Practice the February 2025 2nd Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the Second week of February 2025.
The Current Affairs Quiz of 8 to 14 February features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.
2nd Week of February 2025: Current Affairs Quiz
1. Which country announced its withdrawal from the World Health Organization (WHO) amid growing tensions over health policies?
(a) Brazil
(b) Argentina
(c) Chile
(d) Mexico
Show Answer
Answer: B
2. India has now become the world’s __ largest mobile manufacturing country.
(a) 1st
(b) 2nd
(c) 3rd
(d) 4th
Show Answer
Answer: B
3. Which country is currently the largest mobile manufacturing country in the world?
(a) India
(b) South Korea
(c) China
(d) United States
Show Answer
Answer: C
4. In terms of mobile manufacturing, India has surpassed which of the following countries?
(a) China
(b) South Korea
(c) Vietnam
(d) Malaysia
Show Answer
Answer: C
5. Under which section of the BNSS 2023 has the Bhopal administration banned begging and almsgiving?
(a) Section 101
(b) Section 156
(c) Section 163
(d) Section 200
Show Answer
Answer: C
6. Which city has implemented a ban on begging and almsgiving under the BNSS 2023?
(a) Indore
(b) Gwalior
(c) Bhopal
(d) Jabalpur
Show Answer
Answer: C
7. Which country won the ICC Under-19 Women’s T20 World Cup 2025?
(a) South Africa
(b) England
(c) India
(d) Australia
Show Answer
Answer: C
8. Who did India defeat in the final of the ICC Under-19 Women’s T20 World Cup Malaysia 2025?
(a) England
(b) South Africa
(c) Australia
(d) New Zealand
Show Answer
Answer: B
9. Fort William in Kolkata has been renamed to which name to remove colonial influences?
(a) Shakti Durg
(b) Vijay Durg
(c) Veer Durg
(d) Prakash Durg
Show Answer
Answer: B
10. Fort William was built in which year?
(a) 1751
(b) 1781
(c) 1800
(d) 1857
Show Answer
Answer: B
11. Fort William in Kolkata was originally named after which British monarch?
(a) King George III
(b) King William III
(c) Queen Elizabeth I
(d) King Edward VII
Show Answer
Answer: B
12. In which city was Tshego Gaelae crowned Mrs. World 2025?
(a) Harvinder Singh
(b) Chaman Arora
(c) Rajinder Singh
(d) Surjit Singh
Show Answer
Answer: B
13. In which language did Chaman Arora win the Sahitya Akademi Award 2024?
(a) Punjabi
(b) Hindi
(c) Dogri
(d) Kashmiri
Show Answer
Answer: C
14. The first Sahitya Akademi Awards were given in which year?
(a) 1960
(b) 1950
(c) 1954
(d) 1955
Show Answer
Answer: C
15. The first Sahitya Akademi Awards were given in which year?
(a) 1954
(b) 1955
(c) 1960
(d) 1962
Show Answer
Answer: B
16. Sahitya Akademi Award is awarded by which organization?
(a) Indian Council for Cultural Relations
(b) Sahitya Akademi
(c) Ministry of External Affairs
(d) Ministry of Education
Show Answer
Answer: B
17. Where is the construction of the world’s largest optical telescope nearing completion?
(a) Arizona Desert
(b) Atacama Desert
(c) Sahara Desert
(d) Gobi Desert
Show Answer
Answer: B
18. What is the name of the mountain where the Extremely Large Telescope is being constructed?
(a) Mount Everest
(b) Mount Kilimanjaro
(c) Cerro Armazones
(d) Mount Aconcagua
Show Answer
Answer: C
19. Which organization is responsible for building the Extremely Large Telescope?
(a) NASA
(b) European Southern Observatory
(c) Indian Space Research Organisation
(d) SpaceX
Show Answer
Answer: B
20. Extremely Large Telescope is located in which country?
(a) Chile
(b) Argentina
(c) South Africa
(d) Australia
Show Answer
Answer: A
21. Where is the headquarters of the European Southern Observatory (ESO) located?
(a) Paris, France
(b) Garching, Germany
(c) Geneva, Switzerland
(d) Madrid, Spain
Show Answer
Answer: B
22. Under which order were Foreigners’ Tribunals created in Assam?
(a) Foreigners (Tribunals) Order 1964
(b) Foreigners Act 1946
(c) National Register of Citizens (NRC) Order 2004
(d) Indian Constitution Order 1950
Show Answer
Answer: A
23. What is the main role of Foreigners’ Tribunals in Assam?
(a) To grant Indian citizenship to foreigners
(b) To adjudicate cases concerning individuals suspected of being illegal immigrants
(c) To handle cases related to economic crimes
(d) To regulate foreign trade in Assam
Show Answer
Answer: B
24. According to the SIDE Report 2024, India ranks as the __ largest digitalized economy in the world.
(a) 1st
(b) 2nd
(c) 3rd
(d) 4th
Show Answer
Answer: C
25. Which countries rank ahead of India in terms of economy-wide digitalization?y?
(a) China and Russia
(b) US and China
(c) US and Germany
(d) China and Japan
Show Answer
Answer: B
26. India ranks __ among G20 nations in terms of digitalization of individual users, indicating lower average user digitalization.
(a) 10th
(b) 5th
(c) 12th
(d) 15th
Show Answer
Answer: C
27. In the year 2022-23, India’s digital economy contributed what percentage to the GDP?
(a) 10.5%
(b) 11.74%
(c) 12.5%
(d) 13.5%
Show Answer
Answer: B
28. By 2024-25, the digital economy is projected to contribute what percentage to India’s GDP?
(a) 13.42%
(b) 15.2%
(c) 17.5%
(d) 20%
Show Answer
Answer: A
29. By 2029-30, India’s digital economy is expected to contribute __ of the GDP, surpassing agriculture and manufacturing.
(a) 15%
(b) 18%
(c) 20%
(d) 25%
Show Answer
Answer: C
30. Chabahar Port is located on which body of water?
(a) Persian Gulf
(b) Gulf of Oman
(c) Red Sea
(d) Arabian Sea
Show Answer
Answer: B
31. Chabahar Port is the only oceanic port of which country?
(a) Iraq
(b) Saudi Arabia
(c) Iran
(d) Pakistan
Show Answer
Answer: C
32. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently cut the repo rate by how many basis points?
(a) 10 basis points
(b) 25 basis points
(c) 50 basis points
(d) 100 basis points
Show Answer
Answer: B
33. After the recent cut, what is the new repo rate set by the RBI?
(a) 5.75%
(b) 6.25%
(c) 6.75%
(d) 7.00%
Show Answer
Answer: B
34. Which of the following is TRUE about the repo rate?
(a) It is the rate at which the RBI borrows money from commercial banks.
(b) It is a long-term borrowing rate for commercial banks.
(c) It is a short-term borrowing rate used by commercial banks during liquidity crunches.
(d) It is fixed by commercial banks themselves.
Show Answer
Answer: C
35. Which two countries are connected by the Darien Gap?
(a) Colombia and Ecuador
(b) Panama and Venezuela
(c) Colombia and Panama
(d) Mexico and the United States
Show Answer
Answer: C
36. Darien Gap is primarily used by migrants trying to reach which destination?
(a) Canada
(b) United States
(c) Mexico
(d) Costa Rica
Show Answer
Answer: B
37. Darien Gap separates which two regions?
(a) South America and Central America
(b) The Caribbean Sea and the Pacific Ocean
(c) South America and North America
(d) Central America and North America
Show Answer
Answer: C
38. What is Jevons Paradox?
(a) A theory predicting that technological advancements always lead to resource conservation
(b) A principle suggesting that increasing efficiency can lead to higher resource consumption
(c) A law that shows the direct correlation between energy use and economic growth
(d) A concept that technology will always reduce resource demand
Show Answer
Answer: B
39. Who introduced the concept of Jevons Paradox?
(a) Satya Nadella
(b) William Stanley Jevons
(c) Adam Smith
(d) Albert Einstein
Show Answer
Answer: B
40. Why did Israel withdraw from the UN Human Rights Council?
(a) Due to disagreements with other member states
(b) Citing bias against the country
(c) Due to a lack of support for human rights initiatives
(d) To join a different international body
Show Answer
Answer: B
41. In what year was the UN Human Rights Council established?
(a) 1946
(b) 1980
(c) 2006
(d) 2010
Show Answer
Answer: C
42. What did the UN Human Rights Council replace?
(a) UN Security Council
(b) UN Economic and Social Council
(c) Commission on Human Rights
(d) UN General Assembly
Show Answer
Answer: C
43. How many member states are part of the UN Human Rights Council?
(a) 50
(b) 47
(c) 35
(d) 100
Show Answer
Answer: B
44. Where is the headquarters of the UN Human Rights Council located?
(a) New York, USA
(b) Paris, France
(c) Geneva, Switzerland
(d) Brussels, Belgium
Show Answer
Answer: C
45. What does PRASHAD stand for?
(a) Pilgrimage Revival and Spiritual Assistance Drive
(b) Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spirituality Augmentation Drive
(c) Pilgrimage Resource and Spiritual Assistance Drive
(d) Preservation of Religious and Spiritual Heritage Development
Show Answer
Answer: B
46. Which ministry launched the PRASHAD scheme?
(a) Ministry of Environment
(b) Ministry of Culture
(c) Ministry of Tourism
(d) Ministry of Home Affairs
Show Answer
Answer: C
47. In what year was the PRASHAD scheme launched?
(a) 2010
(b) 2014
(c) 2016
(d) 2018
Show Answer
Answer: B
48. What is the primary aim of India’s National Mission on High-Yielding Seeds?
(a) To promote organic farming practices
(b) To improve research and develop high-yielding, pest-resistant, and climate-resilient seeds
(c) To reduce the cost of fertilizers
(d) To encourage the export of agricultural products
Show Answer
Answer: B
49. What is the total budget allocated for the National Mission on High-Yielding Seeds?
(a) ₹50 Crore
(b) ₹100 Crore
(c) ₹500 Crore
(d) ₹200 Crore
Show Answer
Answer: B
50. What is the International Criminal Court (ICC)?
(a) The world’s first and only permanent international criminal court
(b) A temporary court established to deal with war crimes
(c) A national court for addressing genocide in specific countries
(d) A court for resolving international trade disputes
Show Answer
Answer: A
51. When was the ICC established?
(a) 1998
(b) 2002
(c) 2010
(d) 2015
Show Answer
Answer: B
52. What is the mandate of the ICC?
(a) To resolve trade disputes between countries
(b) To investigate and try individuals charged with the gravest crimes such as genocide and war crimes
(c) To settle political disputes between nations
(d) To create international peace treaties
Show Answer
Answer: B
53. Which of the following countries is NOT a party to the Rome Statute of the ICC?
(a) Malaysia
(b) Ukraine
(c) India
(d) South Africa
Show Answer
Answer: C
54. Where is the headquarters of the International Criminal Court located?
(a) New York, USA
(b) Paris, France
(c) Hague, Netherlands
(d) Geneva, Switzerland
Show Answer
Answer: C
55. What is the new name of Fort William in Kolkata?
(a) Vijay Durg
(b) Vijay Fort
(c) Clive Fort
(d) Hooghly Durg
Show Answer
Answer: A
56. What is the main purpose of India’s Overseas Mobility Bill 2024?
(a) To limit migration from India
(b) To modernize migration policies and ensure safe, legal employment abroad
(c) To promote illegal immigration for Indian citizens
(d) To eliminate migration opportunities for Indian workers
Show Answer
Answer: B
57. Which existing law does the Overseas Mobility Bill 2024 aim to replace or update?
(a) The Emigration Act of 1983
(b) The Immigration Act of 1995
(c) The Foreign Employment Act of 2000
(d) The Migration and Employment Act of 2010
Show Answer
Answer: A
58. What is the role of the Governor in the assent process according to Article 200 of the Indian Constitution?
(a) To introduce bills in the legislature
(b) To approve or reject bills passed by the State Legislature
(c) To create new laws for the state
(d) To draft constitutional amendments
Show Answer
Answer: B
59. Which of the following is NOT one of the options available to the Governor when a bill is presented to them after being passed by the State Legislature?
(a) Grant Assent
(b) Withhold Assent
(c) Return the Bill for Reconsideration
(d) Approve the Bill for Immediate Enforcement
Show Answer
Answer: D
60. What happens if the Governor returns a bill to the State Legislature with suggestions and the Legislature passes it again without modifications?
(a) The Governor can refuse to assent again
(b) The Governor is bound to give assent
(c) The President must decide on the bill
(d) The bill is automatically dismissed
Show Answer
Answer: B
61. When can the Governor reserve a bill for the President’s assent?
(a) If the bill relates to the state’s budget
(b) If the bill is contrary to the Constitution, affects the powers of the High Court, or contradicts Central laws
(c) If the bill is in favor of religious minorities
(d) If the bill addresses matters of state taxation
Show Answer
Answer: B
62. Which of the following is a situation where the Governor might withhold assent to a bill?
(a) The bill addresses an important national issue
(b) The bill is supported by the ruling party in the state legislature
(c) The bill is unconstitutional or violates central laws
(d) The bill pertains to the state’s education system
Show Answer
Answer: C
63. What is the Governor’s power when a bill is returned for reconsideration after withholding assent?
(a) The Governor can keep sending it back indefinitely
(b) The Governor is required to give assent if the Legislature passes the bill again without modifications
(c) The Governor can approve the bill only if the President agrees
(d) The Governor has the final decision regardless of the legislature’s actions
Show Answer
Answer: B
64. Where is India’s largest solar cell and module manufacturing unit located?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Karnataka
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Delhi
Show Answer
Answer: (a) Tamil Nadu
65. What is the primary purpose of SARAT Version 2 launched by the Ministry of Earth Sciences?
(a) To monitor air quality in the Indian Ocean
(b) To enhance search-and-rescue operations in the Indian Ocean
(c) To track weather patterns in the Indian Ocean
(d) To assist in global warming research
Show Answer
Answer: (b) To enhance search-and-rescue operations in the Indian Ocean
66. Which organization developed the SARAT Version 2 system?
(a) Ministry of Defense
(b) Indian Space Research Organisation
(c) ESSO-INCOIS
(d) Ministry of Home Affairs
Show Answer
Answer: (c) ESSO-INCOIS
67. Which prestigious award was won by INCOIS in 2025?
(a) National Science Excellence Award
(b) Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda Prabandhan Puraskar
(c) National Innovation Award
(d) Disaster Management Excellence Award
Show Answer
Answer: (b) Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda Prabandhan Puraskar
68. What is the primary objective of e-NAM 2.0 launched by the Union Agriculture Minister?
(a) To promote organic farming across India
(b) To enhance inter-state and inter-mandi agricultural trade efficiency
(c) To regulate crop prices in local markets
(d) To provide financial support to farmers
Show Answer
Answer: (b) To enhance inter-state and inter-mandi agricultural trade efficiency
69. What does e-NAM stand for?
(a) Electronic National Agricultural Movement
(b) Electronic National Agricultural Market
(c) Enhanced National Agricultural Mechanization
(d) Electronic New Agricultural Model
Show Answer
Answer: (b) Electronic National Agricultural Market
70. Which ministry is responsible for the implementation of e-NAM in India?
(a) Ministry of Rural Development
(b) Ministry of Finance
(c) Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare
(d) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Show Answer
Answer: (c) Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare
71. What is the primary goal of the Swavalambini Programme launched by the Ministry of Skill Development?
(a) To promote corporate jobs for women
(b) To empower women through self-employment and entrepreneurship
(c) To provide government jobs to female students
(d) To support women in traditional craftsmanship only
Show Answer
Answer: (b) To empower women through self-employment and entrepreneurship
72. Which regions are the focus of the Swavalambini Programme?
(a) Southern India
(b) North-Eastern states of India
(c) Western India
(d) Rural regions of Uttar Pradesh
Show Answer
Answer: (b) North-Eastern states of India
73. In collaboration with which organization has the Ministry of Skill Development launched the Swavalambini Programme?
(a) NITI Aayog
(b) Ministry of Women and Child Development
(c) Confederation of Indian Industry (CII)
(d) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
Show Answer
Answer: (a) NITI Aayog
74. Which Ministry is responsible for launching the Swavalambini Programme?
(a) Ministry of Rural Development
(b) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
(c) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(d) Ministry of Labour and Employmenta
Show Answer
Answer: (b) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
75. What is the Sahitya Akademi Award recognized for?
(a) Exceptional contributions in visual arts
(b) Outstanding literary contributions in novels, poetry, essays, and plays
(c) Excellence in scientific research
(d) Contributions to social welfare
Show Answer
Answer: (b) Outstanding literary contributions in novels, poetry, essays, and plays
76. When was the Sahitya Akademi Award established?
(a) 1960
(b) 1954
(c) 1972
(d) 1947
Show Answer
Answer: (b) 1954
77. Which of the following is true about the Sahitya Akademi Award?
(a) It is the highest literary honor in India
(b) It honors exceptional literary contributions in only Hindi and English
(c) It includes works in 22 languages of the 8th Schedule, English, Rajasthani, and translations of Indian literary works
(d) It is awarded only for novels
Show Answer
Answer: (c) It includes works in 22 languages of the 8th Schedule, English, Rajasthani, and translations of Indian literary works
78. Which is the second-highest literary honor in India, after the Jnanpith Award?
(a) Sahitya Akademi Award
(b) Padma Bhushan
(c) Bharat Ratna
(d) Booker Prize
Show Answer
Answer: (a) Sahitya Akademi Award
79. Under which Ministry does the Sahitya Akademi operate?
(a) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(b) Ministry of Culture
(c) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
(d) Ministry of External Affairs
Show Answer
Answer: (b) Ministry of Culture
80. What is the total installed solar capacity of India as of January 31, 2025?
(a) 75.33 GW
(b) 100.33 GW
(c) 50.33 GW
(d) 120.33 GW
Show Answer
Answer: (b) 100.33 GW
81. Which of the following states is NOT mentioned as a top-performing state in solar power installation?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Gujarat
Show Answer
Answer: (c) Uttar Pradesh
82. In what year did India achieve the 100 GW solar power capacity milestone?
(a) 2023
(b) 2024
(c) 2025
(d) 2026
Show Answer
Answer: (c) 2025
83. What is the primary goal of the National Solar Mission launched in 2010?
(a) To achieve 100 GW of solar capacity by 2025
(b) To achieve 280 GW of installed solar capacity by 2030
(c) To promote wind energy across India
(d) To make solar panels free for farmers
Show Answer
Answer: (b) To achieve 280 GW of installed solar capacity by 2030
84. What does the PM SuryaGhar Muft Bijli Yojana aim to do?
(a) Provide free solar power to farmers
(b) Make rooftop solar installations a reality for households
(c) Promote solar power for agricultural irrigation
(d) Achieve 100 GW of solar capacity in rural areas
Show Answer
Answer: (b) Make rooftop solar installations a reality for households
85. What is the main focus of the PM-KUSUM Scheme?
(a) To promote solar rooftop installations for urban areas
(b) To support farmers by promoting solar irrigation pumps and grid-connected renewable energy solutions
(c) To provide free solar electricity to villages
(d) To enhance solar power use in the industrial sector
Show Answer
Answer: (b) To support farmers by promoting solar irrigation pumps and grid-connected renewable energy solutions
86. What is the purpose of the International Solar Alliance (ISA)?
(a) To help India achieve 100 GW of solar power
(b) To promote cooperation among solar-rich countries for solar energy development
(c) To provide financial aid to solar manufacturers in India
(d) To regulate global solar energy prices
Show Answer
Answer: (b) To promote cooperation among solar-rich countries for solar energy development
87. In what year was the National Solar Mission launched?
(a) 2005
(b) 2010
(c) 2015
(d) 2020
Show Answer
Answer: (b) 2010
88. What percentage of India’s total imports does gold account for?
(a) 3%
(b) 5%
(c) 8%
(d) 10%
Show Answer
Answer: (b) 5%
89. Which state holds the largest share of gold reserves in India?
(a) Karnataka
(b) West Bengal
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Bihar
Show Answer
Answer: (d) Bihar
90. Which state in India has the second-largest share of gold reserves?
(a) Karnataka
(b) West Bengal
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Bihar
Show Answer
Answer: (a) Karnataka
91. In which year was the World Gold Council formed?
(a) 1990
(b) 1987
(c) 1985
(d) 2000
Show Answer
Answer: (b) 1987
92. Where is the headquarters of the World Gold Council located?
(a) New York
(b) London
(c) Zurich
(d) Paris
Show Answer
Answer: (b) London
93. What is the primary purpose of the Economic Capital Framework (ECF) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
(a) To determine RBI’s monetary policy
(b) To manage RBI’s financial reserves, risk provisioning, and surplus transfers to the central government
(c) To regulate the interest rates of commercial banks
(d) To monitor inflation rates across India
Show Answer
Answer: (b) To manage RBI’s financial reserves, risk provisioning, and surplus transfers to the central government
94. What is the Contingency Risk Buffer (CRB) maintained by the Reserve Bank of India used for?
(a) To address unforeseen economic crises and ensure financial stability
(b) To provide interest-free loans to the government
(c) To regulate the stock market in India
(d) To maintain RBI’s operating expenses
Show Answer
Answer: (a) To address unforeseen economic crises and ensure financial stability
95. What was the recommended range for the Contingency Risk Buffer (CRB) according to the Bimal Jalan Committee (2018)?
(a) 2.5% to 3.5%
(b) 3.5% to 4.5%
(c) 5.5% to 6.5%
(d) 6.5% to 7.5%
Show Answer
Answer: (c) 5.5% to 6.5%
96. How often is the Economic Capital Framework (ECF) of the Reserve Bank of India suggested to be reviewed?
(a) Every 2 years
(b) Every 5 years
(c) Every 10 years
(d) Every year
Show Answer
Answer: (b) Every 5 years
97. Which country was Sam Nujoma the founding father of?
(a) South Africa
(b) Namibia
(c) Botswana
(d) Zimbabwe
Show Answer
Answer: B
98. What is the name of the joint military exercise between India and Egypt?
(a) Desert Storm
(b) Cyclone
(c) Thunder Strike
(d) Joint Fury
Show Answer
Answer: B
99. In which state of India is the Mahajan Field Firing Range located?
(a) Haryana
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Punjab
Show Answer
Answer: B
100. What is the name of the newly approved railway zone in India?
(a) Eastern Coast Railway Zone
(b) South Coast Railway Zone
(c) Central Coast Railway Zone
(d) Southern Railway Zone
Show Answer
Answer: B
101. How many total railway zones will India have after the creation of the South Coast Railway Zone?
(a) 16
(b) 18
(c) 20
(d) 22
Show Answer
Answer: B
102. South Coast Railway Zone will be created by reorganizing parts of which two existing railway
zones?
(a) Northern Railway and Western Railway
(b) Eastern Railway and Central Railway
(c) East Coast Railway and South Central Railway
(d) Southern Railway and Western Railway
Show Answer
Answer: C
103. Where will the headquarters of the South Coast Railway Zone be located?
(a) Chennai
(b) Visakhapatnam
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Bhubaneswar
Show Answer
Answer: B
104. Where is the Netzarim Corridor located?
(a) Between Gaza and Egypt
(b) Between Gaza and Israel
(c) Between Gaza and the West Bank
(d) Between Gaza and the Mediterranean Sea
Show Answer
Answer: B
105. Which country’s Foreign Minister expressed concern about the Cook Islands signing a cooperation
deal with China?
(a) Australia
(b) New Zealand
(c) United States
(d) Japan
Show Answer
Answer: B
106. What is the capital of the Cook Islands?
(a) Papeete
(b) Avarua
(c) Nuku’alofa
(d) Suva
Show Answer
Answer: B
107. Where was the 15th edition of the Aero India Airshow inaugurated?
(a) Delhi
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Bengaluru
(d) Mumbai
Show Answer
Answer: C
108. What is the theme of the Aero India 2025 airshow?
(a) Airspace Innovation
(b) The Sky is the Limit
(c) The Future of Aviation
(d) The Runway to a Billion Opportunities
Show Answer
Answer: D
109. What is Aero India recognized as in Asia?
(a) The Largest Aviation Conference
(b) Asia’s Largest Airshow
(c) The Biggest Defence Exhibition
(d) The Most Popular Aviation Event
Show Answer
Answer: B
110. Who organizes the Aero India Airshow?
(a) Indian Air Force
(b) Ministry of Civil Aviation
(c) Defence Exhibition Organisation
(d) Ministry of External Affairs
Show Answer
Answer: C
111. Which ministry is the nodal ministry for the Aero India Airshow?
(a) Ministry of Defence
(b) Ministry of Civil Aviation
(c) Ministry of Home Affairs
(d) Ministry of External Affairs
Show Answer
Answer: A
112. What is the name of the scheme under which 41 new books were unveiled to promote young
authors?
(a) PM YUVA 2.0
(b) National Literature Scheme
(c) India Writers’ Initiative
(d) Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav
Show Answer
Answer: A
113. What is the primary aim of the PM YUVA 2.0 scheme?
(a) To promote reading and writing in India and project Indian writings globally
(b) To provide financial support to publishers
(c) To promote online publishing of books
(d) To encourage older authors to publish books
Show Answer
Answer: A
114. Which national event is the PM YUVA 2.0 scheme a part of?
(a) India@75 Project (Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav)
(b) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
(c) Make in India
(d) Digital India
Show Answer
Answer: A
115. Which three countries are referred to as the Baltic States?
(a) Estonia, Latvia, and Lithuania
(b) Poland, Czech Republic, and Slovakia
(c) Sweden, Norway, and Finland
(d) Germany, Denmark, and Netherlands
Show Answer
Answer: A
116. What is the largest expanse of brackish water in the world?
(a) Caspian Sea
(b) Baltic Sea
(c) Black Sea
(d) Red Sea
Show Answer
Answer: B
117. Which article of the Indian Constitution grants special powers to certain states?
(a) Article 370
(b) Article 371-371J
(c) Article 368
(d) Article 356
Show Answer
Answer: B
118. Where was the first-ever BIMSTEC Youth Summit hosted?
(a) New Delhi, India
(b) Kathmandu, Nepal
(c) Gandhinagar, Gujarat, India
(d) Dhaka, Bangladesh
Show Answer
Answer: C
119. What was the theme of the BIMSTEC Youth Summit 2025?
(a) Empowering Youth for Regional Peace
(b) Youth as a Bridge for Intra-BIMSTEC Exchange
(c) Fostering Entrepreneurship Across BIMSTEC Nations
(d) Building Future Leaders for South Asia
Show Answer
Answer: B
120. When was BIMSTEC established?
(a) 1992
(b) 1995
(c) 1997
(d) 2000
Show Answer
Answer: C
121. Where is the Secretariat of BIMSTEC located?
(a) New Delhi, India
(b) Dhaka, Bangladesh
(c) Kathmandu, Nepal
(d) Colombo, Sri Lanka
Show Answer
Answer: B
122. Which of the following is NOT one of the 7 focus areas of BIMSTEC?
(a) Trade
(b) Agriculture and Food Security
(c) Health and Education
(d) Connectivity
Show Answer
Answer: C
123. What was the main objective behind the establishment of BIMSTEC?
(a) To promote tourism in the Bay of Bengal region
(b) To enhance military cooperation
(c) To promote rapid economic development, social progress, and ensure peace and stability
across the Bay of Bengal region
(d) To establish a free trade agreement among member countries
Show Answer
Answer: C
124. How many countries are members of BIMSTEC?
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9
Show Answer
Answer: B
125. What is the new name given to Hindustan Aeronautics’ Hindustan Jet Trainer (HJT)-36 aircraft?
(a) Yashas
(b) Dhruv
(c) Vayu
(d) Surya
Show Answer
Answer: A
126. Who is responsible for the rebranding of the Hindustan Jet Trainer (HJT)-36 aircraft?
(a) Indian Air Force
(b) Hindustan Aeronautics
(c) Indian Navy
(d) Lockheed Martin
Show Answer
Answer: B
127. Which country’s aeronautics company is behind the development and rebranding of the HJT-36 aircraft?
(a) United States
(b) India
(c) Russia
(d) China
Show Answer
Answer: B
128. What type of aircraft is the Hindustan Jet Trainer (HJT)-36 classified as?
(a) Commercial jet
(b) Fighter jet
(c) Jet trainer
(d) Cargo plane
Show Answer
Answer: C
129. What is the name of India’s first indigenous automated biomedical waste treatment rig?
(a) Aarogya
(b) Sŗjanam
(c) Jeevan
(d) Swasthya
Show Answer
Answer: B
130. Which institute developed the ‘Sŗjanam’ automated biomedical waste treatment rig?
(a) DRDO
(b) AIIMS
(c) CSIR-NIIST
(d) ISRO
Show Answer
Answer: C
131. What is the name of the world’s only marker vaccine for Lumpy Skin Disease?
(a) Lumpyvax
(b) Biolumpivaxin
(c) SkinGuard
(d) LumpyVac
Show Answer
Answer: B
132. Which organization granted licensing for the marker vaccine Biolumpivaxin?
(a) WHO
(b) CDSCO
(c) FSSAI
(d) NCDC
Show Answer
Answer: B
133. Biovet, the company behind Biolumpivaxin, is a subsidiary of which larger company?
(a) Serum Institute of India
(b) Bharat Biotech
(c) Cipla
(d) Novartis
Show Answer
Answer: B
134. What type of disease does Biolumpivaxin target?
(a) Foot and Mouth Disease
(b) Lumpy Skin Disease
(c) Rabies
(d) Swine Flu
Show Answer
Answer: B
135. Lumpy Skin Disease primarily affects which animals?
(a) Dogs and cats
(b) Horses and camels
(c) Cattle and water buffalo
(d) Poultry
Show Answer
Answer: C
136. What is the primary objective of the PM-AJAY Scheme?
(a) To provide education to children in rural areas
(b) To promote tourism in rural regions
(c) To reduce poverty among SC communities in SC dominated villages
(d) To improve healthcare in urban areas
Show Answer
Answer: C
137. What type of scheme is the PM-AJAY Scheme?
(a) State-Sponsored Scheme
(b) Centrally Sponsored Scheme
(c) Private-Public Partnership Scheme
(d) International Aid Scheme
Show Answer
Answer: B
138. What does ASPIRE stand for in the context of the India-UK energy collaboration?
(a) Accelerating Sustainable Power in Renewable Energy
(b) Accelerating Smart Power & Renewable Energy in India
(c) Advanced Smart Power & Infrastructure for Renewable Energy
(d) Accelerating Solar Power and Innovation for Renewable Energy
Show Answer
Answer: B
139. Which countries are involved in the ASPIRE program?
(a) India and USA
(b) India and UK
(c) India and Japan
(d) India and France
Show Answer
Answer: B
140. Which Indian ministries are involved in the implementation of the ASPIRE program?
(a) Ministry of Finance & Ministry of Environment
(b) Ministry of Power & Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
(c) Ministry of Petroleum & Ministry of Agriculture
(d) Ministry of Urban Development & Ministry of Transport
Show Answer
Answer: B
141. International Day of Women and Girls in Science is observed on:
(a) February 10
(b) February 11
(c) February 12
(d) February 13
Show Answer
Answer: B
142. What is the causal agent of Lymphatic Filariasis?
(a) Viruses
(b) Parasites
(c) Bacteria
(d) Fungi
Show Answer
Answer: B
143. Lymphatic Filariasis is classified as a:
(a) Epidemic disease
(b) Neglected Tropical Disease
(c) Common Cold
(d) Respiratory disease
Show Answer
Answer: B
144. What is the South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA)?
(a) A political alliance of South Asian countries
(b) A free trade arrangement of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)
(c) A military cooperation agreement among South Asian countries
(d) A tourism development program for South Asia
Show Answer
Answer: B
145. When did the South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA) come into force?
(a) 1993
(b) 2000
(c) 2006
(d) 2010
Show Answer
Answer: C
146. Which of the following countries is NOT a member of SAFTA?
(a) India
(b) Afghanistan
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Myanmar
Show Answer
Answer: D
147. Which regional organization is responsible for SAFTA?
(a) ASEAN
(b) SAARC
(c) EU
(d) OPEC
Show Answer
Answer: B
148. Which country has the world’s largest vegetable oil economy?
(a) Brazil
(b) China
(c) USA
(d) India
Show Answer
Answer: C
149. Where does India rank in terms of the world’s largest vegetable oil economy?
(a) 1st
(b) 2nd
(c) 3rd
(d) 4th
Show Answer
Answer: D
150. Which states have the highest funding for higher education?
(a) Maharashtra, Bihar, Tamil Nadu
(b) Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland
(c) Kerala, Chhattisgarh, Himachal Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar
Show Answer
Answer: A
151. Which states have the lowest funding for higher education?
(a) Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Bihar
(b) Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland
(c) Kerala, Chhattisgarh, Himachal Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Maharashtra
Show Answer
Answer: B
152. What is the national average university density in India?
(a) 0.5
(b) 0.8
(c) 1.2
(d) 1.5
Show Answer
Answer: B
153. Which state has the highest university density in India?
(a) Bihar
(b) Sikkim
(c) Kerala
(d) Maharashtra
Show Answer
Answer: B
154. Which of the following states have university density below the national average?
(a) Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal
(c) Kerala, Chhattisgarh, Tamil Nadu
(d) Bihar, Tamil Nadu, Uttarakhand
Show Answer
Answer: B
155. Where is Palk Bay located?
(a) Between Eastern India and Bangladesh
(b) Between Southern India and Northern Sri Lanka
(c) Between Northern India and Pakistan
(d) Between Western India and Saudi Arabia
Show Answer
Answer: B
156. What connects Palk Bay to the Bay of Bengal?
(a) Pamban Strait
(b) Gulf of Mannar
(c) Palk Strait
(d) Adam’s Bridge
Show Answer
Answer: C
157. Which agreement requires states to become members or agree to apply Conservation and Management Measures to access fishery resources?
(a) UNCLOS (1982)
(b) UN Fish Stocks Agreement (1995)
(c) The Paris Agreement (2015)
(d) The Kyoto Protocol (1997)
Show Answer
Answer: B
158. Which article of UNCLOS (1982) limits fishing freedom on the High Seas?
(a) Article 72
(b) Article 87
(c) Article 102
(d) Article 110
Show Answer
Answer: B
159. When was the Skill India Programme launched?
(a) 2010
(b) 2015
(c) 2020
(d) 2018
Show Answer
Answer: B
160. Which ministry is responsible for overseeing the Skill India Programme?
(a) Ministry of Education
(b) Ministry of Labour and Employment
(c) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
(d) Ministry of Finance
Show Answer
Answer: C
161. By when has the Skill India Programme been extended after the restructuring?
(a) March 2024
(b) March 2025
(c) March 2026
(d) March 2027
Show Answer
Answer: C
162. According to Article 85 of the Constitution, who has the authority to summon each House of Parliament as needed?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) President of India
(d) Chief Justice of India
Show Answer
Answer: C
163. What is the maximum gap between sessions of Parliament, as per Article 85 of the Constitution?
(a) 4 months
(b) 5 months
(c) 6 months
(d) 1 year
Show Answer
Answer: C
164. What is the primary objective of the POCSO Act, 2012?
(a) To protect children from physical abuse only
(b) To address sexual exploitation and abuse of children
(c) To regulate child labor practices
(d) To provide education to children
Show Answer
Answer: B
165. According to the POCSO Act, 2012, how is a child defined?
(a) Any person below the age of 16 years
(b) Any person below the age of 18 years
(c) Any person below the age of 21 years
(d) Any person below the age of 14 years
Show Answer
Answer: B
166. What tariff did Donald Trump announce on foreign steel and aluminium?
(a) 15%
(b) 20%
(c) 25%
(d) 30%
Show Answer
Answer: C
167. What is the name of the 20-qubit quantum computer recently activated in Japan?
(a) Fugaku Quantum
(b) Reimei
(c) QuantumX
(d) SuperNova
Show Answer
Answer: B
168. Which country is home to the world’s first hybrid quantum supercomputer that integrates with
Fugaku?
(a) USA
(b) Japan
(c) Germany
(d) China
Show Answer
Answer: B
169. What is Fugaku recognized for?
(a) Being the fastest quantum computer
(b) Being the world’s 6th fastest supercomputer
(c) Being a hybrid quantum supercomputer
(d) Being the first 20-qubit quantum computer
Show Answer
Answer: B
170. Which day is observed as International Epilepsy Day?
(a) 1st Monday of February
(b) 2nd Monday of February
(c) 3rd Monday of February
(d) 2nd Sunday of March
Show Answer
Answer: B
171. When is National Epilepsy Day observed in India?
(a) 2nd November
(b) 15th November
(c) 17th November
(d) 1st December
Show Answer
Answer: C
172. What is epilepsy recognized as by the World Health Organization (WHO)?
(a) A contagious disease
(b) A neurological condition
(c) A mental health disorder
(d) A chronic digestive condition
Show Answer
Answer: B
173. What does GIAHS stand for?
(a) Global Indigenous Agricultural Heritage Sites
(b) Global International Agricultural Heritage Systems
(c) Global Innovative Agricultural Heritage Sites
(d) Global Important Agricultural Heritage Systems
Show Answer
Answer: D
174. Who recognizes GIAHS sites for their cultural, ecological, and agricultural significance?
(a) United Nations
(b) Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
(c) World Health Organization (WHO)
(d) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO)
Show Answer
Answer: B
175. Which of the following is a GIAHS site in India?
(a) Saffron Heritage (Kashmir)
(b) Tea Cultivation (Darjeeling)
(c) Cashew Nut Farming (Goa)
(d) Cotton Cultivation (Gujarat)
Show Answer
Answer: A
176. Kuttanad’s Wetland Agriculture System in Kerala is recognized as a GIAHS site. What is one of
the traditional crops grown there?
(a) Rice (Puncha paddy)
(b) Saffron
(c) Tea
(d) Coffee
Show Answer
Answer: A
177. What is the main focus of the GIAHS program?
(a) Protecting endangered species
(b) Preserving traditional agricultural practices with cultural and ecological significance
(c) Promoting modern farming techniques
(d) Expanding agricultural exports
Show Answer
Answer: B
178. When was the Fishery Survey of India established?
(a) 1975
(b) 1980
(c) 1983
(d) 1990
Show Answer
Answer: C
179. What is the primary responsibility of the Fishery Survey of India?
(a) Exporting seafood
(b) Surveying and assessing fishery resources in India’s Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) and
adjoining areas
(c) Developing new fish farming techniques
(d) Protecting endangered marine species
Show Answer
Answer: B
180. Which ministry does the Fishery Survey of India work under?
(a) Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change
(b) Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying
(c) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare
(d) Ministry of Water Resources, River Development, and Ganga Rejuvenation
Show Answer
Answer: B
181. Where is the headquarters of the Fishery Survey of India located?
(a) New Delhi
(b) Mumbai, Maharashtra
(c) Chennai, Tamil Nadu
(d) Kochi, Kerala
Show Answer
Answer: B
182. When was the United Kingdom-India Young Professionals Scheme (YPS) launched?
(a) 2020
(b) 2021
(c) 2023
(d) 2024
Show Answer
Answer: C
183. Under the YPS, how long can Indian citizens live and work in the UK?
(a) 1 Year
(b) 2 Years
(c) 3 Years
(d) 5 Years
Show Answer
Answer: B
184. What is the eligibility age for candidates applying to the United Kingdom-India Young
Professionals Scheme (YPS)?
(a) 16 to 26 years
(b) 18 to 30 years
(c) 21 to 35 years
(d) 25 to 40 years
Show Answer
Answer: B
185. What financial proof is required for applicants to the YPS?
(a) £1,000 in savings
(b) £2,000 in savings
(c) £2,530 in savings
(d) £3,000 in savings
Show Answer
Answer: C
186. Where was the Comprehensive Devolution Index Report released by the Ministry of Panchayati
Raj?
(a) Indian Institute of Technology, Delhi
(b) Indian Institute of Public Administration, New Delhi
(c) National Academy of Administration, Mussoorie
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru University, New Delhi
Show Answer
Answer: B
187. What is the purpose of the Comprehensive Devolution Index Report?
(a) To analyze economic development across states
(b) To provide insights into the progress of decentralization across states and union territories
(c) To evaluate urban development initiatives
(d) To assess the performance of central government policies
Show Answer
Answer: B
188. How many critical dimensions does the Devolution Index evaluate?
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 7
Show Answer
Answer: C
189. Which of the following is NOT one of the critical dimensions evaluated in the Devolution Index?
(a) Framework
(b) Functions
(c) Urban Planning
(d) Accountability of Panchayats
Show Answer
Answer: C
190.What does Article 243G of the Indian Constitution empower State Legislatures to do?
(a) Grant autonomy to municipalities
(b) Devolve powers and responsibilities to Panchayats across 29 subjects listed in the 11th Schedule
(c) Directly control Panchayats
(d) Regulate the functioning of political parties
Show Answer
Answer: B
191. What does IRIS stand for?
(a) Indian RISC-based Integrated System
(b) Indigenous RISCV Controller for Space Applications
(c) International RISC System for Aerospace
(d) Integrated RISCV System for India
Show Answer
Answer: B
192. Which processor is the IRIS chip based on?
(a) Intel Processor
(b) SHAKTI Processor
(c) ARM Processor
(d) RIMO Processor
Show Answer
Answer: B
193. What is the primary purpose of the IRIS chip?
(a) To power consumer electronics
(b) For space applications
(c) To be used in autonomous vehicles
(d) For medical equipment
Show Answer
Answer: B
194. Which two organizations developed the IRIS chip?
(a) DRDO and ISRO
(b) IIT Madras and ISRO
(c) IIT Delhi and ISRO
(d) NASA and IIT Madras
Show Answer
Answer: B
195. What is India’s rank in the 2024 Corruption Perceptions Index?
(a) 80th
(b) 96th
(c) 105th
(d) 120th
Show Answer
Answer: B
196. When was the Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) started?
(a) 1985
(b) 1990
(c) 1995
(d) 2000
Show Answer
Answer: C
197. What does the Corruption Perceptions Index measure?
(a) The overall economic development of a country
(b) The perceived levels of public sector corruption in countries
(c) The political stability of countries
(d) The level of income inequality in countries
Show Answer
Answer: B
198. Which organization releases the Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI)?
(a) World Bank
(b) United Nations
(c) Transparency International
(d) Amnesty International
Show Answer
Answer: C
199. What does a CPI score of “0” represent?
(a) Highly Clean
(b) Moderately Clean
(c) Highly Corrupt
(d) No Corruption Data Available
Show Answer
Answer: C
200. When was Transparency International founded?
(a) 1985
(b) 1990
(c) 1993
(d) 2000
Show Answer
Answer: C
201. What type of organization is Transparency International?
(a) International Governmental Organization
(b) Non-Governmental, Non-Profit Organization
(c) Multinational Corporation
(d) Research Institution
Show Answer
Answer: B
202. What is the primary aim of Transparency International?
(a) To monitor global economic trends
(b) To combat global corruption through civil societal anti-corruption measures
(c) To promote international trade agreements
(d) To regulate government spending across countries
Show Answer
Answer: B
203. Where is the headquarters of Transparency International located?
(a) London, United Kingdom
(b) New York, United States
(c) Berlin, Germany
(d) Paris, France
Show Answer
Answer: C
204. What percentage of the world’s population lives in countries with a Corruption Perceptions Index
(CPI) score below 50?
(a) 50%
(b) 60%
(c) 70%
(d) 85%
Show Answer
Answer: D
205. What was India’s CPI score in 2024?
(a) 40
(b) 38
(c) 42
(d) 45
Show Answer
Answer: B
206. How did India’s CPI score change from 2023 to 2024?
(a) It increased by 1 point
(b) It dropped by 1 point
(c) It remained the same
(d) It dropped by 3 points
Show Answer
Answer: B
207. Which of the following countries is ranked among the least corrupt in the world, according to
the CPI 2024?
(a) India
(b) Denmark
(c) Venezuela
(d) South Sudan
Show Answer
Answer: B
208. Which countries are ranked as the most corrupt according to the CPI 2024?
(a) South Sudan, Somalia, Venezuela
(b) India, Russia, North Korea
(c) Brazil, Nigeria, Mexico
(d) Pakistan, Bangladesh, Afghanistan
Show Answer
Answer: A
209. What is India’s rank in global fish production as of 2023-24?
(a) 1st
(b) 2nd
(c) 3rd
(d) 4th
Show Answer
Answer: B
210. In which area does India rank 2nd globally in fish production?
(a) Aquaculture Production
(b) Capture Fisheries Production
(c) Shrimp Production
(d) Global Fish Production
Show Answer
Answer: A
211. Which of the following categories does India lead globally in?
(a) Shrimp Production
(b) Capture Fisheries Production
(c) Freshwater Fish Production
(d) Aquaculture Production
Show Answer
Answer: A
212. What is India’s global share in fish production?
(a) 5%
(b) 8%
(c) 12%
(d) 10%
Show Answer
Answer: B
213. Which position does India hold in capture fisheries production?
(a) 1st
(b) 2nd
(c) 3rd
(d) 4th
Show Answer
Answer: C
214. What is the main goal of the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana?
(a) To improve the quality of fishing equipment
(b) To enhance aquaculture productivity and improve fisheries management
(c) To promote international trade of seafood
(d) To regulate fish pricing in global markets
Show Answer
Answer: B
215. What is the sub-scheme of the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana aimed at addressing?
(a) Fish preservation
(b) Financial and technological weaknesses in the fishing sector
(c) Market access for fish farmers
(d) International fisheries trade
Show Answer
Answer: B
216. Which of the following schemes takes an integrated approach for the development and
management of both marine and inland fisheries?
(a) Blue Revolution Scheme
(b) National Marine Fisheries Policy 2017
(c) Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana
(d) Fisheries and Aquaculture Infrastructure Development Fund
Show Answer
Answer: A
217. What is the purpose of the Fisheries and Aquaculture Infrastructure Development Fund?
(a) To provide subsidies to fish exporters
(b) To provide funding for the creation of infrastructure in both marine and inland fisheries
(c) To regulate fish farming prices
(d) To promote fish consumption domestically
Show Answer
Answer: B
218. What does the National Marine Fisheries Policy 2017 focus on?
(a) Increasing global fish exports
(b) Conservation and management of India’s marine fishery resources
(c) Providing financial aid to fish farmers
(d) Promoting aquaculture in coastal regions
Show Answer
Answer: B
219. Which of the following is a key component of the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana?
(a) Establishment of integrated aquaparks
(b) Promoting fish exports to foreign markets
(c) Setting fish consumption targets
(d) Introducing new species of fish in Indian waters
Show Answer
Answer: A
220. Who co-chaired the AI Action Summit in Paris?
(a) US President Joe Biden and Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi
(b) French President Emmanuel Macron and Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi
(c) French President Emmanuel Macron and German Chancellor Angela Merkel
(d) Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi and UK Prime Minister Rishi Sunak
Show Answer
Answer: B
221. Which country hosted the AI Action Summit in 2024?
(a) United States
(b) India
(c) France
(d) United Kingdom
Show Answer
Answer: C
222. Which country has been announced as the host for the next AI Summit?
(a) United States
(b) India
(c) Japan
(d) Germany
Show Answer
Answer: B
223. What was the primary focus of the AI Action Summit held in Paris?
(a) Artificial Intelligence’s role in healthcare
(b) Advancing discussions and collaborations in Artificial Intelligence
(c) The economic impact of AI
(d) The environmental implications of AI
Show Answer
Answer: B
224. Which of the following was NOT a theme of the AI Action Summit?
(a) Public Interest AI
(b) Future of Work
(c) Trust in AI
(d) Artificial Intelligence in Space Exploration
Show Answer
Answer: D
Download Free PDF
Download the February 2025 2nd Week Current Affairs Quiz PDF to easily access all questions and answers.
Study Current Affairs of February 2nd Week
For a detailed understanding of the major events from the 2nd week of February 2025, visit our comprehensive current affairs page. It covers all significant news and developments, providing essential insights to help you stay informed and well-prepared for exams or discussions.
8 February to 14 February (Weekly Current Affairs)
Try Current Affairs Quiz of Other Weeks
| February 4th Week Current Affairs Quiz 2025 | February 3rd Week Current Affairs Quiz 2025 |
| February 2nd Week Current Affairs Quiz 2025 | February 1st Week Current Affairs Quiz 2025 |