Practice the November 2025 3rd Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the second week of November 2025.
The Current Affairs Quiz of 15 to 21 November features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.
3rd Week of November 2025: Current Affairs Quiz
1. What percentage of global TB cases does India account for?
A) ~20%
B) ~25%
C) ~30%
D) ~35%
Show Answer
Answer: B) ~25%
2. What percentage of the world’s TB cases in 2024 were concentrated in 30 high-burden countries?
A) 77%
B) 82%
C) 87%
D) 92%
Show Answer
Answer: C) 87%
3. By what percentage did TB incidence rate reduce between 2015-2024?
A) 10%
B) 12%
C) 15%
D) 18%
Show Answer
Answer: C) 15%
4. By what percentage did TB deaths decline globally between 2015-2024?
A) 25%
B) 27%
C) 29%
D) 31%
Show Answer
Answer: C) 29%
5. Which bacteria causes tuberculosis?
A) Mycobacterium leprae
B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Mycobacterium avium
Show Answer
Answer: B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
6. Which two drugs define MDR-TB resistance?
A) Rifampicin and Ethambutol
B) Isoniazid and Pyrazinamide
C) Rifampicin and Isoniazid
D) Ethambutol and Isoniazid
Show Answer
Answer: C) Rifampicin and Isoniazid
7. Which existing acts will the Draft Seeds Bill, 2025 replace?
A) Seeds Act, 1956 and Seeds Order, 1973
B) Seeds Act, 1966 and Seeds (Control) Order, 1983
C) Seeds Act, 1976 and Seeds Order, 1993
D) Seeds Act, 1986 and Seeds Order, 2003
Show Answer
Answer: B) Seeds Act, 1966 and Seeds (Control) Order, 1983
8. What is the maximum fine for major offences under the Draft Seeds Bill?
A) ₹20 lakh
B) ₹25 lakh
C) ₹30 lakh
D) ₹35 lakh
Show Answer
Answer: C) ₹30 lakh
9.How many members can State Seed Committees have under the Draft Seeds Bill?
A) Up to 10 members
B) Up to 12 members
C) Up to 15 members
D) Up to 20 members
Show Answer
Answer: C) Up to 15 members
10. Which seeds are exempt from mandatory registration under the Draft Seeds Bill?
A) Hybrid varieties and GM seeds
B) Farmers’ varieties and seeds for export
C) Indigenous varieties and organic seeds
D) Certified seeds and foundation seeds
Show Answer
Answer: B) Farmers’ varieties and seeds for export
11. Where is COP30 being held?
A) Rio de Janeiro, Brazil
B) Brasília, Brazil
C) Belém, Brazil
D) São Paulo, Brazil
Show Answer
Answer: C) Belém, Brazil
12. What does BASIC stand for in the context of climate negotiations?
A) Belgium, Australia, Switzerland, Indonesia, China
B) Brazil, South Africa, India, China
C) Bangladesh, Saudi Arabia, Iran, China
D) Bolivia, Argentina, Spain, Italy, Canada
Show Answer
Answer: B) Brazil, South Africa, India, China
13.What is the minimum climate finance target per year by 2035 under the New Collective Quantified Goal (NCQG)?
A) $200 billion
B) $250 billion
C) $300 billion
D) $350 billion
Show Answer
Answer: C) $300 billion
14. What is the broader climate finance target per year by 2035 under NCQG?
A) $1.0 trillion
B) $1.1 trillion
C) $1.2 trillion
D) $1.3 trillion
Show Answer
Answer: D) $1.3 trillion
15. By how much does India demand current adaptation finance must increase?
A) Tenfold
B) Twelvefold
C) Fifteenfold
D) Twentyfold
Show Answer
Answer: C) Fifteenfold
16. Under the Glasgow Climate Pact (2021), how much per year was committed for adaptation by 2025?
A) $30 billion
B) $35 billion
C) $40 billion
D) $45 billion
Show Answer
Answer: C) $40 billion
17. How much land (in billion hectares) is required for Land-Based Carbon Removal according to current climate pledges?
A) 0.81 billion hectares
B) 0.91 billion hectares
C) 1.01 billion hectares
D) 1.11 billion hectares
Show Answer
Answer: C) 1.01 billion hectares
18.What is the IPCC-estimated mitigation potential of reforestation & afforestation per year?
A) 0.5-8.1 Gt CO2/year
B) 0.5-10.1 Gt CO2/year
C) 1.0-10.1 Gt CO2/year
D) 1.5-12.1 Gt CO2/year
Show Answer
Answer: 0.5-10.1 Gt CO2/year
19. Despite commitments to halt deforestation by 2030, how many hectares of forests per year may still be lost or degraded?
A) ~10 million ha
B) ~15 million ha
C) ~20 million ha
D) ~25 m
Show Answer
Answer: C) ~20 million ha
20.What does BECCS stand for?
A) Bioenergy with Carbon Collection & Storage
B) Bioenergy with Carbon Capture & Storage
C) Biomass Energy with Carbon Capture System
D) Biological Energy Carbon Capture Solution
Show Answer
Answer:B) Bioenergy with Carbon Capture & Storage
21.By what percentage did India’s CO2 emissions grow in 2025?
A) 0.8%
B) 1.0%
C) 1.4%
D) 1.8%
Show Answer
Answer: C) 1.4%
22. What is India’s global ranking among carbon emitters in 2024?
A) 1st
B) 2nd
C) 3rd
D) 4th
Show Answer
Answer: C) 3rd
23.What is India’s total CO2 emissions according to the Global Carbon Budget 2025?
A) 2.8 billion tonnes
B) 3.0 billion tonnes
C) 3.2 billion tonnes
D) 3.5 billion tonnes
Show Answer
Answer:C) 3.2 billion tonnes
24. What is India’s per capita CO2 emissions?
A) 1.8 tonnes/year
B) 2.0 tonnes/year
C) 2.2 tonnes/year
D) 2.5 tonnes/year
Show Answer
Answer: C) 2.2 tonnes/year
25.What is China’s CO2 emissions according to the Global Carbon Budget 2025?
A) 10 billion tonnes
B) 11 billion tonnes
C) 12 billion tonnes
D) 13 billion tonnes
Show Answer
Answer:C) 12 billion tonnes
26.In which state is Saranda Forest located?
A) Odisha
B) Chhattisgarh
C) West Bengal
D) Jharkhand
Show Answer
Answer:D) Jharkhand
27. What does “Saranda” mean?
A) Land of Five Hundred Hills
B) Land of Seven Hundred Hills
C) Land of Nine Hundred Hills
D) Land of One Thousand Hills
Show Answer
Answer:B) Land of Seven Hundred Hills
28. What is the dominant tree species in Saranda Forest?
A) Teak (Tectona grandis)
B) Sal (Shorea robusta)
C) Shisham (Dalbergia sissoo)
D) Bamboo (Bambusoideae)
Show Answer
Answer: B) Sal (Shorea robusta)
29. What is the Supreme Court-mandated mining ban radius around Saranda Forest?
A) 500 meters
B) 1 km
C) 2 km
D) 5 km
Show Answer
Answer: B) 1 km
30. At what altitude is the Mudh-Nyoma airbase located?
A) ~11,000 feet
B) ~12,000 feet
C) ~13,000 feet
D) ~14,000 feet
Show Answer
Answer: C) ~13,000 feet
31. When was the Digital Personal Data Protection Act enacted?
A) 2021
B) 2022
C) 2023
D) 2024
Show Answer
Answer: C) 2023
32. Which landmark case affirmed the Right to Privacy as a fundamental right?
A) Maneka Gandhi (1978)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) K.S. Puttaswamy (2017)
D) Shreya Singhal (2015)
Show Answer
Answer: C) K.S. Puttaswamy (2017)
33. What is the minimum age below which verifiable parental consent is required for data processing?
A) Below 16 years
B) Below 18 years
C) Below 21 years
D) Below 14 years
Show Answer
Answer: B) Below 18 years
34. Which body is established as the adjudicatory body under the DPDP Act?
A) Data Security Board
B) Data Protection Board
C) Digital Rights Commission
D) Privacy Protection Authority
Show Answer
Answer: B) Data Protection Board
35. Consent for data processing must be free, informed, specific, unambiguous, and:
A) Permanent
B) Revocable
C) Transferable
D) Conditional
Show Answer
Answer: B) Revocable
36. The DPDP Act applies to processing outside India if it involves:
A) Any international data transfer
B) Offering goods or services to individuals in India
C) Storage of data in foreign servers
D) International business operations
Show Answer
Answer: B) Offering goods or services to individuals in India
37. When is Janjatiya Gaurav Divas celebrated?
A) 9th June
B) 10th November
C) 15th November
D) 26th November
Show Answer
Answer: C) 15th November
38. In which year did the Government of India declare Janjatiya Gaurav Divas?
A) 2019
B) 2020
C) 2021
D) 2022
Show Answer
Answer: C) 2021
39. Where was Birsa Munda born?
A) Ranchi, Jharkhand
B) Ulihatu, Khunti district
C) Dumka, Jharkhand
D) Chaibasa, Jharkhand
Show Answer
Answer: B) Ulihatu, Khunti district
40. What was Birsa Munda’s birth name?
A) Daud Munda
B) David Munda
C) Dharam Munda
D) Devendra Munda
Show Answer
Answer: A) Daud Munda
41. Where is COP30 being held?
A) 1870
B) 1875
C) 1880
D) 1885
Show Answer
Answer: B) 1875
42. What is the name of the sect founded by Birsa Munda?
A) Mundait
B) Birsait
C) Ulgulan
D) Khuntkatti
Show Answer
Answer: B) Birsait
43. What does “Ulgulan” mean in the context of Munda Rebellion?
A) The Great Revolution
B) The Great Tumult
C) The Great Uprising
D) The Great Movement
Show Answer
Answer: B) The Great Tumult
44. When did Birsa Munda die?
A) 9 June 1900
B) 15 November 1900
C) 9 June 1901
D) 15 November 1901
Show Answer
Answer: A) 9 June 1900
45. What is the honorific title given to Birsa Munda meaning “Father of Earth”?
A) Dharti Mata
B) Dharti Putra
C) Dharti Aaba
D) Dharti Dev
Show Answer
Answer: C) Dharti Aaba
46. What were the Dikus in the context of Munda Rebellion?
A) British soldiers
B) Tribal chiefs
C) Outsiders: moneylenders, zamindars, missionaries
D) Local administrators
Show Answer
Answer: C) Outsiders: moneylenders, zamindars, missionaries
47. Which Act was formulated in 1903 recognizing Khuntkatti rights?
A) Land Tenure Act
B) Tenancy Act
C) Tribal Rights Act
D) Agricultural Act
Show Answer
Answer: B) Tenancy Act
48. Which Act of 1908 restricted transfer of tribal land to non-tribals?
A) Tribal Land Act, 1908
B) Jharkhand Land Act, 1908
C) Chotanagpur Tenancy Act, 1908
D) Munda Land Rights Act, 1908
Show Answer
Answer: C) Chotanagpur Tenancy Act, 1908 ✓
49. During which period did the Munda Rebellion occur?
A) 1890-1895
B) 1895-1900
C) 1900-1905
D) 1885-1890
Show Answer
Answer: B) 1895-1900
50. Where was the Belem Action Plan launched?
A) At COP29 in Baku
B) At COP30 in Belém, Brazil
C) At WHO Headquarters in Geneva
D) At UN Headquarters in New York
Show Answer
Answer: B) At COP30 in Belém, Brazil
51. How many deaths occur annually from extreme heat according to the plan?
A) 440,000+
B) 490,000+
C) 540,000+
D) 590,000+
Show Answer
Answer: C) 540,000+
52. What proportion of hospitals globally are at risk of climate-related disruptions?
A) 1 in 8
B) 1 in 10
C) 1 in 12
D) 1 in 15
Show Answer
Answer: C) 1 in 12
53. How many billion people are already living in highly climate-vulnerable areas?
A) 2.3-2.6 billion
B) 2.8-3.1 billion
C) 3.3-3.6 billion
D) 3.8-4.1 billion
Show Answer
Answer: C) 3.3-3.6 billion
54. How much higher risk do hospitals face from extreme weather events?
A) 31%
B) 36%
C) 41%
D) 46%
Show Answer
Answer: C) 41%
55. How much initial funding was pledged by philanthropies for the Belem Action Plan?
A) USD 200 million
B) USD 250 million
C) USD 300 million
D) USD 350 million
Show Answer
Answer: C) USD 300 million
56. How many philanthropies pledged funding for the Belem Action Plan?
A) 25
B) 30
C) 35
D) 40
Show Answer
Answer: C) 35 ✓
57. What type of political system does the U.S. follow that makes government shutdowns possible?
A) Parliamentary System
B) Presidential System ✓
C) Semi-Presidential System
D) Constitutional Monarchy
Show Answer
Answer: B) Presidential System
58. Under which Article does India use Vote-on-Account for temporary funding?
A) Article 112
B) Article 114
C) Article 116
D) Article 118
Show Answer
Answer: C) Article 116
59. What happens to federal employees during a government shutdown?
A) They continue working with full pay
B) They may face furlough or delayed salaries
C) They are permanently laid off
D) They are transferred to state jobs
Show Answer
Answer: B) They may face furlough or delayed salaries
60. When was the Colombo Security Conclave established?
A) 2018
B) 2019
C) 2020
D) 2021
Show Answer
Answer: C) 2020
61. What is the defining characteristic of “White Collar Terrorism”?
A) Terrorism by corporate executives only
B) Educated professionals using their expertise and networks for terrorism
C) Financial crimes by terrorists
D) Cyber attacks on white-collar industries
Show Answer
Answer: B) Educated professionals using their expertise and networks for terrorism
62. Which theory explains radicalization as stemming from perceived injustice or exclusion, not material
poverty?
A) Economic Deprivation Theory
B) Social Identity Theory
C) Relative Deprivation Theory
D) Cognitive Dissonance Theory
Show Answer
Answer: C) Relative Deprivation Theory
63. Which Act allows the designation of individuals as terrorists in India?
A) National Security Act, 1980
B) Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002
C) Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967
D) Armed Forces Special Powers Act, 1958
Show Answer
Answer: C) Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967
64. When was the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act enacted?
A) 1965
B) 1967
C) 1970
D) 1972
Show Answer
Answer: B) 1967
65. Which cell under NIA deals with terror funding and fake currency?
A) Financial Crimes Cell
B) Terror Funding & Fake Currency Cell (TFFC)
C) Money Laundering Cell
D) Economic Offences Cell
Show Answer
Answer: B) Terror Funding & Fake Currency Cell (TFFC)
66. What were the total agricultural losses from disasters between 1991-2023 according to the FAO report?
A) USD 2.86 trillion
B) USD 3.06 trillion
C) USD 3.26 trillion
D) USD 3.46 trillion
Show Answer
Answer: C) USD 3.26 trillion
67. Which region suffered the largest share (47%) of agricultural disaster losses?
A) Africa
B) South America
C) Europe
D) Asia
Show Answer
Answer: D) Asia
68. By how much do disasters reduce global food availability per person per day?
A) ~280 kcal
B) ~300 kcal
C) ~320 kcal
D) ~350 kcal
Show Answer
Answer: C) ~320 kcal
69. What were the losses from marine heatwaves between 1985-2022?
A) USD 5.6 billion
B) USD 6.6 billion
C) USD 7.6 billion
D) USD 8.6 billion
Show Answer
Answer: B) USD 6.6 billion
70. What percentage of global fisheries were affected by marine heatwaves?
A) 10%
B) 12%
C) 15%
D) 18%
Show Answer
Answer: C) 15%
71. Which Indian scheme promotes drone use for spraying and monitoring in agriculture?
A) Kisan Drone Scheme
B) Namo Drone Didi Scheme
C) Agri-Tech Drone Mission
D) Digital Farming Initiative
Show Answer
Answer: B) Namo Drone Didi Scheme
72. What does FASAL Project utilize for crop production estimation?
A) Ground observations only
B) Satellite data only
C) Satellite data + agro-meteorology + ground observations
D) AI and machine learning only
Show Answer
Answer: C) Satellite data + agro-meteorology + ground observations
73. How many developing countries and regions announced plans to establish climate and nature finance
platforms at COP30?
A) 10
B) 12
C) 14
D) 16
Show Answer
Answer: C) 14
74. When was the Green Climate Fund established?
A) COP15, Copenhagen, 2009
B) COP16, Cancún, 2010
C) COP21, Paris, 2015
D) COP26, Glasgow, 2021
Show Answer
Answer: B) COP16, Cancún, 2010
75. Where is the Green Climate Fund headquarters located?
A) Geneva, Switzerland
B) New York, USA
C) Songdo, Incheon, Republic of Korea
D) Paris, France
Show Answer
Answer: C) Songdo, Incheon, Republic of Korea
76. Under which Article of the Paris Agreement does the GCF operate?
A) Article 6
B) Article 7
C) Article 9
D) Article 13
Show Answer
Answer: C) Article 9
77. Which organizations will the IFCCT be institutionally independent from?
A) UN and IMF
B) WTO and UNFCCC ✓
C) World Bank and IMF
D) UNEP and FAO
Show Answer
Answer: B) WTO and UNFCCC
78. Which country will co-chair the IFCCT along with a developed country partner?
A) India
B) China
C) Brazil
D) South Africa
Show Answer
Answer: C) Brazil
79. What will the IFCCT NOT do?
A) Facilitate dialogue
B) Create neutral space
C) Negotiate binding outcomes
D) Enhance transparency
Show Answer
Answer: C) Negotiate binding outcomes
80. Which rocket will launch the ESCAPADE mission?
A) SpaceX Falcon 9
B) Blue Origin’s New Glenn
C) NASA’s SLS
D) ULA’s Vulcan
Show Answer
Answer: B) Blue Origin’s New Glenn
81. What is the primary objective of NASA’s ESCAPADE mission?
A) Search for water on Mars
B) Study interaction between solar wind and Mars’ magnetic environment
C) Test Mars landing technology
D) Map Martian surface composition
Show Answer
Answer: B) Study interaction between solar wind and Mars’ magnetic environment
82. Where does the ESCAPADE spacecraft first enter a “loiter orbit”?
A) Earth’s Lagrange Point 1 (L1)
B) Earth’s Lagrange Point 2 (L2)
C) Mars orbit
D) Earth-Moon L4
Show Answer
Answer: B) Earth’s Lagrange Point 2 (L2)
83. What special characteristic do Lagrange Points have?
A) High radiation levels
B) Gravitational forces balance spacecraft orbital motion
C) Direct sunlight availability
D) Zero gravity zones
Show Answer
Answer: B) Gravitational forces balance spacecraft orbital motion
84. What is the initial capitalization target for SOIB by end of 2026?
A) USD 150 million
B) USD 175 million
C) USD 200 million
D) USD 250 million
Show Answer
Answer: C) USD 200 million
85. Which UN organizations created the Systematic Observations Financing Facility (SOFF)?
A) WHO, FAO, UNDP
B) UNEP, WMO, UNDP
C) UNESCO, WMO, FAO
D) UNICEF, UNEP, WHO
Show Answer
Answer: B) UNEP, WMO, UNDP
86. How many LDCs and SIDS will SOIB help meet GBON standards?
A) 25
B) 30
C) 35
D) 40
Show Answer
Answer: C) 35
87. By what percentage does the Food Waste Breakthrough aim to reduce methane emissions by 2030?
A) Up to 5%
B) Up to 7%
C) Up to 10%
D) Up to 12%
Show Answer
Answer: B) Up to 7%
88. How much funding did the Global Environment Facility commit to the Food Waste Breakthrough?
A) USD 2 million
B) USD 3 million
C) USD 5 million
D) USD 7 million
Show Answer
Answer: B) USD 3 million
89. Which SDG goal relates directly to food waste reduction?
A) SDG 11.3
B) SDG 12.3
C) SDG 13.3
D) SDG 14.3
Show Answer
Answer: B) SDG 12.3
90. In which district of Gujarat is Ambaji Marble primarily quarried?
A) Ahmedabad
B) Banaskantha
C) Kutch
D) Surat
Show Answer
Answer: B) Banaskantha
91. By which Constitutional Amendment was the Tenth Schedule added?
A) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
B) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
C) 52nd Amendment Act, 1985
D) 61st Amendment Act, 1989
Show Answer
Answer: C) 52nd Amendment Act, 1985
92. What percentage of legislature party members must agree for a valid merger under the Tenth Schedule?
A) One-half
B) Three-fifths
C) Two-thirds
D) Three-fourths
Show Answer
Answer: C) Two-thirds
93. In which case did the Supreme Court rule that the Speaker’s decisions are subject to judicial review?
A) Kesavananda Bharati case
B) Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu (1992)
C) Minerva Mills case
D) Maneka Gandhi case
Show Answer
Answer: B) Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu (1992)
94. According to the Supreme Court, disqualification petitions should ideally be decided within how many
months?
A) 1 month
B) 2 months
C) 3 months
D) 6 months
Show Answer
Answer: C) 3 months
95. Which case established this 3-month timeline for disqualification petitions?
A) Rajendra Singh Rana v. Swami Prasad Maurya (2007)
B) Keisham Meghachandra Singh v. Speaker, Manipur (2020)
C) Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu (1992)
D) Padi Kaushik Reddy vs. State of Telangana (2025)
Show Answer
Answer: B) Keisham Meghachandra Singh v. Speaker, Manipur (2020)
96. How many tiger reserves are there in India currently?
A) 48
B) 53
C) 58
D) 63
Show Answer
Answer: C) 58
97. What is the Supreme Court-mandated uniform compensation for human deaths due to Human-Wildlife
Conflicts?
A) ₹5 lakh
B) ₹7.5 lakh
C) ₹10 lakh
D) ₹15 lakh
Show Answer
Answer: C) ₹10 lakh
98. Within how many months must states notify core and buffer areas of tiger reserves?
A) 3 months
B) 6 months
C) 9 months
D) 12 months
Show Answer
Answer: B) 6 months
99. Under which Act were tiger reserves established in 1973?
A) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
B) Environment Protection Act, 1986
C) Forest Conservation Act, 1980
D) Biological Diversity Act, 2002
Show Answer
Answer: B) USD 6.6 billion
100. Under which Act must Eco-Sensitive Zones be notified according to 2018 guidelines?
A) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
B) Forest Conservation Act, 1980
C) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
D) Biological Diversity Act, 2002
Show Answer
Answer: C) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
101. In which year did Thomas Babington Macaulay introduce the Minute on Indian Education?
A) 1825
B) 1835
C) 1845
D) 1855
Show Answer
Answer: B) 1835
102. Which new legislation replaced the IPC as part of decolonization efforts?
A) Indian Criminal Code
B) Bharatiya Danda Sanhita
C) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita
D) Modern Penal Code
Show Answer
Answer: C) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita
103. When was the Indian Penal Code originally enacted?
A) 1850
B) 1860
C) 1870
D) 1880
Show Answer
Answer: B) 1860
104. What was renamed as Kartavya Path as part of cultural revival?
A) Kingsway
B) Queensway
C) Rajpath
D) Parliament Street
Show Answer
Answer: C) Rajpath
105. In which year was IAFS-III held, the last India-Africa Forum Summit?
A) 2013
B) 2014
C) 2015
D) 2016
Show Answer
Answer: C) 2015
106. What is India’s ranking as a trading partner with Africa?
A) 1st largest
B) 2nd largest
C) 3rd largest
D) 4th largest
Show Answer
Answer: C) 3rd largest
107. Which countries rank above India in trade with Africa?
A) USA and China
B) EU and China
C) China and Japan
D) USA and EU
Show Answer
Answer: B) EU and China
108. What is the recent bilateral trade volume between India and Africa?
A) Over $75 billion
B) Over $85 billion
C) Over $100 billion
D) Over $125 billion
Show Answer
Answer: C) Over $100 billion
109. What does AfCFTA stand for in the context of Africa?
A) African Continental Free Trade Area
B) African Common Finance and Trade Alliance
C) African Continental Financial Trade Agreement
D) African Common Free Trade Association
Show Answer
Answer: A) African Continental Free Trade Area
110. Which UN organization acts as the Secretariat for the UN CyberCrime Treaty?
A) UNESCO
B) UNODC (UN Office on Drugs and Crime)
C) ITU
D) UNHRC
Show Answer
Answer: B) UNODC (UN Office on Drugs and Crime)
111. What is a key feature that makes the UN CyberCrime Treaty significant?
A) It’s the first regional cybercrime framework
B) It’s the first universal, legally binding international framework
C) It applies only to developed countries
D) It’s voluntary in nature
Show Answer
Answer: B) It’s the first universal, legally binding international framework
112. Which ministry set up the Earth System Sciences Council?
A) Ministry of Science and Technology
B) Ministry of Environment
C) Ministry of Earth Sciences
D) Ministry of Space
Show Answer
Answer: C) Ministry of Earth Sciences
113. Who is the Chairperson of the Earth System Sciences Council?
A) Secretary of Earth Sciences
B) Prime Minister
C) Union Minister for Earth Sciences
D) Chief Scientific Adviser
Show Answer
Answer: C) Union Minister for Earth Sciences
114. How many autonomous MoES institutes does the ESSC coordinate?
A) Three
B) Four
C) Five
D) Six
Show Answer
Answer: C) Five
115. What does IPO stand for?
A) International Public Offering
B) Initial Public Offering
C) Internal Price Operation
D) Investment Portfolio Option
Show Answer
Answer: B) Initial Public Offering
116. What is the typical composition of LPG?
A) 40-50% Propane + 50-60% Butane
B) 50-60% Propane + 40-50% Butane
C) 60-70% Propane + 30-40% Butane
D) 70-80% Propane + 20-30% Butane
Show Answer
Answer: B) 50-60% Propane + 40-50% Butane
117. What percentage of India’s LPG demand comes from domestic production?
A) ~25%
B) ~35%
C) ~45%
D) ~55%
Show Answer
Answer: B) ~35%
118. What is India’s ranking as an LPG importer globally?
A) Largest importer
B) 2nd-largest importer
C) 3rd-largest importer
D) 4th-largest importer
Show Answer
Answer: B) 2nd-largest importer
119. Who is the Chairman of the 16th Finance Commission?
A) N.K. Singh
B) Y.V. Reddy
C) Arvind Panagariya
D) Vijay Kelkar
Show Answer
Answer: C) Arvind Panagariya
120. Under which Article of the Constitution is the Finance Commission constituted?
A) Article 270
B) Article 275
C) Article 280
D) Article 282
Show Answer
Answer: C) Article 280
121. From which season will the revised PMFBY framework come into effect?
A) Rabi 2026
B) Kharif 2026
C) Rabi 2027
D) Kharif 2027
Show Answer
Answer: B) Kharif 2026
122. When was PMFBY launched?
A) 2014
B) 2015
C) 2016
D) 2017
Show Answer
Answer: C) 2016
123. What is the new add-on cover introduced under revised PMFBY?
A) Pest Attack Cover
B) Wild Animal Attack
C) Drought Extension Cover
D) Hailstorm Plus Cover
Show Answer
Answer: B) Wild Animal Attack
124. Which cover was reintroduced after being discontinued in 2018?
A) Drought Cover
B) Flood Cover
C) Paddy Inundation Cover
D) Pest Damage Cover
Show Answer
Answer: C) Paddy Inundation Cover
125. Within how many hours must farmers submit loss intimation under the revised PMFBY?
A) 24 hours
B) 48 hours
C) 72 hours
D) 96 hours
Show Answer
Answer: C) 72 hours
126. What is the premium rate for Kharif crops under PMFBY?
A) 1.5% of sum insured
B) 2% of sum insured
C) 3% of sum insured
D) 5% of sum insured
Show Answer
Answer: B) 2% of sum insured
127. What is the premium rate for Rabi crops under PMFBY?
A) 1% of sum insured
B) 1.5% of sum insured
C) 2% of sum insured
D) 3% of sum insured
Show Answer
Answer: B) 1.5% of sum insured
128. What is the premium rate for commercial and horticulture crops?
A) 3%
B) 4%
C) 5%
D) 7%
Show Answer
Answer: C) 5%
129. What is the Centre-State premium sharing ratio for North-Eastern & Himalayan States?
A) 50:50
B) 70:30
C) 80:20
D) 90:10
Show Answer
Answer: D) 90:10
130. For how many weeks after harvest does post-harvest loss coverage apply?
A) One week
B) Two weeks
C) Three weeks
D) Four weeks
Show Answer
Answer: B) Two weeks
131. Which Supreme Court judgment prohibited ex-post facto Environmental Clearances?
A) Common Cause judgment
B) Alembic Pharmaceuticals judgment
C) Vanashakti judgment
D) T.N. Godavarman judgment
Show Answer
Answer: C) Vanashakti judgment
132. Which case held that post-facto ECs may be issued in exceptional situations?
A) Common Cause v. Union of India (2017)
B) D. Swamy v. Karnataka State Pollution Control Board (2021)
C) Alembic Pharmaceuticals Ltd. (2020)
D) Vanashakti (2024)
Show Answer
Answer: B) D. Swamy v. Karnataka State Pollution Control Board (2021)
133. In which year was the EIA Notification that mandates prior EC issued?
A) 2004
B) 2006
C) 2008
D) 2010
Show Answer
Answer: B) 2006
134. How many categories of projects does the EIA Notification, 2006 cover?
A) 29+ categories
B) 34+ categories
C) 39+ categories
D) 44+ categories
Show Answer
Answer: C) 39+ categories
135. Which authority evaluates Category B projects?
A) Central Ministry
B) SEIAA (State/UT Environmental Impact Assessment Authority)
C) National Green Tribunal
D) Central Pollution Control Board
Show Answer
Answer: B) SEIAA (State/UT Environmental Impact Assessment Authority)
136. What is the time period for NAP-AMR 2.0?
A) 2024-2028
B) 2025-2029
C) 2026-2030
D) 2025-2030
Show Answer
Answer: B) 2025-2029
137. What was the time period of the first NAP on AMR?
A) 2015-2019
B) 2016-2020
C) 2017-2021
D) 2018-2022
Show Answer
Answer: C) 2017-2021
138. How many deaths globally are directly caused by drug-resistant infections annually?
A) 0.97 million
B) 1.07 million
C) 1.17 million
D) 1.27 million
Show Answer
Answer: D) 1.27 million
139. Approximately how many deaths annually worldwide are contributed to by AMR?
A) 3.95 million
B) 4.45 million
C) 4.95 million
D) 5.45 million
Show Answer
Answer: C) 4.95 million
140. Which organizations jointly release the Climate Change Performance Index?
A) UNEP, WHO, UNFCCC
B) Germanwatch, NewClimate Institute, Climate Action Network
C) World Bank, IMF, GEF
D) IPCC, WMO, FAO
Show Answer
Answer: B) Germanwatch, NewClimate Institute, Climate Action Network
141. How many countries and regions does CCPI 2025 assess?
A) 53 countries and EU
B) 58 countries and EU
C) 63 countries and EU
D) 68 countries and EU
Show Answer
Answer: C) 63 countries and EU
142. What percentage of global GHG emissions do CCPI-assessed countries represent?
A) Over 80%
B) Over 85%
C) Over 90%
D) Over 95%
Show Answer
Answer: C) Over 90%
143. Which country ranked 4th in CCPI 2025?
A) United Kingdom
B) Morocco
C) Denmark
D) Norway
Show Answer
Answer: C) Denmark
144. What is India’s rank in CCPI 2025?
A) 19th
B) 21st
C) 23rd
D) 25th
Show Answer
Answer: C) 23rd
145. India shifted from which category to which category in CCPI 2025?
A) Medium to low performer
B) High to medium performer
C) Very high to high performer
D) Low to medium performer
Show Answer
Answer: B) High to medium performer
146. How many main dimensions does CCPI evaluate?
A) Three
B) Four
C) Five
D) Six
Show Answer
Answer: B) Four
147. Which of the following is NOT a parameter measured by CCPI?
A) GHG Emissions
B) Renewable Energy
C) Climate Policy
D) Carbon Trading Volume
Show Answer
Answer: D) Carbon Trading Volume
148. Which state topped the 6th National Water Awards (2024) in the Best State category?
A) Gujarat
B) Haryana
C) Maharashtra
D) Rajasthan
Show Answer
Answer: C) Maharashtra
149. Which state secured second position in the 6th National Water Awards?
A) Gujarat
B) Rajasthan
C) Karnataka
D) Madhya Pradesh
Show Answer
Answer: A) Gujarat
150. Which ministry organizes the National Water Awards?
A) Ministry of Environment
B) Ministry of Agriculture
C) Ministry of Jal Shakti
D) Ministry of Rural Development
Show Answer
Answer: C) Ministry of Jal Shakti
151. Through which Constitutional Amendment was Part XIV-A (dealing with Tribunals) added?
A) 40th Amendment Act, 1974
B) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
C) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
D) 46th Amendment Act, 1982
Show Answer
Answer: B) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
152. What minimum age requirement did the Supreme Court strike down as arbitrary?
A) 45 years
B) 48 years
C) 50 years
D) 55 years
Show Answer
Answer: C) 50 years
153. What is the minimum tenure for tribunal chairpersons and members as reaffirmed by the Supreme Court?
A) Three years
B) Four years
C) Five years
D) Six years
Show Answer
Answer: C) Five years
154. Within how many months did the Supreme Court direct the Centre to establish the National Tribunals
Commission?
A) Two months
B) Three months
C) Four months
D) Six months
Show Answer
Answer: C) Four months
155. Which Article empowers Parliament to establish Administrative Tribunals?
A) Article 323
B) Article 323-A
C) Article 323-B
D) Article 324
Show Answer
Answer: B) Article 323-A
156. What is the name of India’s first indigenous CRISPR-based gene therapy for Sickle Cell Disease?
A) BIRSA-100
B) BIRSA-101
C) BIRSA-201
D) BIRSA-301
Show Answer
Answer: B) BIRSA-101
157. Which institute developed BIRSA-101?
A) CSIR-IGIB (Institute of Genomics and Integrative Biology)
B) AIIMS
C) ICMR
D) NIMHANS
Show Answer
Answer: A) CSIR-IGIB (Institute of Genomics and Integrative Biology)
158. What does CRISPR stand for?
A) Cellular Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats
B) Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats
C) Clustered Randomly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats
D) Cellular Randomly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats
Show Answer
Answer: B) Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats
159. What is the prevalence of Sickle Cell Disease among India’s Scheduled Tribes?
A) 1 in 76 births
B) 1 in 86 births
C) 1 in 96 births
D) 1 in 106 births
Show Answer
Answer: B) 1 in 86 births
160. Which enzyme acts as molecular scissors in CRISPR technology?
A) Cas7
B) Cas8
C) Cas9
D) Cas10
Show Answer
Answer: C) Cas9
161. Which is India’s largest cryogenic engine?
A) CE-10
B) CE-15
C) CE-20
D) CE-25
Show Answer
Answer: C) CE-20
162. Where was the CE-20 Cryogenic Engine developed?
A) Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre
B) Satish Dhawan Space Centre
C) Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre (LPSC), Valiamala, Kerala
D) ISRO Headquarters, Bengaluru
Show Answer
Answer: C) Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre (LPSC), Valiamala, Kerala
163. What temperature threshold defines cryogenics?
A) Below −100°C
B) Below −125°C
C) Below −150°C
D) Below −175°C
Show Answer
Answer: C) Below −150°C
164. Which stage of LVM3 uses the CE-20 engine?
A) S200 Solid Stage
B) L110 Liquid Stage
C) C25 Cryogenic Stage
D) S139 Solid Stage
Show Answer
Answer: C) C25 Cryogenic Stage
165. What is LVM3 designed to launch to GTO?
A) 2,000 kg class satellites
B) 3,000 kg class satellites
C) 4,000 kg class satellites
D) 5,000 kg class satellites
Show Answer
Answer: C) 4,000 kg class satellites
166. What is India’s ranking as a methane emitter globally?
A) First
B) Second
C) Third
D) Fourth
Show Answer
Answer: C) Third
167. What are India’s annual methane emissions according to the report?
A) ~21 million tonnes
B) ~26 million tonnes
C) ~31 million tonnes
D) ~36 million tonnes
Show Answer
Answer: C) ~31 million tonnes
168. How much higher is methane’s warming potential compared to CO2 over a 20-year period?
A) ~60 times
B) ~70 times
C) ~80 times
D) ~90 times
Show Answer
Answer: C) ~80 times
169. What was the atmospheric methane level per year in 2020?
A) ~322 million tonnes
B) ~337 million tonnes
C) ~352 million tonnes
D) ~367 million tonnes
Show Answer
Answer: C) ~352 million tonnes
170. At which COP was the Global Methane Pledge launched?
A) COP25, Madrid
B) COP26, Glasgow
C) COP27, Sharm el-Sheikh
D) COP28, Dubai
Show Answer
Answer: B) COP26, Glasgow
171. By what percentage does the Global Methane Pledge aim to reduce emissions by 2030?How many countries and regions does CCPI 2025 assess?
A) 20%
B) 25%
C) 30%
D) 35%
Show Answer
Answer: C) 30%
172. Has India signed the Global Methane Pledge?
A) Yes
B) No
C) Signed but not ratified
D) Observer status only
Show Answer
Answer: B) No
173. In which year was the Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissues Act (THOTA) enacted?
A) 1992
B) 1994
C) 1996
D) 1998
Show Answer
Answer: B) 1994
174. When was THOTA amended?
A) 2009
B) 2011
C) 2013
D) 2015
Show Answer
Answer: B) 2011
175. What does NOTTO stand for?
A) National Organ Transplant and Tissue Organisation
B) National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organisation
C) National Organisation for Tissue and Transplant Operations
D) National Office for Transplant and Tissue Organisation
Show Answer
Answer: B) National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organisation
176. What percentage of the world’s population now lives in urban areas?
A) 40%
B) 42%
C) 45%
D) 48%
Show Answer
Answer: C) 45%
177. How many megacities were there globally in 1975?
A) 5
B) 8
C) 12
D) 15
Show Answer
Answer: B) 8
178. How many megacities exist globally in 2025?
A) 28
B) 30
C) 33
D) 36
Show Answer
Answer: C) 33
179. What is the world’s largest city according to the 2025 report?
A) Tokyo, Japan
B) New Delhi, India
C) Dhaka, Bangladesh
D) Jakarta, Indonesia
Show Answer
Answer: D) Jakarta, Indonesia
180. What percentage of India’s population resides in urban areas?
A) 38%
B) 41%
C) 44%
D) 47%
Show Answer
Answer: C) 44%
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