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8 to 14 June (Weekly Current Affairs Quiz)

Practice the June 2024 2nd Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the second week of June 2024. 

The Current Affairs Quiz of 8 to 14 June features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.

2nd Week of June 2024: Current Affairs Quiz

1. Where did India participate in the WSIS+20 Forum High-Level Event in 2024?

A. New York, USA
B. Geneva, Switzerland
C. Paris, France
D. Tokyo, Japan

Show Answer

Answer: B) Geneva, Switzerland


2. WSIS took place in two phases in which years and cities?

A. Geneva (2001) and Tunis (2003)
B. Geneva (2003) and Tunis (2005)
C. Tunis (2003) and Geneva (2005)
D. Geneva (2005) and Tunis (2007)

Show Answer

Answer: B) Geneva (2003) and Tunis (2005)


3. Which international organizations co-organized the WSIS+20 Forum High-Level Event?

A. ITU and UNESCO
B. UNESCO and UNDP
C. ITU, UNESCO, UNDP, UNCTAD
D. ITU and UNDP

Show Answer

Answer: C) ITU, UNESCO, UNDP, UNCTAD


4. What was the aim of the WSIS+20 Forum?

A. To celebrate the 20th anniversary of the ITU
B. To discuss the challenges of climate change
C. To create a multi-stakeholder platform to address issues raised by Information and Communication
Technologies
D. To promote international trade agreements

Show Answer

Answer: C) To create a multi-stakeholder platform to address issues raised by Information and Communication Technologies


5. Who co-hosted the WSIS+20 Forum with the Swiss Confederation?

A. UNDP
B. UNESCO
C. ITU
D. UNCTAD

Show Answer

Answer: C) ITU


6. When was the International Air Transport Association (IATA) established?

A. 1920
B. 1945
C. 1957
D. 1965

Show Answer

Answer: B) 1945


7. Where was the International Air Transport Association (IATA) established?

A. New York, USA
B. Geneva, Switzerland
C. Havana, Cuba
D. London, UK

Show Answer

Answer: C) Havana, Cuba


8. What is the primary aim of the International Air Transport Association (IATA)?

A. To represent and serve airport authorities worldwide
B. To advocate for the interests of airlines on the world stage
C. To promote international tourism
D. To provide training for air traffic controllers

Show Answer

Answer: B) To advocate for the interests of airlines on the world stage


9. Where is the headquarters of the International Air Transport Association (IATA) located?

A. New York (USA)
B. Geneva (Switzerland)
C. Montreal (Canada)
D. London (UK)

Show Answer

Answer: C) Montreal (Canada)


10. What does PraVaHa stand for?

A. Parallel RANS Solver for Aerospace Vehicle Aero-Thermo-Dynamic Analysis
B. Precision Rocket Analysis and Validation Hub Application
C. Propulsion Velocity and Heat Assessment
D. Planetary Vehicle Analysis and Handling

Show Answer

Answer: A) Parallel RANS Solver for Aerospace Vehicle Aero-Thermo-Dynamic Analysis


11. Where was PraVaHa developed?

A. NASA
B. European Space Agency
C. Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre
D. SpaceX

Show Answer

Answer: C) Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre


12. What was the recorded temperature at Mungeshpur Weather Station?

A. 50.9°C
B. 52.9°C
C. 54.9°C
D. 56.9°C

Show Answer

Answer: B) 52.9°C


13. Where was the highest temperature ever recorded on Earth?

A. Sahara Desert, Africa
B. Death Valley, California
C. Atacama Desert, Chile
D. Gobi Desert, Mongolia

Show Answer

Answer: B) Death Valley, California


14. When was the highest temperature ever recorded in Death Valley, California?

A. 1900
B. 1913
C. 1950
D. 2000

Show Answer

Answer: B) 1913


15. What was the recorded temperature in Death Valley, California, in 1913?

A. 54.7°C
B. 56.7°C
C. 58.7°C
D. 60.7°C

Show Answer

Answer: B) 56.7°C


16. Who has been elected as the first female President of Mexico?

A. Claudia Sheinbaum
B. Andres Manuel Lopez Obrador
C. Enrique Peña Nieto
D. Vicente Fox

Show Answer

Answer: A) Claudia Sheinbaum


17. In which constituency did the “None of the Above” (NOTA) option emerge as the runner-up in Madhya Pradesh?

A. Bhopal
B. Gwalior
C. Indore
D. Jabalpur

Show Answer

Answer: C) Indore


18. In 2023-24, which country emerged as India’s third-largest export destination?

A. Germany
B. Netherlands
C. China
D. Japan

Show Answer

Answer: B) Netherlands


19. What is the Minuteman III classified as?

A. Short-range ballistic missile
B. Medium-range ballistic missile
C. Inter-Continental ballistic missile
D. Cruise missile

Show Answer

Answer: C) Inter-Continental ballistic missile


20. Which company designed and manufactured the Minuteman III?

A. Lockheed Martin
B. Northrop Grumman
C. Boeing Corporation
D. Raytheon

Show Answer

Answer: C) Boeing Corporation


21. India is considering sourcing Cheetahs from which country under Phase-2 of the project?

A. South Africa
B. Namibia
C. Kenya
D. Tanzania

Show Answer

Answer: C) Kenya


22. What is India’s rank in terms of vegetable and fruit production globally?

A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth

Show Answer

Answer: B) Second


23. When was the National Horticulture Board established?

A. 1965
B. 1974
C. 1984
D. 1990

Show Answer

Answer: C) 1984


24. Where is the headquarters of the National Horticulture Board located?

A. New Delhi
B. Mumbai
C. Kolkata
D. Gurugram

Show Answer

Answer: D) Gurugram


25. When is World Environment Day celebrated?

A. 1st June
B. 3rd June
C. 5th June
D. 7th June

Show Answer

Answer: C) 5th June


26. What is the capacity of the Arun – 3 Hydro Electric Project?

A. 500 MW
B. 700 MW
C. 900 MW
D. 1100 MW

Show Answer

Answer: C) 900 MW


27. Which company developed the Arun – 3 Hydro Electric Project?

A. Nepal Electricity Authority
B. SJVN Arun – III Power Development Company
C. Satluj Jal Vidyut Nigam
D. Nepal Hydroelectric Company

Show Answer

Answer: B) SJVN Arun – III Power Development Company


28. What is the operational period of the Arun – 3 Hydro Electric Project, excluding the construction period?

A. 20 years
B. 25 years
C. 30 years
D. 35 years

Show Answer

Answer: B) 25 years


29. In which Indian city did the “None of the Above” (NOTA) option create a new record in the Lok Sabha election results?

A. Mumbai
B. Delhi
C. Kolkata
D. Indore

Show Answer

Answer: D) Indore


30. What was the case name in which the Supreme Court made the ruling regarding the NOTA option in EVMs?

A. Electoral Reforms Act vs Union of India
B. Voter Rights Protection vs Union of India
C. People’s Union of Civil Liberties vs Union of India
D. None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: C) People’s Union of Civil Liberties vs Union of India


31. Which organization won the UN’s WSIS 2024 ‘Champion’ Award for Mobile-Enabled Disaster Resilience?

A. Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT)
B. International Telecommunication Union (ITU)
C. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
D. National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)

Show Answer

Answer: A) Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT)


32. How many women were elected to the 18th Lok Sabha?

A. 74
B. 86
C. 92
D. 108

Show Answer

Answer: A) 74


33. What percentage of representation do women account for in the 18th Lok Sabha?

A. 7.6%
B. 9.2%
C. 11.4%
D. 13.6%

Show Answer

Answer: D) 13.6%


34. When is UNESCO’s ‘State of Ocean Report’ released annually?

A. World Environment Day (June 5)
B. World Oceans Day (June 8)
C. International Day for Biological Diversity (May 22)
D. Earth Day (April 22)

Show Answer

Answer: B) World Oceans Day (June 8)


35. Who publishes the ‘State of Ocean Report’?

A. UNESCO’s Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission (IOC)
B. International Maritime Organization (IMO)
C. World Meteorological Organization (WMO)
D. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)

Show Answer

Answer: A) UNESCO’s Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission (IOC)


36. What is the duration of the UN Decade of Ocean Science for Sustainable Development?

A. 2000–2010
B. 2010–2020
C. 2021–2030
D. 2030–2040

Show Answer

Answer: C) 2021–2030


37. How many states in India have Special Category Status (SCS) as of the given list?

A. 7
B. 9
C. 11
D. 13

Show Answer

Answer: C) 11


38. Which of the following states does NOT have Special Category Status (SCS) according to the given list?

A. Assam
B. Himachal Pradesh
C. Maharashtra
D. Manipur

Show Answer

Answer: C) Maharashtra


39. When was the WTO’s Appellate Body established?

A. 1980
B. 1990
C. 1995
D. 2000

Show Answer

Answer: C) 1995


40. Where is the seat of the WTO’s Appellate Body located?

A. New York (USA)
B. Geneva (Switzerland)
C. Paris (France)
D. Brussels (Belgium)

Show Answer

Answer: B) Geneva (Switzerland)


41. Which countries and regions are part of the Biopharmaceutical Alliance launched in response to drug supply shortages during the COVID-19 pandemic?

A. India, China, Brazil, Australia
B. India, South Korea, US, Japan, European Union
C. India, UK, Russia, Canada, ASEAN
D. India, Germany, Mexico, Saudi Arabia, Africa Union

Show Answer

Answer: B) India, South Korea, US, Japan, European Union


42. When was the announcement about the Biopharmaceutical Alliance made?

A. United Nations General Assembly
B. G20 Summit
C. Bio International Convention 2024
D. World Health Assembly

Show Answer

Answer: C) Bio International Convention 2024


43. Where was the inaugural meeting of the Biopharmaceutical Alliance held?

A. New York, USA
B. Geneva, Switzerland
C. Tokyo, Japan
D. San Diego, USA

Show Answer

Answer: D) San Diego, USA


44. What was the main reason behind the formation of Biopharmaceutical Alliance?

A. To increase competition among pharmaceutical companies
B. To address drug supply shortages during the COVID-19 pandemic
C. To promote pharmaceutical exports between member countries
D. To establish joint research and development projects

Show Answer

Answer: B) To address drug supply shortages during the COVID-19 pandemic


45. What event hosted the inaugural meeting of the Biopharmaceutical Alliance?

A. World Economic Forum
B. Bio International Convention
C. G7 Summit
D. ASEAN Summit

Show Answer

Answer: B) Bio International Convention


46. What is the main objective of the ‘Air of the Anthropocene (AoA)’ project?

A. To promote air pollution
B. To document air pollution levels around the world through photography
C. To encourage deforestation
D. To study the effects of climate change on marine life

Show Answer

Answer: B) To document air pollution levels around the world through photography


47. Which initiative did researchers and artists join as part of the ‘Air of the Anthropocene (AoA)’ project?

A. Paint with Light
B. Green Revolution
C. Clean Air Act
D. Save the Trees

Show Answer

Answer: A) Paint with Light


48. According to World Wealth Report 2024, by what percentage did the number of High-Net-Worth Individuals (HNWI) in India increase in 2023 compared to 2022?

A. 5.6%
B. 8.9%
C. 12.2%
D. 15.5%

Show Answer

Answer: C) 12.2%


49. What does the TRISHNA Mission stand for?

A. Thermal Imaging Satellite for High-Resolution Natural Assessment
B. Thermal Infrared Satellite for High-Resolution Natural Resource Assessment
C. Temperature and Rainfall Imaging Satellite for Hydrology and Natural Assessment
D. Thermal Infrared Spacecraft for High-Resolution Natural Analysis

Show Answer

Answer: B) Thermal Infrared Satellite for High-Resolution Natural Resource Assessment


50. Who are the collaborators in the TRISHNA Mission?

A. ISRO and NASA
B. ISRO and CNES
C. ISRO and ESA
D. ISRO and Roscosmos

Show Answer

Answer: B) ISRO and CNES


51. What is the alternative name for the Agnipath Scheme?

A. Operation Shield
B. Tour of Duty Scheme
C. Patriot Program
D. Soldier Deployment Initiative

Show Answer

Answer: B) Tour of Duty Scheme


53. When was the Agnipath Scheme introduced?

A. 2018
B. 2020
C. 2022
D. 2024

Show Answer

Answer: C) 2022


54. Under the Agnipath Scheme, what is the term of service for recruited soldiers?

A. 2 years
B. 4 years
C. 6 years
D. 8 years

Show Answer

Answer: B) 4 years


55. What percentage of recruits from a batch under the Agnipath Scheme are retained for regular service after the 4-year term?

A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%

Show Answer

Answer: B) 25%


56. What is the age limit for recruits under the Agnipath Scheme?

A. 16.5 – 20 years
B. 17.5 – 21 years
C. 18.5 – 22 years
D. 19.5 – 23 years

Show Answer

Answer: B) 17.5 – 21 years


57. Who releases the QS World University Rankings?

A. United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization
B. Quacquarelli Symonds
C. Times Higher Education
D. Association of Universities and Colleges of Canada

Show Answer

Answer: B) Quacquarelli Symonds


58. Which institution topped the QS World University Rankings for the 13th consecutive year?

A. Imperial College London
B. Harvard University
C. Massachusetts Institute of Technology
D. University of Oxford

Show Answer

Answer: C) Massachusetts Institute of Technology


59. How many countries, including Slovenia, have recognized a Palestinian state?

A. 134
B. 143
C. 145
D. 146

Show Answer

Answer: D) 146


60. As of March 2024, how many tonnes of gold did the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) hold?

A. 550.30 tonnes
B. 678.50 tonnes
C. 822.10 tonnes
D. 956.80 tonnes

Show Answer

Answer: C) 822.10 tonnes


61. Which Indian state has the largest resources of gold ore?

A. Bihar
B. Rajasthan
C. Karnataka
D. West Bengal

Show Answer

Answer: A) Bihar


62. What was the total bilateral trade between India and Qatar in 2022-23?

A. US$ 18.77 billion
B. US$ 20.76 billion
C. US$ 24.76 billion
D. US$ 16.8 billion

Show Answer

Answer: A) US$ 18.77 billion


63. Which of the following countries is NOT among the top three largest export destinations for Qatar?

A. China
B. Japan
C. India
D. United States

Show Answer

Answer: D) United States


64. When was the Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF) launched?

A. 2020
B. 2021
C. 2022
D. 2023

Show Answer

Answer: C) 2022


65. How many members are part of the Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF)?

A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 16

Show Answer

Answer: C) 14


66. What is the aim of the Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF)?

A. To advance military cooperation among member economies
B. To promote cultural exchange and tourism
C. To advance resilience, sustainability, inclusiveness, economic growth, fairness, and
competitiveness for member economies
D. To establish a regional currency for trade transactions

Show Answer

Answer: C) To advance resilience, sustainability, inclusiveness, economic growth, fairness, and competitiveness for member economies


67. Which of the following is NOT one of the principal organs of the United Nations?

A. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
B. United Nations General Assembly (UNGA)
C. Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC)
D. Trusteeship Council

Show Answer

Answer: A) International Monetary Fund (IMF)


68. How many members are there in the United Nations Security Council (UNSC)?

A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

Show Answer

Answer: C) 15


69. When was the Cotton Corporation of India (CCI) established?

A. 1960
B. 1970
C. 1980
D. 1990

Show Answer

Answer: B) 1970


70. Which ministry does the Cotton Corporation of India (CCI) report to?

A. Ministry of Agriculture
B. Ministry of Textiles
C. Ministry of Commerce
D. Ministry of Industry

Show Answer

Answer: B) Ministry of Textiles


71. Where is the headquarters of the Cotton Corporation of India (CCI) located?

A) New Delhi
B) Kolkata
C) Chennai
D) Navi Mumbai

Show Answer

Answer: D) Navi Mumbai


72. What is the purpose of the Cotton Corporation of India (CCI)?

A. Promoting agricultural research
B. Ensuring fair prices for cotton farmers
C. Regulating textile exports
D. Managing textile manufacturing units

Show Answer

Answer: B) Ensuring fair prices for cotton farmers


73. In which city was the Convention on Wetlands of International Importance signed?

A. Geneva
B. Ramsar
C. Tehran
D. Kyoto

Show Answer

Answer: B) Ramsar


74. When did the Convention on Wetlands of International Importance come into force?

A. 1965
B. 1971
C. 1975
D. 1980

Show Answer

Answer: C) 1975


75. How many states are members of the Convention on Wetlands of International Importance?

A. 150
B. 172
C. 190
D. 210

Show Answer

Answer: B) 172


76. When did India become a signatory to the Convention on Wetlands of International Importance?

A. January 1, 1980
B. February 1, 1982
C. March 1, 1984
D. April 1, 1986

Show Answer

Answer: B) February 1, 1982


77. What percentage of India’s land is comprised of wetlands?

A. 2.15%
B. 3.79%
C. 4.63%
D. 5.81%

Show Answer

Answer: C) 4.63%


78. Which state in India has the maximum number of Ramsar sites?

A. Maharashtra
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Kerala

Show Answer

Answer: B) Tamil Nadu


79. What is India’s rank in Asia in terms of the number of designated sites?

A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 3rd
D. 4th

Show Answer

Answer: C) 3rd


80. Which country is hosting 2024 United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP 29)?

A. Azerbaijan
B. Brazil
C. France
D. India

Show Answer

Answer: A) Azerbaijan


81. When and where did the first-ever United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP) take place?

A. 1992, Rio de Janeiro (Brazil)
B. 1995, Berlin (Germany)
C. 2000, Kyoto (Japan)
D. 2005, Copenhagen (Denmark)

Show Answer

Answer: D) Navi Mumbai


82. Where was the first human infection with Avian Influenza A(H5N2) Virus found?

A. United States
B. Mexico
C. China
D. Brazil

Show Answer

Answer: B) Mexico


83. Which port in Bangladesh is India looking to operate?

A. Chittagong Port
B. Mongla Port
C. Cox’s Bazar Port
D. Payra Port

Show Answer

Answer: B) Mongla Port


84. When was the Chemical Weapons Convention adopted?

A. 03 September 1997
B. 29 April 1997
C. 03 September 1992
D. 29 April 1992

Show Answer

Answer: C) 03 September 1992


85. What is the altitude of the International Space Station (ISS) above the Earth?

A. 200 km
B. 600 km
C. 400 km
D. 800 km

Show Answer

Answer: C) 400 km above the Earth


86. Which country was not involved in the development of the International Space Station (ISS)?

A. Japan
B. China
C. Russia
D. Canada

Show Answer

Answer: B) China


87. In which case was the introduction of NOTA (None of the Above) in the electoral process directed by the Supreme Court of India?

A. PUCL vs. State of Maharashtra Case
B. PUCL vs. Union of India Case
C. PUCL vs. State of Tamil Nadu Case
D. PUCL vs. Union of Pakistan Case

Show Answer

Answer: B) PUCL vs. Union of India Case


88. In the context of wilful defaulters in India, what is the minimum loan amount for a borrower to be labeled as a wilful defaulter?

A. Rs 10 lakh and above
B. Rs 50 lakh and above
C. Rs 25 lakh and above
D. Rs 1 crore and above

Show Answer

Answer: C) Rs 25 lakh and above


89. Which ministry oversees the functioning of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI)?

A. Ministry of Finance
B. Ministry of Law and Justice
C. Ministry of Corporate Affairs
D. Ministry of Commerce and Industry

Show Answer

Answer: C) Ministry of Corporate Affairs


90. Where is the headquarters of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) located?

A. Mumbai
B. Chennai
C. Kolkata
D. New Delhi

Show Answer

Answer: D) New Delhi


91. What does the term “Repo Rate” refer to in the context of central banking?

A. Rate at which commercial banks lend money to the central bank
B. Rate at which commercial banks lend money to each other
C. Rate at which the central bank lends money to commercial banks
D. Rate at which the central government borrows money from the central bank

Show Answer

Answer: C) Rate at which the central bank lends money to commercial banks


92. When was the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) created?

A. 2008
B. 2010
C. 2014
D. 2016

Show Answer

Answer: D) 2016


93. When was the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) established?

A. April 1, 1925
B. April 1, 1930
C. April 1, 1934
D. April 1, 1935

Show Answer

Answer: D) April 1, 1935


94. Who is the current Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?

A. Raghuram Rajan
B. Urjit Patel
C. Shaktikanta Das
D. R. Gandhi

Show Answer

Answer: C) Shaktikanta Das


95. What is the current Repo Rate set by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?

A. 5.5%
B. 6.0%
C. 6.5%
D. 7.0%

Show Answer

Answer: C) 6.5%


96. Which of the following rates indicates the rate at which banks can park their excess funds with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?

A. Repo Rate
B. Standing Deposit Facility
C. Marginal Standing Facility Rate
D. Cash Reserve Ratio

Show Answer

Answer: B) Standing Deposit Facility


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8 June to 14 June (Weekly Current Affairs)


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