Practice the August 2025 2nd Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the second week of August 2025.
The Current Affairs Quiz of 8 to 14 August features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.
2nd Week of August 2025: Current Affairs Quiz
1. he Merchant Shipping Bill, 2025 replaces which existing act?
(a) Merchant Shipping Act, 1956
(b) Merchant Shipping Act, 1958
(c) Merchant Shipping Act, 1960
(d) Merchant Shipping Act, 1962
Show Answer
Answer: b) Merchant Shipping Act, 1958
2. MARPOL convention stands for:
(a) Marine Pollution Prevention Convention
(b) International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships
(c) Maritime Protection and Pollution Control
(d) Marine and Port Pollution Control
Show Answer
Answer: b) International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships
3. Under the new maritime bills, the Director-General of Shipping is renamed as:
(a) Director-General of Maritime Affairs
(b) Director-General of Marine Administration
(c) Director-General of Shipping Administration
(d) Director-General of Maritime Operations
Show Answer
Answer: b) Director-General of Marine Administration
4. The Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, 2025 replaces which act?
(a) Indian Carriage of Goods by Sea Act, 1923
(b) Indian Carriage of Goods by Sea Act, 1925
(c) Indian Carriage of Goods by Sea Act, 1927
(d) Indian Carriage of Goods by Sea Act, 1929
Show Answer
Answer: b) Indian Carriage of Goods by Sea Act, 1925
5. The Hague-Visby Rules were originally established as the Hague Rules in:
(a) 1922
(b) 1924
(c) 1926
(d) 1928
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1924
6. India’s Prime Minister endorsed ASEAN Centrality at the Shangri-La Dialogue in:
(a) 2017
(b) 2018
(c) 2019
(d) 2020
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2018
7. Which of the following is NOT an ASEAN-led platform mentioned in the context of Indo-Pacific security?
(a) East Asia Summit (EAS)
(b) ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF)
(c) ASEAN Defence Ministers’ Meeting Plus (ADMM-Plus)
(d) Quad Security Dialogue
Show Answer
Answer: d) Quad Security Dialogue
8. RCEP stands for:
(a) Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership
(b) Regional Cooperation and Economic Partnership
(c) Regional Commercial and Economic Partnership
(d) Regional Comprehensive and Economic Partnership
Show Answer
Answer: a) Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership
9. CPTPP stands for:
(a) Comprehensive and Progressive Trans-Pacific Partnership
(b) Comprehensive and Preferential Trans-Pacific Partnership
(c) Commercial and Progressive Trans-Pacific Partnership
(d) Comprehensive and Progressive Trade-Pacific Partnershi
Show Answer
Answer: a) Comprehensive and Progressive Trans-Pacific Partnership
10. ASEAN Centrality gained traction primarily after:
(a) World War II
(b) The Cold War
(c) The collapse of the Soviet Union
(d) The Asian Financial Crisis
Show Answer
Answer: c) The collapse of the Soviet Union
11. The atomic bomb dropped on Hiroshima was codenamed:
(a) Fat Man
(b) Little Boy
(c) Trinity
(d) Gadge
Show Answer
Answer: b) Little Boy
12. The atomic bomb dropped on Nagasaki was codenamed:
(a) Fat Man
(b) Little Boy
(c) Trinity
(d) Gadget
Show Answer
Answer: a) Fat Man
13. Japan formally surrendered in World War II on
(a) August 15, 1945
(b) September 1, 1945
(c) September 2, 1945
(d) September 15, 1945
Show Answer
Answer: c) September 2, 1945
14. The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) was formed in
(a) 1955
(b) 1956
(c) 1957
(d) 1958
Show Answer
Answer: c) 1957
15. The Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT) was signed in
(a) 1994
(b) 1995
(c) 1996
(d) 1997
Show Answer
Answer: c) 1996
16. The world’s longest lightning flash recorded by WMO covered a distance of
(a) 709 kilometers
(b) 768 kilometers
(c) 829 kilometers
(d) 891 kilometers
Show Answer
Answer: c) 829 kilometers
17. According to Indian data, a 1°C rise in temperature may lead to what percentage increase in lightning
activity?
(a) 5-15%
(b) 7-18%
(c) 10-20%
(d) 12-25%
Show Answer
Answer: b) 7-18%
18. India recorded what percentage increase in lightning strikes between 2019 and 2024?
(a) 47%
(b) 52%
(c) 57%
(d) 62%
Show Answer
Answer: c) 57%
19. NDMA issued the “Action Plan for Prevention and Management of Lightning and Thunderstorms” in:
(a) 2017
(b) 2018
(c) 2019
(d) 2020
Show Answer
Answer: c) 2019
20. The SACHET Mobile App is related to
(a) Earthquake warnings
(b) Cyclone tracking
(c) Lightning alerts
(d) Flood monitoring
Show Answer
Answer: c) Lightning alerts
21. Under the revised RBI co-lending norms, each co-lender must retain at least what percentage of individual
loan exposure?
(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 15%
(d) 20%
Show Answer
Answer: b) 10%
22. The co-lending guidelines are issued under which acts? (Select the primary ones)
(a) Banking Regulation Act, 1949 and RBI Act, 1934
(b) Companies Act, 2013 and SEBI Act, 1992
(c) SARFAESI Act, 2002 and FEMA, 1999
(d) Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
Show Answer
Answer: a) Banking Regulation Act, 1949 and RBI Act, 1934
23. PSL in the context of co-lending stands for
(a) Public Sector Lending
(b) Priority Sector Lending
(c) Preferential Sector Lending
(d) Primary Sector Lending
Show Answer
Answer: b) Priority Sector Lending
24. If one Regulated Entity classifies a loan as NPA in co-lending arrangements:
(a) Other lenders may choose to classify differently
(b) All co-lenders must follow suit
(c) Only the lead lender’s classification matters
(d) Classification is done by RBI
Show Answer
Answer: b) All co-lenders must follow suit
25. he blended interest rate in co-lending is determined by:
(a) Simple average of all lenders’ rates
(b) Rate set by the lead lender
(c) Weighted average proportional to funding share
(d) Rate fixed by RBI
Show Answer
Answer: c) Weighted average proportional to funding share
26. GRIHA stands for:
(a) Green Rating for Infrastructure and Habitat Assessment
(b) Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment
(c) Green Resource for Integrated Habitat Assessment
(d) Green Rating for Indian Habitat Assessment
Show Answer
Answer: b) Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment
27. GRIHA was developed by:
(a) TERI (The Energy and Resources Institute)
(b) BEE (Bureau of Energy Efficiency)
(c) CPWD (Central Public Works Department)
(d) NBCC (National Buildings Construction Corporation)
Show Answer
Answer: a) TERI (The Energy and Resources Institute)
28. GRIHA was adopted as India’s national rating system for green buildings in:
(a) 2005
(b) 2006
(c) 2007
(d) 2008
Show Answer
Answer: c) 2007
29. The highest GRIHA rating level is:
(a) GRIHA-3
(b) GRIHA-4
(c) GRIHA-5
(d) GRIHA-6
Show Answer
Answer: c) GRIHA-5
30. Kartavya Bhawan is compliant with which GRIHA standard?
(a) GRIHA-3
(b) GRIHA-4
(c) GRIHA-5
(d) GRIHA-6
Show Answer
Answer: b) GRIHA-4
31. M.S. Swaminathan was born in which year?
a) 1923
b) 1925
c) 1927
d) 1929
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1925
32. The theme of the MS Swaminathan Centenary International Conference is:
a) Sustainable Agriculture for Future Generations
b) Evergreen Revolution — The Pathway to Biohappiness
c) Green Revolution to Evergreen Revolution
d) Agricultural Innovation and Food Security
Show Answer
Answer: b) Evergreen Revolution — The Pathway to Biohappiness
33. M.S. Swaminathan received the Ramon Magsaysay Award in:
a) 1970
b) 1971
c) 1972
d) 1973
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1971
34. M.S. Swaminathan was the first recipient of which international award in 1987?
a) World Food Prize
b) Right Livelihood Award
c) Tyler Prize
d) Goldman Environmental Prize
Show Answer
Answer: a) World Food Prize
35. M.S. Swaminathan was posthumously awarded the Bharat Ratna in:
a) 2023
b) 2024
c) 2025
d) He has not been awarded yet
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2024
36. In which year did M.S. Swaminathan develop frost-resistant potato hybrids?
a) 1948
b) 1950
c) 1952
d) 1954
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1950
37. M.S. Swaminathan collaborated with Norman Borlaug to integrate dwarfing genes into wheat in:
a) 1961
b) 1962
c) 1963
d) 1964
Show Answer
Answer: c) 1963
38. The concept of “Crop Cafeterias” refers to:
a) Agricultural markets for farmers
b) Planting diverse crop varieties together for nutritional security
c) Training centers for farmers
d) Storage facilities for crops
Show Answer
Answer: b) Planting diverse crop varieties together for nutritional security
39. Village Knowledge Centres were promoted as part of:
a) Green Revolution
b) White Revolution
c) Evergreen Revolution
d) Blue Revolution
Show Answer
Answer: c) Evergreen Revolution
40. The Swaminathan Report was produced by which commission?
a) National Commission on Agriculture
b) National Commission on Farmers
c) National Commission on Rural Development
d) National Commission on Food Security
Show Answer
Answer: b) National Commission on Farmers
41. The Joint Doctrine for Amphibious Operations updates the previous doctrine from which year?
a) 2006
b) 2007
c) 2008
d) 2009
Show Answer
Answer: c) 2008
42. The Department of Military Affairs (DMA) was established in:
a) 2019
b) 2020
c) 2021
d) 2022
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2020
43. How many Joint Logistic Nodes (JLNs) are currently operational in India?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Show Answer
Answer: b) 3
44. The Joint Logistic Nodes are located at:
a) Mumbai, Delhi, and Chennai
b) Mumbai, Guwahati, and Port Blair
c) Kolkata, Mumbai, and Guwahati
d) Delhi, Mumbai, and Port Blair
Show Answer
Answer: b) Mumbai, Guwahati, and Port Blair
45. Inter-Services Organisations (Command, Control, and Discipline) Rules were implemented in:
a) 2023
b) 2024
c) 2025
d) 2026
Show Answer
Answer: c) 2025
46. UN Women was established in:
a) July 2009
b) July 2010
c) July 2011
d) July 2012
Show Answer
Answer: b) July 2010
47. She Leads is a flagship programme of:
a) UNESCO
b) UNICEF
c) UN Women
d) UNDP
Show Answer
Answer: c) UN Women
48. The second edition of SheLeads programme was launched in:
a) 2023
b) 2024
c) 2025
d) 2026
Show Answer
Answer: c) 2025
49. Which of the following is NOT a core focus area of UN Women?
a) Leadership and Governance
b) Economic Empowerment
c) Climate Change Mitigation
d) Women, Peace, and Security
Show Answer
Answer: c) Climate Change Mitigation
50. The primary objective of SheLeads is to:
a) Provide financial assistance to women entrepreneurs
b) Strengthen gender equality in governance
c) Promote women’s education in rural areas
d) Support women-led businesses
Show Answer
Answer: b) Strengthen gender equality in governance
51. The Third United Nations Conference on Landlocked Developing Countries (LLDC3) was held in:
a) Astana, Kazakhstan
b) Awaza, Turkmenistan
c) Ashgabat, Turkmenistan
d) Almaty, Kazakhstan
Show Answer
Answer: b) Awaza, Turkmenistan
52. The Awaza Programme of Action was approved by the UN General Assembly in:
a) November 2024
b) December 2024
c) January 2025
d) February 2025
Show Answer
Answer: b) December 2024
53. The Awaza Programme of Action covers the period:
a) 2024-2032
b) 2024-2034
c) 2025-2035
d) 2024-2030
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2024-2034
54. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a key deliverable of the Awaza Programme of Action?
a) Regional Agricultural Research Hubs
b) Infrastructure Investment Finance Facility
c) Digital Connectivity Initiative
d) UNFCCC Negotiating Body
Show Answer
Answer: c) Digital Connectivity Initiative
55. LLDC stands for:
a) Least Developed Countries
b) Low-Income Developing Countries
c) Landlocked Developing Countries
d) Limited Development Countries
Show Answer
Answer: c) Landlocked Developing Countries
56. The United States has imposed an additional ad valorem duty of what percentage on Indian goods?
a) 20%
b) 25%
c) 30%
d) 35%
Show Answer
Answer: b) 25%
57. The term “Ad Valorem” is derived from which language?
a) Greek
b) Latin
c) French
d) German
Show Answer
Answer: b) Latin
58. “Ad Valorem” literally means:
a) According to weight
b) According to quantity
c) According to value
d) According to volume
Show Answer
Answer: c) According to value
59. Ad valorem duty is characterized by being:
a) Fixed amount regardless of value
b) Based on weight of goods
c) Calculated as a percentage of value
d) Applied only to luxury goods
Show Answer
Answer: c) Calculated as a percentage of value
60. The additional 25% ad valorem duty is imposed in addition to existing:
a) 20% reciprocal tariffs
b) 25% reciprocal tariffs
c) 30% reciprocal tariffs
d) 15% reciprocal tariffs
Show Answer
Answer: b) 25% reciprocal tariffs
61. What is the primary strategic significance of the “Trump Route for International Peace and Prosperity” (TRIPP) corridor established in the Armenia-Azerbaijan peace deal?
a) It provides Armenia direct access to the Black Sea
b) It connects Azerbaijan to its exclave Nakhchivan with exclusive US development rights
c) It establishes a new trade route between Russia and Iran
d) It creates a buffer zone in the Nagorno-Karabakh region
Show Answer
Answer: b) It connects Azerbaijan to its exclave Nakhchivan with exclusive US development rights
62. India’s strategic interest in the Armenia-Azerbaijan peace deal is primarily driven by:
a) Historical cultural ties with both nations
b) Armenia being the only regional country with which India has a Friendship and
Cooperation Treaty, and Azerbaijan’s role in the INSTC
c) Potential oil and gas investments in the Caspian region
d) Military cooperation agreements with both countries
Show Answer
Answer: b) Armenia being the only regional country with which India has a Friendship and Cooperation Treaty, and Azerbaijan’s role in the INSTC
63. The Nagorno-Karabakh conflict’s resolution in 2023 resulted in:
a) The region gaining independence as a separate state
b) Joint administration by Armenia and Azerbaijan
c) Azerbaijan regaining complete control, leading to the exodus of nearly 100,000 Armenians
d) International peacekeeping forces taking control
Show Answer
Answer: c) Azerbaijan regaining complete control, leading to the exodus of nearly 100,000 Armenians
64. The transformation of HRA into HSRA after the Kakori incident represents:
a) A shift from republican to monarchist ideology
b) A transition from revolutionary to non-violent methods
c) An evolution from republican to socialist revolutionary ideology
d) A change from armed struggle to constitutional methods
Show Answer
Answer: c) An evolution from republican to socialist revolutionary ideology
65. The core principle difference between HRA (1924) and HSRA (1928) was:
a) HRA focused on adult suffrage-based Federal Republic, while HSRA aimed for Socialist Republic
b) HRA was non-violent, HSRA was violent
c) HRA worked with Congress, HSRA worked independently
d) HRA focused on economic issues, HSRA focused on political issues
Show Answer
Answer: a) HRA focused on adult suffrage-based Federal Republic, while HSRA aimed for Socialist Republic
66. The British government’s response to the Kakori Train Action demonstrates:
a) A shift towards more lenient colonial policies
b) The effectiveness of swift and harsh punitive measures in suppressing revolutionary activities
c) A preference for negotiation over punishment
d) The beginning of constitutional reforms
Show Answer
Answer: b) The effectiveness of swift and harsh punitive measures in suppressing revolutionary activities
67. The 70% increase in Asiatic lion population in the last decade (from 284 in 1990 to 891 in 2025) primarily demonstrates:
a) Natural population recovery without human intervention
b) The effectiveness of India’s conservation policies and community participation
c) Improved habitat conditions due to climate change
d) Reduced human-wildlife conflict in Gujarat
Show Answer
Answer: b) The effectiveness of India’s conservation policies and community participation
68. The establishment of Barda Wildlife Sanctuary as a “second home” for Asiatic lions addresses which critical conservation challenge?
a) Genetic diversity issues within the lion population
b) The risk of disease outbreaks in a single-location population
c) Habitat degradation in Gir National Park
d) All of the above
Show Answer
Answer: d) All of the above
69. The International Big Cats Alliance’s role in Asiatic lion conservation represents:
a) India’s leadership in global wildlife conservation efforts
b) A bilateral agreement between India and African countries
c) UN-mandated conservation protocols
d) Corporate sponsorship of conservation projects
Show Answer
Answer: a) India’s leadership in global wildlife conservation efforts
70. Dr. Urjit Patel’s analysis of US sanctions reveals that despite 687 sanctions since 2000, less than 20% achieved full diplomatic objectives. This suggests:
a) Sanctions are primarily symbolic rather than effective tools
b) The complexity of geopolitical objectives makes sanctions inherently limited
c) Economic coercion alone cannot guarantee desired political changes
d) All of the above
Show Answer
Answer: d) All of the above
71. Secondary sanctions affect India’s strategic interests by:
a) Directly targeting Indian companies operating internationally
b) Creating extraterritorial restrictions that hinder India’s economic activities with sanctioned countries
c) Limiting India’s membership in international organizations
d) Restricting India’s access to US technology
Show Answer
Answer: b) Creating extraterritorial restrictions that hinder India’s economic activities with sanctioned countries
72. The recommendation for India to engage with BRICS and AIIB as risk mitigation reflects:
a) A desire to completely decouple from the US-led financial system
b) The need for alternative financial architectures to reduce vulnerability to sanctions
c) India’s alignment with anti-Western coalitions
d) Economic nationalism over globalization
Show Answer
Answer: b) The need for alternative financial architectures to reduce vulnerability to sanctions
73. The SHINE Programme’s approach of engaging 13,000+ students through laboratory tours and research exhibitions represents:
a) A traditional educational methodology
b) A comprehensive strategy to build scientific temper and career interest in biomedical research
c) A one-time awareness campaign
d) A replacement for formal science education
Show Answer
Answer: b)A comprehensive strategy to build scientific temper and career interest in biomedical research
74. The significance of SHINE Programme extends beyond immediate educational outcomes because it:
a) Provides direct employment opportunities to students
b) Replaces existing science curriculum in schools
c) Strengthens the innovation ecosystem by engaging future researchers
d) Focuses only on theoretical knowledge transfer
Show Answer
Answer: c) Strengthens the innovation ecosystem by engaging future researchers
75. The collaboration between IndiaAI Mission and National Cancer Grid in the CATCH program demonstrates:
a) The integration of technology policy with healthcare infrastructure
b) A purely academic research initiative
c) Private sector-led healthcare innovation
d) International partnership in AI development
Show Answer
Answer: a) The integration of technology policy with healthcare infrastructure
76. The milestone-linked pilot funding approach (up to ₹50 lakh) in CATCH suggests:
a) A performance-based funding model that ensures accountability
b) Unlimited funding for all applicants
c) Focus on quantity over quality of projects
d) One-time grant without performance monitoring
Show Answer
Answer: a) A performance-based funding model that ensures accountability
77. CATCH’s focus on the “entire cancer care spectrum” indicates:
a) A fragmented approach to cancer treatment
b) A comprehensive strategy covering diagnosis, treatment, and follow-up care
c) Emphasis only on early-stage cancer detection
d) Priority for terminal care services
Show Answer
Answer: b) A comprehensive strategy covering diagnosis, treatment, and follow-up care
78. The extension of PM E-DRIVE Scheme until March 2028 reflects:
a) The government’s long-term commitment to electric mobility transition
b) Failure of the original timeline to achieve targets
c) Pressure from automobile manufacturers
d) International climate commitments only
Show Answer
Answer: a) The government’s long-term commitment to electric mobility transition
79. As a Central Sector Scheme, PM E-DRIVE’s funding structure ensures:
a) Equal contribution from state and central governments
b) Complete funding by the Union Government, ensuring uniform implementation
c) Private sector financing with government guarantees
d) International donor funding
Show Answer
Answer: b) Complete funding by the Union Government, ensuring uniform implementation
80. The scheme’s focus on diverse EV categories (e-2Ws, e-3Ws, e-ambulances, e-trucks) indicates:
a) A targeted approach to specific vehicle segments
b) A comprehensive strategy for entire transportation ecosystem transformation
c) Priority for commercial vehicles only
d) Focus on luxury vehicle segment
Show Answer
Answer: b) A comprehensive strategy for entire transportation ecosystem transformation
81. The establishment of India’s first animal stem cell biobank at NIAB represents:
a) A shift towards alternative medicine for animals
b) India’s entry into advanced regenerative medicine and cellular therapy for livestock
c) A replacement for traditional veterinary practices
d) Only a research facility without practical applications
Show Answer
Answer: b) India’s entry into advanced regenerative medicine and cellular therapy for livestock
82. The National Biopharma Mission’s support for this initiative (approved 2017) demonstrates:
a) Long-term strategic planning in biotechnology development
b) Ad-hoc policy implementation
c) Focus only on human healthcare
d) International pressure to develop biobanks
Show Answer
Answer: a) Long-term strategic planning in biotechnology development
83. The MERITE Scheme’s alignment with NEP 2020 and coverage of 275 institutions indicates:
a) A systematic approach to transform technical education across India
b) A limited pilot program
c) Focus only on elite institutions
d) Replacement of existing technical education system
Show Answer
Answer: a) A systematic approach to transform technical education across India
84. The World Bank’s ₹2,100 crore loan component in the ₹4,200 crore scheme suggests:
a) Complete dependence on external funding
b) International confidence in India’s technical education reform agenda
c) Lack of domestic resources
d) Conditional reforms imposed by international lenders
Show Answer
Answer: b) International confidence in India’s technical education reform agenda
85. The emphasis on “Maker Labs” and “Skill hubs” reflects:
a) Traditional theoretical education approach
b) Integration of practical skills with academic learning for industry relevance
c) Focus only on manufacturing sector skills
d) Replacement of classroom teaching
Show Answer
Answer: b) Integration of practical skills with academic learning for industry relevance
86. The constitutional backing of NMBA through Article 47 provides:
a) Legal authority for punitive measures only
b) A constitutional mandate for the state to address substance abuse as a public health issue
c) Guidelines for international cooperation
d) Framework for taxation of substances
Show Answer
Answer: b) A constitutional mandate for the state to address substance abuse as a public health issue
87. The three-pronged strategy involving NCB, MoSJE, and MoHFW demonstrates:
a) Bureaucratic complexity in policy implementation
b) A comprehensive approach addressing supply control, demand reduction, and treatment
c) Overlapping responsibilities among ministries
d) Focus only on law enforcement
Show Answer
Answer: b) A comprehensive approach addressing supply control, demand reduction, and treatment
88. The expansion from 272 high-risk districts to all districts indicates:
a) Failure of the targeted approach
b) Recognition that substance abuse is a nationwide challenge requiring universal coverage
c) Administrative convenience over strategic targeting
d) Political pressure from excluded districts
Show Answer
Answer: b) Recognition that substance abuse is a nationwide challenge requiring universal coverage
89. The common thread among initiatives like CATCH, MERITE, and NMBA is:
a) International funding and support
b) Focus only on urban areas
c) Integrated, multi-stakeholder approaches to complex national challenges
d) Short-term project-based implementation
Show Answer
Answer: c) Integrated, multi-stakeholder approaches to complex national challenges
90. The strategic significance of India’s approach in the Armenia-Azerbaijan peace process, economic sanctions response, and conservation efforts reflects:
a) Passive foreign policy implementation
b) Multi-alignment strategy balancing national interests with global engagement
c) Complete alignment with Western powers
d) Isolation from international affairs
Show Answer
Answer: b) Multi-alignment strategy balancing national interests with global engagement
91. The renaming of National Mineral Exploration Trust to National Mineral Exploration and Development Trust (NMEDT) with expanded mandate for offshore and international exploration primarily reflects:
a) Administrative restructuring for better coordination
b) India’s strategic shift towards securing global supply chains for critical minerals
c) Compliance with international mining regulations
d) Reduction in domestic mineral exploration activities
Show Answer
Answer: b) India’s strategic shift towards securing global supply chains for critical minerals
92. The increase in mining leaseholder contribution from 2% to 3% of royalty payable for NMEDT funding indicates:
a) A revenue generation measure for the government
b) Industry’s increased responsibility in financing mineral exploration and development
c) Penalty for over-extraction of minerals
d) International pressure to increase mining taxes
Show Answer
Answer: b) Industry’s increased responsibility in financing mineral exploration and development
93. The establishment of “Mineral Exchanges” as electronic trading platforms is most likely to achieve:
a) Government control over mineral pricing
b) Elimination of private mineral trading
c) Transparent, market-driven price discovery and improved competitiveness
d) Restriction of mineral exports
Show Answer
Answer: c) Transparent, market-driven price discovery and improved competitiveness
94. The removal of the 50% sale cap from captive mines represents:
a) Complete deregulation of the mining sector
b) Enhanced flexibility for companies to optimize their mineral output utilization
c) Encouragement of mineral hoarding
d) Violation of environmental norms
Show Answer
Answer: b) Enhanced flexibility for companies to optimize their mineral output utilization
95. The establishment of civil court jurisdiction bar for matters under the National Sports Tribunal indicates:
a) Denial of judicial remedy to sports persons
b) Creation of a specialized, fast-track dispute resolution mechanism for sports
c) Reduction in the powers of the judiciary
d) Complete autonomy for sports bodies
Show Answer
Answer: b) Creation of a specialized, fast-track dispute resolution mechanism for sports
96. The provision allowing Central Government to exempt sports bodies from certain provisions “in public interest to promote a sport” suggests:
a) Arbitrary government intervention in sports
b) Flexible governance approach to support emerging or struggling sports disciplines
c) Favoritism towards specific sports
d) Weakening of regulatory oversight
Show Answer
Answer: b) Flexible governance approach to support emerging or struggling sports disciplines
97. The enhanced operational independence granted to NADA through the Amendment Bill primarily aims to:
a) Reduce government expenditure on anti-doping measures
b) Align India’s anti-doping framework with WADA standards and improve credibility
c) Transfer responsibility to private organizations
d) Eliminate international oversight of Indian sports
Show Answer
Answer: b) Align India’s anti-doping framework with WADA standards and improve credibility
98. The Supreme Court’s suo motu intervention in the stray dog issue demonstrates:
a) Judicial overreach in executive matters
b) The Court’s proactive role in addressing public health and safety concerns
c) Lack of legislative framework for animal control
d) Transfer of municipal responsibilities to judiciary
Show Answer
Answer: b) The Court’s proactive role in addressing public health and safety concerns
99. The statistic that dogs contribute to 36% of global rabies deaths while India hosts 1.5 crore stray dogs indicates:
a) India’s disproportionate contribution to a preventable global health problem
b) Ineffective international health cooperation
c) Over-reporting of rabies cases in India
d) Lack of medical facilities in other countries
Show Answer
Answer: a) India’s disproportionate contribution to a preventable global health problem
100. The balance between Article 243W (municipal powers) and Article 51A(g) (fundamental duty towards animals) in stray dog management reflects:
a) Constitutional contradiction that needs amendment
b) The need for harmonious interpretation balancing public health with animal welfare
c) Supremacy of fundamental duties over municipal powers
d) Irrelevance of constitutional provisions in practical governance
Show Answer
Answer: b) The need for harmonious interpretation balancing public health with animal welfare
101. The removal of prior approval requirement for opening Special Vostro Rupee Accounts (SVRAs) is primarily intended to:
a) Reduce RBI’s regulatory burden
b) Facilitate faster rupee-based trade settlements and advance rupee internationalization
c) Increase foreign bank presence in India
d) Comply with international banking regulations
Show Answer
Answer: b) Facilitate faster rupee-based trade settlements and advance rupee internationalization
102. The difference between Vostro and Nostro accounts is conceptually important because it determines:
a) The interest rates applicable on deposits
b) The currency of denomination and the perspective of account ownership
c) The regulatory framework applicable
d) The taxation implications
Show Answer
Answer: b) The currency of denomination and the perspective of account ownership
103. Rupee internationalization’s benefit of “reduced exchange rate exposure” for Indian businesses means:
a) Complete elimination of currency risks
b) Ability to transact in rupees, minimizing currency fluctuation impacts
c) Fixed exchange rates with all trading partners
d) Government guarantee against currency losses
Show Answer
Answer: b) Ability to transact in rupees, minimizing currency fluctuation impacts
104. The integration of UPI for cross-border transactions as part of rupee internationalization represents:
a) Technology-driven approach to currency promotion
b) Replacement of traditional banking systems
c) Mandatory adoption of Indian payment systems globally
d) Elimination of correspondent banking relationships
Show Answer
Answer: a) Technology-driven approach to currency promotion
105. The replacement of the Income Tax Act, 1961 with the Income-Tax (No. 2) Bill, 2025 is primarily motivated by:
a) Increase in tax rates across all categories
b) The need to modernize and simplify a law burdened by six decades of amendments
c) Compliance with international tax treaties
d) Reduction in government revenue requirements
Show Answer
Answer: b) The need to modernize and simplify a law burdened by six decades of amendments
106. The extension of deduction provisions to companies in the new tax bill indicates:
a) Preferential treatment for corporate sector
b) Harmonization of tax benefits across different entity types
c) Reduction in corporate tax burden
d) Elimination of individual tax benefits
Show Answer
Answer: b) Harmonization of tax benefits across different entity types
107. The separation of Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT) and Alternate Minimum Tax (AMT) into distinct subsections suggests:
a) Increase in overall tax burden
b) Clearer application and better compliance for different taxpayer categories
c) Elimination of alternative tax structures
d) Merger of corporate and individual tax provisions
Show Answer
Answer: b) Clearer application and better compliance for different taxpayer categories
108. The tax exemptions for the Unified Pension Scheme (UPS) being aligned with New Pension Scheme benefits demonstrates:
a) Policy inconsistency in pension taxation
b) Coherent tax treatment across different pension schemes
c) Preferential treatment for government employees
d) Elimination of pension tax benefits
Show Answer
Answer: b) Coherent tax treatment across different pension schemes
109. The strategic significance of the Nelco-Eutelsat OneWeb partnership for India lies in:
a) Reduction in internet costs for consumers
b) Enhanced digital infrastructure and bridging connectivity gaps through LEO satellites
c) Competition with existing telecom operators
d) Replacement of terrestrial internet infrastructure
Show Answer
Answer: b) Enhanced digital infrastructure and bridging connectivity gaps through LEO satellites
110. LEO satellites’ advantage over geostationary satellites in terms of “lower latency and faster data transfer” is due to:
a) Advanced technology in LEO satellites
b) Their closer proximity to Earth (up to 2,000 km altitude)
c) Better spectrum allocation for LEO operations
d) Reduced atmospheric interference
Show Answer
Answer: b) Their closer proximity to Earth (up to 2,000 km altitude)
111. Bharti Enterprises’ investment in OneWeb alongside this partnership represents:
a) Indian strategic interest in global satellite communication infrastructure
b) Diversification of business portfolio
c) Competition with domestic telecom services
d) Compliance with foreign investment regulations
Show Answer
Answer: a) Indian strategic interest in global satellite communication infrastructure
112. The ECI’s identification of 476 RUPPs for potential de-listing is primarily aimed at:
a) Reducing competition in elections
b) Improving transparency and cleansing the political process
c) Favoring established political parties
d) Reducing administrative burden on ECI
Show Answer
Answer: b) Improving transparency and cleansing the political process
113. The Supreme Court judgment in Indian National Congress vs. Institute of Social Welfare (2002) establishing that ECI cannot de-register political parties under RPA indicates:
a) Complete immunity of political parties from regulatory action
b) The distinction between de-registration (permanent) and de-listing (administrative) actions
c) Supremacy of political parties over election commission
d) Need for constitutional amendment to regulate parties
Show Answer
Answer: b) The distinction between de-registration (permanent) and de-listing (administrative) actions
114. The six-year non-participation criterion for de-listing political parties reflects:
a) Arbitrary timeline set by ECI
b) Reasonable expectation of active political participation for registered entities
c) Discrimination against smaller parties
d) International best practices in election management
Show Answer
Answer: b) Reasonable expectation of active political participation for registered entities
115. The Bibi Fatima Women’s SHG winning the UNDP Equator Initiative Award demonstrates:
a) International recognition of grassroots environmental conservation efforts
b) Preferential treatment for Indian organizations
c) Success of women’s empowerment programs only
d) Promotion of religious organizations in environmental work
Show Answer
Answer: a) International recognition of grassroots environmental conservation efforts
116. The Equator Initiative’s focus on supporting “Indigenous Peoples and local communities” in environmental challenges reflects:
a) Exclusion of urban communities from environmental programs
b) Recognition that local communities are crucial stakeholders in biodiversity conservation
c) Discrimination against developed nations
d) Promotion of traditional practices over modern technology
Show Answer
Answer: b) Recognition that local communities are crucial stakeholders in biodiversity conservation
117. The common theme across the Mines Amendment Bill, Sports Governance Bill, and Tax Reform Bills is:
a) Increase in government control over private sectors
b) Systematic modernization and simplification of regulatory frameworks
c) Compliance with international pressure
d) Revenue generation for government
Show Answer
Answer: b) Systematic modernization and simplification of regulatory frameworks
118. The RBI’s move on Vostro accounts, Nelco-OneWeb partnership, and mineral exchange establishment all contribute to:
a) Reduced government role in economic activities
b) India’s strategic autonomy through enhanced domestic capabilities and international integration
c) Increased dependence on foreign technology
d) Elimination of traditional business models
Show Answer
Answer: b) India’s strategic autonomy through enhanced domestic capabilities and international integration
119. The Supreme Court’s stray dog directives and ECI’s political party de-listing both represent:
a) Judicial activism in administrative matters
b) Institutional efforts to address systemic issues through balanced approaches
c) Overreach by constitutional bodies
d) Response to international criticism
Show Answer
Answer: b) Institutional efforts to address systemic issues through balanced approaches
120. The emphasis on “transparency,” “simplification,” and “modernization” across multiple legislative and policy initiatives indicates:
a) Ad-hoc policy making without coherent vision
b) Systematic governance reform aligned with contemporary requirements
c) Response to corruption allegations
d) Preparation for international agreements
Show Answer
Answer: b) Systematic governance reform aligned with contemporary requirements
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8 August to 14 August (Weekly Current Affairs)