bills
(c) Four bills
(d) Five bills
Show Answer
Answer: b) Three bills
12. The trigger for removal under the proposed bills is:
(a) Arrest and 15 consecutive days detention
(b) Arrest and 30 consecutive days detention
(c) Conviction in any criminal case
(d) Framing of charges in serious cases
Show Answer
Answer: b) Arrest and 30 consecutive days detention
13. The bills propose amendments to which constitutional articles?
(a) Articles 74, 163, 239
(b) Articles 75, 164, 239AA
(c) Articles 76, 165, 240
(d) Articles 77, 166, 241
Show Answer
Answer: b) Articles 75, 164, 239AA
14. If no action is taken by the 31st day of detention, what happens?
(a) Case is referred to judiciary
(b) Minister gets automatic bail
(c) Office automatically falls vacant
(d) Parliament must vote
Show Answer
Answer: c) Office automatically falls vacant
15. According to Section 8 of RPA 1951, legislators are disqualified upon conviction if sentenced to imprisonment of:
(a) 1 year or more
(b) 2 years or more
(c) 3 years or more
(d) 5 years or more
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2 years or more
16. The bilateral trade between India and EAEU reached what amount in 2024?
(a) USD 65 billion
(b) USD 67 billion
(c) USD 69 billion
(d) USD 71 billion
Show Answer
Answer: c) USD 69 billion
17. Russia currently supplies what percentage of India’s total oil imports by volume?
(a) 25-30%
(b) 30-35%
(c) 35-40%
(d) 40-45%
Show Answer
Answer: c) 35-40%
18. The EAEU was established under which treaty?
(a) Treaty on the Eurasian Economic Union (2012)
(b) Treaty on the Eurasian Economic Union (2014)
(c) Treaty on the Eurasian Economic Union (2015)
(d) Treaty on the Eurasian Economic Union (2016)
Show Answer
Answer: b) Treaty on the Eurasian Economic Union (2014)
19. Which country is NOT a member of the EAEU?
(a) Kazakhstan
(b) Kyrgyzstan
(c) Uzbekistan
(d) Armenia
Show Answer
Answer: c) Uzbekistan
20. The India-EAEU FTA is expected to particularly benefit:
(a) Large corporations
(b) Public sector enterprises
(c) Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs)
(d) Multinational companies
Show Answer
Answer: c) Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs)
21. The Online Gaming Bill 2025 was introduced with the President’s recommendation under:
(a) Article 115(1) and 115(3)
(b) Article 116(1) and 116(3)
(c) Article 117(1) and 117(3)
(d) Article 118(1) and 118(3)
Show Answer
Answer: c) Article 117(1) and 117(3)
22. Which category of online games is completely banned under the bill?
(a) e-Sports
(b) Online Social Games
(c) Online Money Games
(d) All of the above
Show Answer
Answer: c) Online Money Games
23. e-Sports outcomes are determined by:
(a) Only luck and chance
(b) Physical dexterity, skill, and mental agility
(c) Only monetary investment
(d) Random algorithms
Show Answer
Answer: b) Physical dexterity, skill, and mental agility
24. The bill establishes which new regulatory mechanism?
(a) Gaming Regulatory Commission
(b) Online Gaming Authority
(c) Digital Games Board
(d) Electronic Sports Council
Show Answer
Answer: b) Online Gaming Authority
25. The International Solar Alliance plans to establish a GCC in India envisioned as:
(a) Solar Innovation Hub
(b) Clean Energy Valley
(c) Silicon Valley for Solar
(d) Renewable Energy Center
Show Answer
Answer: c) Silicon Valley for Solar
26. Lipulekh Pass is located in which Indian state?
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Uttarakhand
(c) Sikkim
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
Show Answer
Answer: b) Uttarakhand
27. Nepal’s constitutional amendment in 2020 claimed which areas?
(a) Limpiyadhura, Lipulekh, Kalapani
(b) Limpiyadhura, Lipulekh, Kalimpong
(c) Lipulekh, Kalapani, Nathu La
(d) Kalapani, Lipulekh, Shipki La
Show Answer
Answer: a) Limpiyadhura, Lipulekh, Kalapani
28. Article 30(1) of the Constitution grants which right to minorities?
(a) Right to conserve language and culture
(b) Right to establish and administer educational institutions
(c) Right against discrimination in admissions
(d) Right to receive government aid
Show Answer
Answer: b) Right to establish and administer educational institutions
29. The Uttarakhand Minority Education Bill, 2025 seeks to:
(a) Establish new Madrasa Boards
(b) Abolish the Madrasa Board and replace it with Minority Education Authority
(c) Merge all minority institutions
(d) Transfer Madrasas to central government
Show Answer
Answer: b) Abolish the Madrasa Board and replace it with Minority Education Authority
30. For Union Ministers, who recommends removal to the President?
((a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Home Minister
Show Answer
Answer: c) Prime Minister
31. According to NOTTO data (2019-2023), what percentage of living donors were women?
a) 59.8%
b) 63.8%
c) 67.8%
d) 71.8%
Show Answer
Answer: b) 63.8%
32. The percentage of male recipients in organ transplantation during 2019-2023 was:
a) 65.8%
b) 67.8%
c) 69.8%
d) 73.8%
Show Answer
Answer: c) 69.8%
33. World Organ Donation Day is observed on:
a) 3rd August
b) 13th August
c) 23rd August
d) 31st August
Show Answer
Answer: b) 13th August
34. NOTTO has declared which month as Organ Donation Month?
a) June
b) July
c) August
d) September
Show Answer
Answer: b) July
35. The Transplantation of Human Organs Act was enacted in:
a) 1992
b) 1994
c) 1996
d) 1998
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1994
36. India’s trade deficit with Russia post-2022 is approximately:
d) $65+ billiona) $50+ billion
b) $55+ billion
c) $60+ billion
d) $65+ billion
Show Answer
Answer: c) $60+ billion
37. Russia’s share in India’s oil imports post-2022 increased to:
a) 30-35%
b) 35-40%
c) 40-45%
d) 45-50%
Show Answer
Answer: b) 35-40%
38. Against DGCA’s sanctioned strength of 1,063 posts, how many are currently filled?
a) 453
b) 503
c) 553
d) 603
Show Answer
Answer: c) 553
39. India’s reliance on foreign MRO (Maintenance, Repair, Overhaul) facilities is:
a) 75%
b) 80%
c) 85%
d) 90%
Show Answer
Answer: c) 85%
40. Which organization is responsible for setting security standards for civil flights in India?
a) DGCA
b) AAI
c) BCAS
d) Ministry of Civil Aviation
Show Answer
Answer: c) BCAS
41. The Parliamentary panel recommended introducing which system for Air Traffic Controllers?
a) Automated Traffic Management System (ATMS)
b) Fatigue Risk Management System (FRMS)
c) Digital Air Control System (DACS)
d) Integrated Flight Management System (IFMS)
Show Answer
Answer: b) Fatigue Risk Management System (FRMS)
42. DGCA enforces compliance with standards set by which international organization?
a) IATA
b) ICAO
c) IOSA
d) ACSA
Show Answer
Answer: c) IOSA
43. Tiger population in India increased from 2,967 in 2018 to _ in 2022:
a) 3,582
b) 3,642
c) 3,682
d) 3,782
Show Answer
Answer: c) 3,682
44. The annual growth rate of tigers in consistently monitored habitats is:
a) 5.1%
b) 6.1%
c) 7.1%
d) 8.1%
Show Answer
Answer: b) 6.1%
45. India currently hosts how many tiger reserves?
a) 54
b) 56
c) 58
d) 60
Show Answer
Answer: c) 58
46. Which tiger reserve became India’s second-largest after recent expansion?
a) Corbett Tiger Reserve
b) Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve
c) Sundarbans Tiger Reserve
d) Kanha Tiger Reserve
Show Answer
Answer: c) Sundarbans Tiger Reserve
47. NTCA has restricted tiger corridors to how many “least-cost pathways”?
a) 28
b) 30
c) 32
d) 35
Show Answer
Answer: c) 32
48. The Khelo India Water Sports Festival at Dal Lake featured athletes from:
a) 32 states and union territories
b) 34 states and union territories
c) 36 states and union territories
d) 38 states and union territories
Show Answer
Answer: c) 36 states and union territories
49. Dal Lake covers an area of approximately:
a) 15 sq km
b) 18 sq km
c) 21 sq km
d) 24 sq km
Show Answer
Answer: b) 18 sq km
50. The mascot of Khelo India Water Sports Festival was inspired by:
a) Himalayan Eagle
b) Himalayan Kingfisher
c) Snow Leopard
d) Kashmir Stag
Show Answer
Answer: b) Himalayan Kingfisher
51. CCPA imposed a penalty of _ on Rapido for misleading advertisements:
a) ₹8 lakh
b) ₹10 lakh
c) ₹12 lakh
d) ₹15 lakh
Show Answer
Answer: b) ₹10 lakh
52. Which section of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 deals specifically with misleading advertisements?
a) Section 19
b) Section 20
c) Section 21
d) Section 22
Show Answer
Answer: c) Section 21
53. The Piprahwa relics were excavated in 1898 by:
a) Alexander Cunningham
b) W.C. Peppé
c) John Marshall
d) Mortimer Wheeler
Show Answer
Answer: b) W.C. Peppé
54. Piprahwa village is located in which district of Uttar Pradesh?
a) Kapilvastu
b) Siddharth Nagar
c) Siddharthnagar
d) Basti
Show Answer
Answer: c) Siddharthnagar
55. The planned Buddhist theme park at Piprahwa will cover:
a) 15 hectares
b) 20 hectares
c) 25 hectares
d) 30 hectares
Show Answer
Answer: b) 20 hectares
56. Uranus’s newly discovered 29th moon, S/2025 U1, has a diameter of approximately:
a) 8 km
b) 10 km
c) 12 km
d) 15 km
Show Answer
Answer: b) 10 km
57. Uranus was first identified as a planet in:
a) 1779
b) 1781
c) 1783
d) 1785
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1781
58. Iran’s ‘Sustainable Power 1404’ exercise was conducted in:
a) Persian Gulf and Strait of Hormuz
b) Northern Indian Ocean and Sea of Oman
c) Caspian Sea and Gulf of Oman
d) Arabian Sea and Red Sea
Show Answer
Answer: b) Northern Indian Ocean and Sea of Oman
59. The Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps Navy (IRGCN) controls:
a) Gulf of Oman and Indian Ocean
b) Persian Gulf and Strait of Hormuz
c) Caspian Sea and Arabian Sea
d) Red Sea and Gulf of Aden
Show Answer
Answer: b) Persian Gulf and Strait of Hormuz
60. The cruise missiles demonstrated during Iran’s exercise included:
a) Fateh and Zolfaghar
b) Nasir and Qadir
c) Sejjil and Shahab
d) Emad and Khorramshahr
Show Answer
Answer: b) Nasir and Qadir
61. What is the revised bilateral trade target between India and Russia by 2030?
A) USD 50 billion
B) USD 65.7 billion
C) USD 100 billion
D) USD 150 billion
Show Answer
Answer: C) USD 100 billion
62. Which transport corridor was NOT mentioned as a focus area for India-Russia connectivity enhancement?
A) International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC)
B) Chennai-Vladivostok Eastern Maritime Corridor
C) Northern Sea Route
D) India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway
Show Answer
Answer: D) India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway
63. According to the Supreme Court’s modified guidelines on stray dog management, what is prohibited?
A) Adopting stray dogs
B) Feeding stray dogs on streets and in open public spaces
C) Sterilizing stray dogs
D) Vaccinating stray dogs
Show Answer
Answer: B) Feeding stray dogs on streets and in open public spaces
64. What percentage of global rabies deaths does India contribute to?
A) 25%
B) 30%
C) 36%
D) 40%
Show Answer
Answer: C) 36%
65. Under which programme did Kerala achieve 100% digital literacy?
A) Digital India
B) Akshaya Project
C) Digi Keralam
D) Common Services Centres
Show Answer
Answer: C) Digi Keralam
66. What is the definition of a digitally literate household according to the content?
A) All members can use computers
B) At least one member aged 18+ can operate a computer and use internet
C) At least one member aged 5+ can operate a computer and use internet
D) Household has internet connection
Show Answer
Answer: C) At least one member aged 5+ can operate a computer and use internet
67. What is the payload capacity of ISRO’s Lunar Module Launch Vehicle (LMLV) to Low Earth Orbit?
A) 27 tonnes
B) 40 tonnes
C) 80 tonnes
D) 100 tonnes
Show Answer
Answer: C) 80 tonnes
68. By which year is ISRO’s LMLV expected to be operational?
A) 2030
B) 2035
C) 2040
D) 2045
Show Answer
Answer: B) 2035
69. After the recent expansion, Sundarbans Tiger Reserve ranks which position among India’s tiger reserves by size?
A) First
B) Second
C) Seventh
D) Third
Show Answer
Answer: B) Second
70. Which tiger reserve is currently the largest in India?
A) Sundarbans Tiger Reserve
B) Corbett Tiger Reserve
C) Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve
D) Ranthambore Tiger Reserve
Show Answer
Answer: C) Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve
71. Under which section of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, are tiger reserves declared?
A) Section 38V
B) Section 38W
C) Section 21A
D) Section 35A
Show Answer
Answer: A) Section 38V
72. The Integrated Food Security Phase Classification (IPC) was developed in which year?
A) 2000
B) 2004
C) 2008
D) 2010
Show Answer
Answer: B) 2004
13. The IPC was originally developed by which organization in Somalia?
A) WHO
B) UNESCO
C) Food Security and Nutrition Analysis Unit (FSNAU)
D) World Food Programme
Show Answer
Answer: C) Food Security and Nutrition Analysis Unit (FSNAU)
74. The Registrar General of India functions under which ministry?
A) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
B) Ministry of Home Affairs
C) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
D) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
Show Answer
Answer: B) Ministry of Home Affairs
75. What does SMILE scheme stand for?
A) Support for Marginalized Individuals for Life and Education
B) Support for Marginalized Individuals for Livelihood and Enterprise
C) Social Mobilization for Individual Life Enhancement
D) Social Mission for Individual Learning and Empowerment
Show Answer
Answer: B) Support for Marginalized Individuals for Livelihood and Enterprise
76. Which startup collaborated with Maharashtra government for hyperloop development?
A) Virgin Hyperloop
B) Hyperloop Transportation Technologies
C) TuTr Hyperloop Pvt. Ltd
D) SpaceX Hyperloop
Show Answer
Answer: C) TuTr Hyperloop Pvt. Ltd
77. What is the theoretical maximum speed potential of hyperloop technology?
A) 800 km/h
B) 1,000 km/h
C) 1,200 km/h
D) 1,500 km/h
Show Answer
Answer: C) 1,200 km/h
78. Who originally proposed the hyperloop concept?
A) Elon Musk
B) Richard Branson
C) Jeff Bezos
D) Larry Page
Show Answer
Answer: A) Elon Musk
79. What is the estimated project cost for India’s Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA)?
A) ₹10,000 crore
B) ₹15,000 crore
C) ₹20,000 crore
D) ₹25,000 crore
Show Answer
Answer: B) ₹15,000 crore
80. When is the AMCA prototype expected to be developed?
A) 2026-27
B) 2028-29
C) 2030-31
D) 2032-33
Show Answer
Answer: B) 2028-29
81. The Drake Passage is located between which two geographical features?
A) Cape Horn and Falkland Islands
B) Cape Horn and South Shetland Islands
C) Argentina and Chile mainland
D) Antarctica and South America
Show Answer
Answer: B) Cape Horn and South Shetland Islands
82. The Drake Passage is named after which historical figure?
A) Sir Francis Drake
B) Captain James Cook
C) Ferdinand Magellan
D) Vasco da Gama
Show Answer
Answer: A) Sir Francis Drake
83. In which year was the Asia-Pacific Institute for Broadcasting Development (AIBD) founded?
A) 1975
B) 1977
C) 1979
D) 1981
Show Answer
Answer: B) 1977
84. Where is the AIBD secretariat located?
A) Bangkok, Thailand
B) New Delhi, India
C) Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia
D) Jakarta, Indonesia
Show Answer
Answer: C) Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia
85. Which organization represents India’s Ministry of Information & Broadcasting in AIBD activities?
A) Doordarshan
B) All India Radio
C) Prasar Bharati
D) Indian Broadcasting Foundation
Show Answer
Answer: C) Prasar Bharati
86. Rampage missiles are developed by which company?
A) Rafael Advanced Defense Systems
B) Israel Aerospace Industries (IAI)
C) Elbit Systems
D) Israel Military Industries
Show Answer
Answer: B) Israel Aerospace Industries (IAI)
87. What is the approximate length of the Druzhba Pipeline?
A) 3,500 km
B) 4,500 km
C) 5,500 km
D) 6,500 km
Show Answer
Answer: C) 5,500 km
88. Which constitutional article empowers municipalities to regulate stray animal population?
A) Article 243W
B) Article 51A(g)
C) Article 21
D) Article 48A
Show Answer
Answer: A) Article 243W
89. According to the 2019 livestock census, approximately how many stray dogs are there in India?
A) 1 crore
B) 1.5 crore
C) 2 crore
D) 2.5 crore
Show Answer
Answer: B) 1.5 crore
90. Which generation of launch vehicle is ISRO’s GSLV?
A) Second generation
B) Third generation
C) Fourth generation
D) Fifth generation
Show Answer
Answer: C) Fourth generation
91. ISRO’s first Integrated Air Drop Test (IADT-01) for the Gaganyaan Mission was conducted to demonstrate which critical system?
a) Heat shield protection system
b) Parachute-based deceleration system
c) Emergency escape system
d) Life support system
Show Answer
Answer: b) Parachute-based deceleration system
92. The Gaganyaan Mission aims to send how many crew members into orbit?
a) 2 members
b) 3 members
c) 4 members
d) 5 members
Show Answer
Answer: b) 3 members
93. Which launch vehicle will be used for the Gaganyaan Mission?
a) PSLV
b) GSLV Mk-II
c) Human-rated LVM3 (HLVM3)
d) Small Satellite Launch Vehicle
Show Answer
Answer: c) Human-rated LVM3 (HLVM3)
94. Upon successful completion of Gaganyaan, India will become which number country to conduct a crewed space mission?
a) Third
b) Fourth
c) Fifth
d) Sixth
Show Answer
Answer: b) Fourth
95. What is the range of the Quick Reaction Surface-to-Air Missile (QRSAM) in the IADWS?
a) 3-20 km
b) 5-30 km
c) 10-40 km
d) 15-50 km
Show Answer
Answer: b) 5-30 km
96. Which organization developed the Very Short Range Air Defence System (VSHORADS)?
a) DRDO headquarters
b) Defence Research & Development Laboratory (DRDL)
c) Research Centre Imarat (RCI)
d) Centre for High Energy Systems and Sciences
Show Answer
Answer: c) Research Centre Imarat (RCI)
97. The Free Movement Regime (FMR) between India and Myanmar allows free movement up to how many kilometers on either side of the border?
a) 10 km
b) 12 km
c) 16 km
d) 20 km
Show Answer
Answer: c) 16 km
98. The Free Movement Regime between India and Myanmar was formally established in which year?
a) 2016
b) 2017
c) 2018
d) 2019
Show Answer
Answer: c) 2018
99. Under the new pass mechanism for India-Myanmar border movement (December 2024), the single-entry passes will be valid for how many days?
a) 5 days
b) 7 days
c) 10 days
d) 14 days
Show Answer
Answer: b) 7 days
100. The Kursk region is known for which significant World War II battle?
a) Battle of Stalingrad
b) Battle of Kursk
c) Battle of Moscow
d) Battle of Leningrad
Show Answer
Answer: b) Battle of Kursk
101. The Kursk Magnetic Anomaly is recognized as what type of geological feature?
a) The largest oil reserve in Russia
b) The deepest natural cave system
c) The largest magnetic anomaly in the world
d) The highest mountain range in European Russia
Show Answer
Answer: c) The largest magnetic anomaly in the world
102. The International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) was launched in which month and year?
a) March 2023
b) April 2023
c) May 2023
d) June 2023
Show Answer
Answer: b) April 2023
103. How many big cat species does the International Big Cat Alliance focus on protecting?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8
Show Answer
Answer: c) 7
104. The IBCA membership is open to how many range countries?
a) 85
b) 90
c) 95
d) 100
Show Answer
Answer: c) 95
105. The James Webb Space Telescope discovered which numbered moon of Uranus?
a) 27th
b) 28th
c) 29th
d) 30th
Show Answer
Answer: c) 29th
106. The James Webb Space Telescope was launched in which month and year?
a) November 2021
b) December 2021
c) January 2022
d) February 2022
Show Answer
Answer: b) December 2021
107. At which Lagrange Point does the James Webb Space Telescope orbit around the Sun?
a) L1
b) L2
c) L3
d) L4
Show Answer
Answer: b) L2
108. India’s proposed space station “Bharat Antariksh Station” is targeted for which year?
a) 2030
b) 2035
c) 2040
d) 2045
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2035
109. India aims to achieve a human landing on the Moon by which year?
a) 2035
b) 2040
c) 2045
d) 2047
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2040
110. Which organization serves as the nodal agency for the Integrated Air Defence Weapon System (IADWS) programme?
a) DRDO headquarters
b) Defence Research & Development Laboratory (DRDL)
c) Research Centre Imarat (RCI)
d) Centre for High Energy Systems and Sciences
Show Answer
Answer: b) Defence Research & Development Laboratory (DRDL)
111. The Ministry of Tribal Affairs has recommended a separate enumeration of PVTGs during which upcoming census?
a) 2025 Census
b) 2026 Census
c) 2027 Census
d) 2028 Census
Show Answer
Answer: c) 2027 Census
112. How many PVTGs were listed under Scheduled Tribes (STs) in the 2011 Census out of the total 75 groups?
a) Around 30
b) Around 35
c) Around 40
d) Around 45
Show Answer
Answer: c) Around 40
113. PVTGs were first formally recognised by which commission?
a) Mandal Commission
b) Dhebar Commission
c) Kaka Kalelkar Commission
d) Sachar Committee
Show Answer
Answer: b) Dhebar Commission
114. How many PVTGs are identified across India?
a) 65
b) 70
c) 75
d) 80
Show Answer
Answer: c) 75
115. According to recent surveys, what is the estimated population of PVTGs in India?
a) 40.56 lakh
b) 45.56 lakh
c) 50.56 lakh
d) 55.56 lakh
Show Answer
Answer: b) 45.56 lakh
116. Which state has the largest PVTG population in India?
a) Maharashtra
b) Andhra Pradesh
c) Madhya Pradesh
d) Odisha
Show Answer
Answer: c) Madhya Pradesh
117. The Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India (RGI) was established in which year?
a) 1947
b) 1948
c) 1949
d) 1950
Show Answer
Answer: c) 1949
118. The Housing & Population Census is conducted under which act?
a) Census Act, 1947
b) Census Act, 1948
c) Census Act, 1949
d) Census Act, 1950
Show Answer
Answer: b) Census Act, 1948
119. In the Supreme Court case regarding social media comedians, the Court clarified that Article 19(1)(a) does not protect which types of speech?
a) Political and religious speech
b) Commercial and prohibited speech
c) Educational and informational speech
d) Cultural and artistic speech
Show Answer
Answer: b) Commercial and prohibited speech
120. The landmark case Shreya Singhal v. Union of India was decided in which year?
a) 2013
b) 2014
c) 2015
d) 2016
Show Answer
Answer: c) 2015
121. Which section of the Information Technology Act, 2000 empowers the government to block online content?
a) Section 66A
b) Section 67A
c) Section 69A
d) Section 70A
Show Answer
Answer: c) Section 69A
122. Under the Forest Rights Act, 2006, who holds the exclusive authority to design Community Forest Resource Management Plans (CFRMPs)?
a) State Forest Department
b) Gram Sabhas through CFR Management Committees
c) District Collectors
d) Forest Range Officers
Show Answer
Answer: b) Gram Sabhas through CFR Management Committees
123. The Forest Rights Act, 2006 was enacted primarily to address historical injustices faced by which communities?
a) All rural communities
b) Forest-dwelling Scheduled Tribes and traditional forest dwellers
c) Agricultural communities
d) Urban displaced populations
Show Answer
Answer: b) Forest-dwelling Scheduled Tribes and traditional forest dwellers
124. The Dharti Aba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyaan was launched in which year?
a) 2021
b) 2022
c) 2023
d) 2024
Show Answer
Answer: c) 2023
125. The World Food Programme (WFP) is described as the world’s largest what type of organization?
a) Development organization
b) Humanitarian organization focused on food security
c) Agricultural research organization
d) International trade organization
Show Answer
Answer: b) Humanitarian organization focused on food security
126. The World Food Programme was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in which year?
a) 2018
b) 2019
c) 2020
d) 2021
Show Answer
Answer: c) 2020
127. In how many countries is the World Food Programme currently active?
a) 100+
b) 110+
c) 120+
d) 130+
Show Answer
Answer: c) 120+
128. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a criterion for PVTG identification?
a) Pre-agricultural level of technology
b) Low literacy rates
c) Urban migration patterns
d) Economic backwardness
Show Answer
Answer: c) Urban migration patterns
129. The PM-JANMAN programme focuses on PVTGs in how many districts?
a) 150+ districts
b) 180+ districts
c) 200+ districts
d) 250+ districts
Show Answer
Answer: c) 200+ districts
130. The case of Amish Devgan v. Union of India was decided in which year?
a) 2018
b) 2019
c) 2020
d) 2021
Show Answer
Answer: c) 2020
131. The Comprehensive Modular Survey: Education (CMS:E), 2025 was conducted as part of which round of the National Sample Survey (NSS)?
a) 78th round
b) 79th round
c) 80th round
d) 81st round
Show Answer
Answer: c) 80th round
132. According to the CMS:E survey, what percentage of total enrollments are accounted for by government schools?
a) 52.9%
b) 55.9%
c) 58.9%
d) 61.9%
Show Answer
Answer: b) 55.9%
133. What is the rural enrollment percentage in government schools according to the CMS:E survey?
a) 60%
b) 63%
c) 66%
d) 69%
Show Answer
Answer: c) 66%
134. What is the average expenditure per student in rural India according to the survey?
a) ₹7,382
b) ₹8,382
c) ₹9,382
d) ₹10,382
Show Answer
Answer: b) ₹8,382
135. What percentage of students are enrolled in private coaching during the academic year?
a) 25%
b) 27%
c) 29%
d) 31%
Show Answer
Answer: b) 27%
136. What percentage of students reported government scholarships as the primary funding source for school education?
a) 0.8%
b) 1.2%
c) 1.6%
d) 2.0%
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1.2%
137. The “e VITARA” is Suzuki’s first Made-in-India global strategic vehicle of which type?
a) Hybrid Electric Vehicle (HEV)
b) Plug-in Hybrid Electric Vehicle (PHEV)
c) Battery Electric Vehicle (BEV)
d) Fuel Cell Electric Vehicle (FCEV)
Show Answer
Answer: c) Battery Electric Vehicle (BEV)
138. What percentage of battery value is manufactured within India at the TDS Lithium-Ion Battery plant?
a) Over 70%
b) Over 75%
c) Over 80%
d) Over 85%
Show Answer
Answer: c) Over 80%
139. What percentage of total EV cost is typically constituted by batteries?
a) ~30%
b) ~35%
c) ~40%
d) ~45%
Show Answer
Answer: c) ~40%
140. Which organization has developed the India Electric Mobility Index (IEMI)?
a) Ministry of Heavy Industries
b) NITI Aayog
c) Central Electricity Authority
d) Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Show Answer
Answer: b) NITI Aayog
141. The National Designated Authority (NDA) for carbon markets has been established under which article of the Paris Agreement?
a) Article 6.2
b) Article 6.4
c) Article 6.6
d) Article 6.8
Show Answer
Answer: b) Article 6.4
142. How many members constitute the National Designated Authority (NDA) committee?
a) 17 members
b) 19 members
c) 21 members
d) 23 members
Show Answer
Answer: c) 21 members
143. In carbon markets, one carbon credit unit equals how much CO₂ or equivalent GHG?
a) 0.5 tonne
b) 1 tonne
c) 1.5 tonnes
d) 2 tonnes
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1 tonne
144. What is the additional tariff percentage implemented by the USA on Indian imports?
a) 20%
b) 25%
c) 30%
d) 35%
Show Answer
Answer: b) 25%
145. According to GTRI estimates, Indian product exports to the US may fall to what amount in 2025-26?
a) $45.6 billion
b) $47.6 billion
c) $49.6 billion
d) $51.6 billion
Show Answer
Answer: c) $49.6 billion
146. Which of the following sectors is NOT mentioned as most affected by US tariffs?
a) Gems and jewellery
b) Textiles and apparel
c) Information Technology services
d) Auto components
Show Answer
Answer: c) Information Technology services
147. INS Udaygiri and INS Himgiri belong to which project?
a) Project 15B
b) Project 17
c) Project 17A
d) Project 18
Show Answer
Answer: c) Project 17A
148. How many frigates are being built under Project 17A?
a) Five
b) Six
c) Seven
d) Eight
Show Answer
Answer: c) Seven
149. Project 17A frigates are configured with which propulsion system?
a) CODAD (Combined Diesel and Diesel)
b) CODOG (Combined Diesel or Gas)
c) COGAG (Combined Gas and Gas)
d) COGOG (Combined Gas or Gas)
Show Answer
Answer: b) CODOG (Combined Diesel or Gas)
150. Which scheme is suggested to be reinstated to provide low-cost credit for MSMEs during high interest periods?
a) Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme
b) Interest Equalisation Scheme
c) Export Credit Guarantee Corporation
d) Technology Upgradation Fund Scheme
Show Answer
Answer: b) Interest Equalisation Scheme
151. Which session of the India-Russia Inter-Governmental Commission was co-chaired during this visit?
a) 24th
b) 25th
c) 26th
d) 27th
Show Answer
Answer: c) 26th
152. Where was the India-Russia Inter-Governmental Commission held?
a) New Delhi
b) St. Petersburg
c) Moscow
d) Vladivostok
Show Answer
Answer: c) Moscow
153. What is the revised bilateral trade target between India and Russia by 2030?
a) USD 80 Billion
b) USD 90 Billion
c) USD 100 Billion
d) USD 120 Billion
Show Answer
Answer: c) USD 100 Billion
154. What was the bilateral trade volume between India and Russia in FY 2024-25?
a) USD 65.2 Billion
b) USD 68.7 Billion
c) USD 72.1 Billion
d) USD 75.3 Billion
Show Answer
Answer: b) USD 68.7 Billion
155. With which economic union did India sign Terms of Reference to launch FTA negotiations?
a) European Economic Union
b) Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU)
c) East Asian Economic Union
d) European Union
Show Answer
Answer: b) Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU)
156. Which three connectivity projects were focused on during the visit?
a) INSTC, Chennai-Vladivostok Corridor, Northern Sea Route
b) INSTC, Chabahar Port, Northern Sea Route
c) Chennai-Vladivostok Corridor, Chabahar Port, CPEC
d) Northern Sea Route, CPEC, INSTC
Show Answer
Answer: a) INSTC, Chennai-Vladivostok Corridor, Northern Sea Route
157. In which year did India and Russia sign the Treaty of Peace and Friendship?
a) 1970
b) 1971
c) 1972
d) 1973
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1971
158. After the dissolution of the Soviet Union, when did India and Russia enter into a new Treaty of Friendship and Cooperation?
a) 1991
b) 1992
c) 1993
d) 1994
Show Answer
Answer: c) 1993
159. Which missile defense system has Russia supplied to India?
a) S-300
b) S-400 Triumf
c) S-500
d) Pantsir
Show Answer
Answer: b) S-400 Triumf
160. Which fighter aircrafts are supplied by Russia to India?
a) MiG-29 and Su-30MKI
b) MiG-35 and Su-35
c) Su-27 and MiG-31
d) Su-57 and MiG-29
Show Answer
Answer: a) MiG-29 and Su-30MKI
161. INS Vikramaditya was formerly known as:
a) Admiral Kuznetsov
b) Admiral Gorshkov
c) Admiral Nakhimov
d) Admiral Ushakov
Show Answer
Answer: b) Admiral Gorshkov
162. The Chennai-Vladivostok Maritime Corridor is also known as:
a) Western Maritime Corridor
b) Eastern Maritime Corridor
c) Northern Maritime Corridor
d) Southern Maritime Corridor
Show Answer
Answer: b) Eastern Maritime Corridor
163. The Chennai-Vladivostok Maritime Corridor passes through which straits/seas?
a) Strait of Hormuz, Arabian Sea, Indian Ocean
b) Sea of Japan, South China Sea, Malacca Strait
c) Bering Strait, Pacific Ocean, Indian Ocean
d) Taiwan Strait, East China Sea, Bay of Bengal
Show Answer
Answer: b) Sea of Japan, South China Sea, Malacca Strait
164. By what percentage does the Chennai-Vladivostok Maritime Corridor aim to reduce transportation time to Russia?
a) 30%
b) 35%
c) 40%
d) 45%
Show Answer
Answer: c) 40%
165. The International North-South Transport Corridor was established in which year?
a) 1998
b) 1999
c) 2000
d) 2001
Show Answer
Answer: c) 2000
166. Where was the International North-South Transport Corridor agreement signed?
a) Moscow
b) Tehran
c) New Delhi
d) St. Petersburg
Show Answer
Answer: d) St. Petersburg
167.Which three countries originally established the International North-South Transport Corridor?
a) India, Russia, China
b) Iran, Russia, India
c) India, Russia, Kazakhstan
d) Iran, Russia, Turkey
Show Answer
Answer: b) Iran, Russia, India
168. What type of transportation route is the International North-South Transport Corridor?
a) Railway-only route
b) Road-only route
c) Multi-modal transportation route
d) Air transportation route
Show Answer
Answer: c) Multi-modal transportation route
169. Which nuclear power plant is being built in India with Russian cooperation?
a) Tarapur Nuclear Power Plant
b) Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant
c) Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant
d) Narora Nuclear Power Plant
Show Answer
Answer: b) Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant
170. What has India been buying in large amounts from Russia since the beginning of the war in Ukraine?
a) Natural Gas
b) Coal
c) Oil
d) Uranium
Show Answer
Answer: c) Oil
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