Practice the June 2026 Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the forth week of June 2026.
The Current Affairs Quiz of 22 to 30 June features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.
4th Week of June 2026: Current Affairs Quiz
1. The US–Iran Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) signed recently consists of how many points?
A) 8 points
B) 10 points
C) 12 points
D) 14 points
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 14 points
2. . Under the US–Iran agreement, Iran has agreed to place its enriched uranium reserves under the supervision of:
A) The United Nations Security Council
B) The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)
C) The P5+1 nations jointly
D) A bilateral US–Iran technical committee
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)
3. The proposed economic recovery support under the US–Iran MoU aims to mobilise approximately how much for Iran’s revival and infrastructure development?
A) USD 100 billion
B) USD 200 billion
C) USD 300 billion
D) USD 500 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) USD 300 billion
4. The Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA), the earlier Iran nuclear deal, was concluded in:
A) 2013
B) 2015
C) 2017
D) 2019
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 2015
5. The JCPOA was negotiated between Iran and the ‘P5+1’, where P5+1 refers to the five permanent UNSC members and:
A) India
B) Japan
C) Germany
D) South Korea
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Germany
6. A major gap in the current US–Iran MoU, identified as a challenge to comprehensive peace, is its failure to address:
A) Iran’s oil export restrictions
B) Iran’s ballistic missile programme and regional proxy networks
C) Lebanon’s political reconstruction
D) The IAEA monitoring mechanisms
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Iran’s ballistic missile programme and regional proxy networks
7. India’s public expenditure on education stood at what percentage of GDP in 2021
22, against the NEP 2020 target of 6%?
A) 2.9%
B) 3.6%
C) 4.12%
D) 4.75%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 4.12%
8. The Parliamentary Standing Committee expressed concern that CUET’s largely MCQ-based format may inadequately assess skills required in:
A) Engineering and technology disciplines
B) Humanities and social science disciplines
C) Medical entrance examinations
D) Commerce and management courses
✔ Answer: B) Humanities and social science disci
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Humanities and social science disciplines
9. The National Testing Agency (NTA) accumulated a revenue surplus of approximately how much over six years, which was reportedly underutilised for exam security?
A) ₹148 crore
B) ₹248 crore
C) ₹348 crore
D) ₹448 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) ₹448 crore
10. Under the PM-Vidyalaxmi Scheme, eligible students can avail what percentage of interest subvention on education loans up to ₹10 lakh?
A) 1%
B) 2%
C) 3%
D) 4%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 3%
11. The PM-Vidyalaxmi Scheme’s benefits are restricted to students enrolled in designated:
A) Central Universities only
B) IITs and NITs
C) Quality Higher Education Institutions (QHEIs)
D) NAAC ‘A+’ grade institutions
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Quality Higher Education Institutions (QHEIs)
12. The Institutions of Eminence (IoE) initiative was launched to enhance the global competitiveness of Indian universities. Out of the proposed 20 institutions, how many have been formally notified so far?
A) 8
B) 10
C) 12
D) 15
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 12
13. The TRISHNA satellite is being jointly developed by ISRO and which French space agency?
A) ESA
B) DLR
C) CNES
D) ASI
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) CNES
14. TRISHNA stands for:
A) Thermal Remote Imaging and Spectral High-resolution Natural Analysis
B) Thermal Infra-Red Imaging Satellite for High-resolution Natural Resource
Assessment
C) Terrestrial Remote-Sensing and High-resolution Near-infrared Application
D) Thermal Research Imaging Satellite for Hydrological and Natural Resource Analysis
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Thermal Infra-Red Imaging Satellite for High-resolution Natural
Resource Assessment
15. TRISHNA is planned to be launched in which year?
A) 2025
B) 2026
C) 2027
D) 2028
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2027
16. The thermal infrared (TIR) payload of TRISHNA is contributed by CNES and is designed to measure:
A) Ocean salinity and sea-floor topography
B) Land surface temperature and evapotranspiration
C) Atmospheric ozone concentration
D) Solar irradiance and photovoltaic potential
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Land surface temperature and evapotranspiration
17. TRISHNA will operate in a Sun-Synchronous Orbit (SSO) at an altitude of:
A) 550 km
B) 650 km
C) 761 km
D) 900 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 761 km
18. The Energy Transition Index (ETI) 2026 is published by:
A) International Energy Agency (IEA)
B) World Economic Forum (WEF)
C) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
D) International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) World Economic Forum (WEF)
19. Which country retained the top position in ETI 2026 for the third consecutive year?
A) Denmark
B) Norway
C) Finland
D) Sweden
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Sweden
20. India’s rank in ETI 2026 improved by two positions to:
A) 60th
B) 65th
C) 70th
D) 75th
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 70th
21. According to ETI 2026, renewables and nuclear energy together generated what percentage of global electricity in 2025?
A) 28%
B) 35%
C) 42%
D) 50%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 42%
22. India witnessed a what percentage increase in low-carbon (green) jobs during 2024, as per ETI 2026?
A) 14%
B) 18%
C) 24%
D) 30%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 24%
23. The ETI evaluates countries across three key dimensions. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
A) Energy Security
B) Energy Equity (Affordability and Accessibility)
C) Geopolitical Stability
D) Environmental Sustainability
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Geopolitical Stability
24. The Inter-Governmental Negotiations (IGN) framework dedicated to UNSC reform was established in:
A) 2000
B) 2005
C) 2008
D) 2015
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2008
25. The G4 group, which advocates permanent UNSC membership for its members, consists of:
A) Brazil, Russia, India, China
B) Brazil, Germany, India, Japan
C) India, Japan, South Africa, Germany
D) Brazil, Japan, India, South Korea
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Brazil, Germany, India, Japan
26. The African Union’s UNSC reform position is guided by the Ezulwini Consensus and the:
A) Abuja Declaration
B) Accra Accord
C) Sirte Declaration
D) Addis Ababa Compact
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Sirte Declaration
27. The ‘Uniting for Consensus’ (UfC) group, also called the ‘Coffee Club’, includes:
A) Italy, Pakistan, and Argentina
B) France, Spain, and Turkey
C) Canada, Mexico, and Australia
D) South Korea, Egypt, and Thailand
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Italy, Pakistan, and Argentina
28. The L.69 Group within the IGN primarily represents:
A) Permanent UNSC members and allies
B) Developing countries from Africa, Asia-Pacific, and Latin America
C) Nordic countries and island states
D) Countries opposing UNSC expansion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Developing countries from Africa, Asia-Pacific, and Latin America
29. The International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS) is headquartered in:
A) The Hague, Netherlands
B) Vienna, Austria
C) Hamburg, Germany
D) Geneva, Switzerland
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Hamburg, Germany
30. The National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA), India’s premier urban-policy think tank, was established in:
A) 1965
B) 1969
C) 1976
D) 1982
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1976
31. The Women, Peace and Security (WPS) Index is published jointly by the Georgetown Institute for Women, Peace and Security and:
A) UN Women
B) Peace Research Institute Oslo (PRIO)
C) International Crisis Group
D) World Economic Forum
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Peace Research Institute Oslo (PRIO)
32. India’s rank in the Women, Peace and Security (WPS) Index 2023 was:
A) 90th out of 160 countries
B) 108th out of 170 countries
C) 131st out of 177 countries
D) 145th out of 180 countries
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 131st out of 177 countries
33. According to NFHS-5, approximately what percentage of ever-married women in India have experienced spousal violence?
A) 18%
B) 22%
C) 27%
D) 32%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 32%
34. The conviction rate in rape cases in India stands at approximately:
A) 10–12%
B) 20–22%
C) 27–28%
D) 35–40%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 27–28%
35. The ‘One Stop Centres’ for women in distress are also known as:
A) Nirbhaya Centres
B) Sakhi Centres
C) Shakti Centres
D) Suraksha Centres
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Sakhi Centres
36. The CCPWC Scheme, addressing online crimes against women, stands for:
A) Cyber Crime Prevention and Control against Women and Children
B) Cyber Crime Prevention against Women and Children
C) Central Cyber Protection Wing for Children
D) Cyber Crime Portal for Women and Children
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Cyber Crime Prevention against Women and Children
37. Article 39A, which mandates free legal aid to ensure justice is not denied on economic grounds, was inserted by the:
A) 44th Constitutional Amendment, 1978
B) 42nd Constitutional Amendment, 1976
C) 86th Constitutional Amendment, 2002
D) 73rd Constitutional Amendment, 1992
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 42nd Constitutional Amendment, 1976
38. Which Fundamental Duty under Article 51A specifically requires citizens to promote harmony and transcend religious, linguistic, and regional diversities?
A) Article 51A(c)
B) Article 51A(d)
C) Article 51A(e)
D) Article 51A(f)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Article 51A(e)
39. In Nandini Sundar v. State of Chhattisgarh, the Supreme Court held that state policies encouraging citizens to take up arms against fellow citizens:
A) Are permissible under Article 355 of the Constitution
B) Undermine constitutional fraternity
C) Fall within the State’s police powers
D) Are justified in counter-insurgency contexts
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Undermine constitutional fraternity
40. In Tehseen Poonawalla v. Union of India, the Supreme Court declared which acts as serious threats to constitutional fraternity and social harmony?
A) Political demonstrations and hartals
B) Strikes and bandhs
C) Mob lynching and vigilantism
D) Religious processions and rallies
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Mob lynching and vigilantism
41. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution resolves to promote Fraternity to assure two objectives. Which of the following correctly states these?
A) Liberty of thought and equality of status
B) Dignity of the Individual and Unity and Integrity of the Nation
C) Social justice and economic democracy
D) Secularism and national integration
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Dignity of the Individual and Unity and Integrity of the Nation
42. The Supreme Court recognised the right to walk safely on demarcated footpaths as a Fundamental Right in which case?
A) Arjun Gopal v. Union of India
B) Maniyar Iliyaz @ Shaik Riyaz v. P. Ayyappan & Ors
C) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
D) Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Maniyar Iliyaz @ Shaik Riyaz v. P. Ayyappan & Ors
43. The right to walk safely on footpaths was primarily grounded in which Article of the Constitution?
A) Article 14
B) Article 19(1)(d)
C) Article 21
D) Article 32
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Article 19(1)(d)
44. The concept of ‘restitutionary remedies’, introduced in the right-to-walk judgment, enables citizens to:
A) Petition the Supreme Court for road reconstruction
B) Seek compensation when accidents occur due to State’s failure to provide safe pedestrian infrastructure
C) File complaints with local municipal corporations directly
D) Demand refund of road taxes if footpaths are absent
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Seek compensation when accidents occur due to State’s failure to provide safe pedestrian infrastructure
45. Which Indian state became the first to formally recognise and implement the Right to Walk as a policy objective?
A) Kerala
B) Tamil Nadu
C) Karnataka
D) Punjab
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Punjab
46. The Indian Roads Congress Guideline IRC:103 prescribes standards for:
A) Expressway lane specifications
B) Pedestrian-friendly and safe sidewalks
C) Speed limits in school zones
D) Traffic signal intervals in urban areas
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Pedestrian-friendly and safe sidewalks
47. The SOFIA 2026 Report is published by:
A) World Wildlife Fund (WWF)
B) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
C) Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
D) International Maritime Organization (IMO)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
48. The theme of the SOFIA 2026 report was:
A) ‘Oceans for Life: Sustainable Futures’
B) ‘Blue Transformation: Turning Vision into Impact’
C) ‘Feeding the World from the Sea’
D) ‘Resilient Aquaculture for Food Security’
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) ‘Blue Transformation: Turning Vision into Impact’
49. Global fisheries and aquaculture production reached a record figure of how many million tonnes in 2024?
A) 185 million tonnes
B) 200 million tonnes
C) 215 million tonnes
D) 235 million tonnes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 235 million tonnes
50. According to SOFIA 2026, aquaculture contributed what percentage of total aquatic animal production globally?
A) 35%
B) 43%
C) 53%
D) 61%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 53%
51. India’s rank in global fish production as per SOFIA 2026 is:
A) First
B) Second
C) Third
D) Fourth
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Second
52. India ranked FIRST globally in which specific fisheries sub-category as per SOFIA 2026?
A) Marine capture fisheries
B) Aquaculture production
C) Inland capture fisheries
D) Seaweed cultivation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Inland capture fisheries
53. As per SOFIA 2026, the share of sustainably managed marine fish stocks declined from 64.5% (2021) to what level in 2023?
A) 58.1%
B) 60.3%
C) 62.4%
D) 63.5%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 62.4%
54. India’s first commercial-scale Coal-to-Ammonium Nitrate Project is located in which district of Odisha?
A) Angul
B) Sundargarh
C) Jharsuguda
D) Sambalpur
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Jharsuguda
55. Bharat Coal Gasification and Chemicals Limited (BCGCL), which is developing the project, is a joint venture between Coal India Limited and:
A) NTPC Limited
B) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL)
C) Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC)
D) Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL)
56. The chemical formula of Ammonium Nitrate is:
A) NHâ‚„Cl
B) NaNO₃
C) NH₄NO₃
D) Ca(NO₃)₂
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) NH₄NO₃
57. Coal Gasification converts coal into Synthesis Gas (Syngas) through partial oxidation. The primary components of Syngas include:
A) Nitrogen, Oxygen, and Argon
B) Hydrogen, Carbon Monoxide, Carbon Dioxide, and Methane
C) Methane, Ethane, and Propane only
D) Sulphur dioxide, Nitrogen oxide, and Hydrogen sulphide
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Hydrogen, Carbon Monoxide, Carbon Dioxide, and Methane
58. A key advantage of coal gasification over direct coal combustion is:
A) It eliminates all carbon emissions completely
B) It requires no water during the process
C) It produces fewer pollutants and allows easier removal of sulphur
D) It is cheaper than natural gas extraction in all conditions
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) It produces fewer pollutants and allows easier removal of sulphur
59. Bolivia’s Salar de Uyuni is significant because it is:
A) The world’s deepest salt lake
B) The world’s largest salt flat
C) The world’s highest navigable lake
D) The world’s largest lithium brine lake
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) The world’s largest salt flat
60. The ‘Lithium Triangle’, which Bolivia forms part of, also includes:
A) Peru and Ecuador
B) Brazil and Paraguay
C) Chile and Argentina
D) Colombia and Venezuela
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Chile and Argentina
61. The Children’s Climate Risk Report 2026 was released by:
A) UNEP
B) WHO
C) UNICEF
D) UNDP
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) UNICEF
62. According to the Children’s Climate Risk Report 2026, nearly how many children are exposed to at least three overlapping climate hazards?
A) 500 million
B) 750 million
C) 900 million
D) 1.1 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 1.1 billion
63. Which climate hazard was identified as the most widespread threat, affecting 1.8 billion children globally?
A) Flooding
B) Drought
C) Extreme heat
D) Cyclones
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Drought
64. As per the report, what percentage of Indian children are exposed to at least two climate- or disaster-related hazards?
A) 65%
B) 78%
C) 88%
D) 97%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 97%
65. By 2050, climate change could push how many additional children into stunting globally, as per the report?
A) 10 million
B) 20 million
C) 28 million
D) 40 million
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 40 million
66. The report noted that only what percentage of global climate finance is directed toward child-responsive infrastructure and social services?
A) 2.4%
B) 5.2%
C) 8.7%
D) 12.5%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) 2.4%
67. A ‘Sunset Clause’ in a legal or trade context refers to:
A) A clause permanently restricting trading after sunset hours
B) A provision causing a law or agreement to automatically expire on a predetermined
date unless renewed
C) A clause requiring annual review of all government subsidies
D) A legal provision restricting foreign investments after a fixed period
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) A provision causing a law or agreement to automatically expire on a predetermined date unless renewed
68. In the context of Bilateral Investment Treaties (BITs), the Sunset Clause is also known as:
A) Escape Clause
B) Survival Clause
C) Review Clause
D) Termination Clause
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Survival Clause
69. The historical origin of the Sunset Clause concept can be traced back to:
A) British Common Law
B) French Napoleonic Code
C) Roman Law
D) Ancient Greek city-state legislation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Roman Law
70. India is specifically seeking inclusion of a Sunset Clause in its proposed interim trade agreement with the US primarily to:
A) Permanently block US tariff increases on Indian textiles
B) Protect itself from abrupt US tariff policy shifts and enable periodic renegotiation
C) Ensure the agreement automatically converts into a Full FTA after five years
D) Allow India to unilaterally terminate the agreement at any point
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Protect itself from abrupt US tariff policy shifts and enable periodic renegotiation
71. A key distinction between a Sunset Clause and a Review Clause is that:
A) A Sunset Clause continues the agreement; a Review Clause terminates it
B) A Sunset Clause automatically expires unless renewed; a Review Clause continues in force
C) A Sunset Clause applies only to trade agreements; a Review Clause applies to domestic laws
D) There is no meaningful distinction between them
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) A Sunset Clause automatically expires unless renewed; a Review Clause continues in force
72. The Western Ghats extend approximately how many kilometres along India’s western coast?
A) 800 km
B) 1,200 km
C) 1,600 km
D) 2,000 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1,600 km
73. Ecologically Sensitive Areas (ESAs) are notified under which legislation?
A) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
B) Forest Conservation Act, 1980
C) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
D) Biological Diversity Act, 2002
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
74. The Gadgil Committee (2011) recommended designating what percentage of the Western Ghats as Ecologically Sensitive Area?
A) 37%
B) 50%
C) 75%
D) 100%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 100%
75. The Kasturirangan Committee (2013) recommended approximately how much area of the Western Ghats as ESA?
A) ~37% (~60,000 sq. km)
B) ~50% (~80,000 sq. km)
C) ~65% (~1,00,000 sq. km)
D) ~75% (~1,20,000 sq. km)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) ~37% (~60,000 sq. km)
76. The Western Ghats is one of the world’s eight ‘hottest hotspots’ of biodiversity. How many of India’s four biodiversity hotspots are located in the Western Ghats?
A) The Western Ghats itself constitutes one of India’s four biodiversity hotspots
B) Two of India’s four hotspots overlap with the Western Ghats
C) The Western Ghats hosts three of India’s four hotspots
D) All four of India’s biodiversity hotspots are in the Western Ghats
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) The Western Ghats itself constitutes one of India’s four biodiversity hotspots
77. According to the 2025 Review of Maritime Transport by UNCTAD, India’s share of global ship recycling was:
A) 22.1%
B) 28.6%
C) 35.4%
D) 42.7%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 35.4%
78. India’s leading ship-recycling cluster at Alang is located on the coast of which water body in Gujarat?
A) Gulf of Kutch
B) Gulf of Khambhat
C) Arabian Sea
D) Lakshadweep Sea
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Gulf of Khambhat
79. The Hong Kong International Convention for the Safe and Environmentally Sound Recycling of Ships primarily establishes standards for:
A) Fuel efficiency requirements for new vessels
B) Maritime piracy prevention measures
C) Worker safety, hazardous waste management, and environmentally sound ship dismantling
D) Insurance requirements for end-of-life vessels
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Worker safety, hazardous waste management, and environmentally sound ship dismantling
80. Under Maritime India Vision (MIV) 2030, India achieved its ship-recycling target:
A) On schedule by 2030
B) Two years ahead of schedule
C) Five years ahead of schedule
D) The target has not yet been achieved
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Five years ahead of schedule
81. With Chandrayaan-3, India became the first country to achieve a soft landing near which region of the Moon?
A) Equatorial region
B) Northern polar region
C) South pole
D) Oceanus Procellarum
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) South pole
82. India’s first dedicated solar mission, Aditya-L1, is positioned at the:
A) Sun–Earth L2 Lagrange Point
B) Sun–Earth L1 Lagrange Point
C) Earth–Moon L1 Lagrange Point
D) Moon–Sun L4 Lagrange Point
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Sun–Earth L1 Lagrange Point
83. Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla travelled to the International Space Station aboard which mission?
A) SpaceX Crew Dragon-8
B) Axiom-4
C) Gaganyaan Test Mission
D) Artemis-III
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Axiom-4
84. VIKRAM 3201, developed by ISRO, is significant because it is India’s first:
A) Reusable launch vehicle engine
B) Indigenous 32-bit space-grade microprocessor
C) Autonomous docking system for satellites
D) Indigenous cryogenic upper stage engine
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Indigenous 32-bit space-grade microprocessor
85. The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Center (IN-SPACe) serves as:
A) The commercial wing of ISRO for satellite launches
B) A single-window regulator for private space sector activities
C) A joint venture between ISRO and private industry for technology transfer
D) The defence space agency for military satellite operations
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) A single-window regulator for private space sector activities
86. The Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is best described as:
A) A cybersecurity framework for protecting government networks
B) The Internet’s primary inter-domain routing protocol determining data packet routes
C) A satellite communication protocol for deep-sea exploration
D) A standard for encrypting internet communications between ISPs
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) The Internet’s primary inter-domain routing protocol determining data packet routes
87. BGP hijacking occurs when:
A) A hacker physically intercepts fibre-optic cables
B) A malicious or misconfigured network falsely announces ownership of an IP address prefix
C) DDoS attacks overwhelm a server with false traffic
D) A virus corrupts routing tables on individual user devices
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) A malicious or misconfigured network falsely announces ownership of an IP address prefix
88. RPKI (Resource Public Key Infrastructure), a countermeasure to BGP hijacking, works by:
A) Monitoring network traffic for suspicious data packets
B) Cryptographically verifying route announcements
C) Blocking all unverified IP addresses from ISP networks
D) Encrypting all BGP communications using a shared key
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Cryptographically verifying route announcements
89. Dunagiri, inducted into the Indian Navy, is the 5th stealth frigate of which class under Project 17A?
A) Shivalik-class
B) Talwar-class
C) Nilgiri-class
D) Godavari-class
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Nilgiri-class
90. All three warships inducted—Dunagiri, Sanshodhak, and Agray—were built by which shipyard?
A) Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL)
B) Hindustan Shipyard Limited (HSL)
C) Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL)
D) Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE)
91. The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA) was first enacted in which year?
A) 1970
B) 1976
C) 1984
D) 1990
Show Answer
Correct Answer: : : B) 1976
92. Under the amended FCRA Rules, organisations seeking renewal must demonstrate expenditure of at least how much from foreign contributions during the preceding two years?
A) ₹5 lakh
B) ₹7.5 lakh
C) ₹10 lakh
D) ₹15 lakh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C)₹10 lakh
93. Under the amended FCRA Rules, organisations operating on prior permission must utilise at least what percentage of one instalment before applying for the next tranche?
A) 50%
B) 60%
C) 75%
D) 90%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 75%
94. The amended FCRA Rules specify that associations appointing foreign nationals as key functionaries — except which category — will NOT be eligible for FCRA registration?
A) Overseas Citizens of India (OCI)
B) Non-Resident Indians (NRIs)
C) Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs)
D) Foreign nationals married to Indian citizens
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs)
95. Under the amended FCRA Rules, the expanded definition of ‘key functionaries’ now includes trustees, company directors, and:
A) Chairpersons of joint-stock companies
B) Kartas of Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs)
C) Secretaries of registered cooperative societies
D) Promoters of listed public limited companies
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Kartas of Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs)
96. The primary objective of FCRA regulations is to ensure that foreign contributions do not adversely affect India’s:
A) Stock markets and foreign exchange reserves
B) Sovereignty, integrity, security, public interest, or national interest
C) Export competitiveness and trade balance
D) Demographic composition and cultural heritage
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Sovereignty, integrity, security, public interest, or national interest
97. A foreign-exchange swap is best described as:
A) A unilateral purchase of foreign currency by a central bank
B) An agreement to exchange currencies now and reverse the transaction at a future date at a pre-determined rate
C) A hedging instrument using futures contracts on commodity exchanges
D) A bilateral loan arrangement denominated in two different currencies
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) An agreement to exchange currencies now and reverse the transaction at a future date at a pre-determined rate
98. Under the RBI’s FCNR(B) swap facility, FCNR(B) deposits must have an original maturity of at least:
A) One year
B) Two years
C) Three years
D) Five years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Three years
99. External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs) qualify for the RBI’s swap facility only if they have an average maturity of at least:
A) One year
B) Two years
C) Three years
D) Seven years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Three years
100. The maximum permissible swap tenor for External Commercial Borrowings under the RBI’s facility is:
A) Three years
B) Five years
C) Seven years
D) Ten years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Five years
101. TReDS platforms are regulated by the RBI under which legislation?
A) Companies Act, 2013
B) SEBI Act, 1992
C) Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007
D) Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007
102. Transactions on TReDS platforms are governed by which Act?
A) Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016
B) Factoring Regulation Act, 2011
C) MSME Development Act, 2006
D) Banking Regulation Act, 1949
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Factoring Regulation Act, 2011
103. Under TReDS, registration is mandatory for CPSEs and corporate buyers with annual turnover exceeding:
A) ₹100 crore
B) ₹150 crore
C) ₹200 crore
D) ₹250 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) ₹250 crore
104. A key feature of TReDS is ‘non-recourse financing’, which means:
A) MSMEs need not repay the loan under any circumstance
B) The financier generally bears the risk of delayed payment or default by the buyer
C) No interest is charged on financed invoices
D) MSMEs can draw funds without invoice verification
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) The financier generally bears the risk of delayed payment or default by the buyer
105. Earth system tipping points are best defined as:
A) Annual benchmarks for measuring global greenhouse gas emissions
B) Critical thresholds where small changes trigger large, self-reinforcing, and potentially irreversible shifts in natural systems
C) International targets agreed upon at COP summits for emissions reduction
D) Projected temperature levels at which ice caps fully melt
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Critical thresholds where small changes trigger large, self-reinforcing, and potentially irreversible shifts in natural systems
106. The UN Scientific Advisory Board’s Brief #12 noted that the estimated threshold for widespread collapse of warm-water coral reefs has already been crossed at approximately:
A) 0.8°C above pre-industrial levels
B) 1.2°C above pre-industrial levels
C) 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels
D) 2.0°C above pre-industrial levels
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 1.2°C above pre-industrial levels
107. AMOC, whose weakening is listed as a key tipping point, stands for:
A) Arctic Methane Outgassing Cycle
B) Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation
C) Amazon Monsoon Oscillation Circuit
D) Antarctic Meltwater Outflow Current
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation
108. UN Secretary-General Guterres’ ‘Call to Action on Methane’ targeted emissions from three sources. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
A) Waste (landfills and wastewater systems)
B) Agriculture (livestock, manure, and rice)
C) Industrial manufacturing (chemical plants)
D) Fossil fuels (coal, oil, and gas operations)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Industrial manufacturing (chemical plants)
109. Since 2010, solar power costs have declined by approximately what percentage?
A) 50%
B) 70%
C) 90%
D) 95%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 90%
110. India’s rank in the QS World Future Skills Index 2027 was:
A) 8th
B) 10th
C) 13th
D) 17th
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Five years ahead of schedule
111. India secured which position among lower-middle-income economies in the QS World Future Skills Index 2027?
A) First
B) Second
C) Third
D) Fourth
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) First
112. Which of the following is NOT one of the four evaluation pillars of the QS World Future Skills Index?
A) Skills Alignment
B) Academic Readiness
C) Digital Infrastructure
D) Economic Transformation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Digital Infrastructure
113. The top-ranked country in the QS World Future Skills Index 2027 was:
A) Australia
B) United Kingdom
C) Germany
D) United States
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) United States
114. The proposed Mekedatu Dam is situated across which river in Karnataka?
A) Krishna River
B) Tungabhadra River
C) Cauvery River
D) Sharavathi River
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Cauvery River
115. Which Article of the Constitution empowers Parliament to adjudicate inter-State river disputes?
A) Article 246
B) Article 252
C) Article 262
D) Article 280
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Article 262
116. Under which Entry of the Union List may Parliament regulate and develop inter-State rivers and river valleys?
A) Entry 17
B) Entry 24
C) Entry 56
D) Entry 66
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Entry 56
117. The Mullaperiyar Dam was built between 1887 and 1895 across which river?
A) Cauvery River
B) Periyar River
C) Chaliyar River
D) Bharathapuzha River
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Periyar River
118. The River Boards Act, 1956 enables the Union Government to establish River Boards for inter-State rivers. How many River Boards have been constituted so far?
A) None
B) Three
C) Five
D) Twelve
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) None
119. Rakhigarhi, regarded as the largest known site of the Indus Valley Civilization, is located in which district?
A) Rohtak, Haryana
B) Hisar, Haryana
C) Sirsa, Haryana
D) Bhiwani, Haryana
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Hisar, Haryana
120. Rakhigarhi is the only Harappan site to have yielded authenticated ancient DNA (aDNA) evidence. The genetic analysis of a female individual notably indicated no detectable ancestry associated with:
A) Dravidian population groups
B) Austro-Asiatic tribal populations
C) Steppe pastoralist populations
D) South-East Asian migrant populations
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Steppe pastoralist populations
121. An Omega Block is an atmospheric blocking pattern that gets its name because:
A) It blocks all weather movement for exactly 24 hours (one ‘cycle’)
B) The pattern of a central high-pressure system flanked by two low-pressure troughs resembles the Greek letter Ω
C) It was first identified by scientist Omega at the WMO
D) The blocked jet stream moves in a circular (omega-shaped) path around the globe
Show Answer
Correct Answer: : B) The pattern of a central high-pressure system flanked by two low-pressure troughs resembles the Greek letter Ω
122. ‘Compressional heating’, the mechanism that creates a heat dome under an Omega Block, occurs when:
A) Cloud cover traps solar radiation near the surface
B) Descending air under a high-pressure system compresses and warms
C) Warm ocean currents heat the overlying atmosphere
D) Urban heat-island effects interact with regional high pressure
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Descending air under a high-pressure system compresses and warms
123. Under an Omega Block, the areas experiencing the FLANKING low-pressure zones typically see:
A) Prolonged droughts and heatwaves
B) Heavy rainfall, thunderstorms, and flooding
C) Clear skies and reduced precipitation
D) Below-average temperatures with frost risk
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Heavy rainfall, thunderstorms, and flooding
124. Under which Section of the Passports Act, 1967, may the Central Government issue a passport to a non-citizen in the public interest?
A) Section 5
B) Section 12
C) Section 16
D) Section 20
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Section 20
125. Which of the following documents conclusively proves Indian citizenship?
A) Voter ID
B) Aadhaar Card
C) Indian Passport
D) Citizenship Certificate under the Citizenship Act, 1955
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Citizenship Certificate under the Citizenship Act, 1955
126. A foreign national may acquire Indian citizenship by naturalisation after residing in India for how many years in aggregate during the preceding 14 years, plus one continuous year immediately before the application?
A) 7 years
B) 9 years
C) 11 years
D) 14 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 11 years
127. Under the Citizenship Act, 1955, citizenship by registration generally requires a residence period of:
A) 3 years
B) 5 years
C) 7 years
D) 10 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 7 years
128. Which mode of acquiring Indian citizenship applies when a new territory is formally merged with India?
A) By Descent
B) By Naturalisation
C) By Registration
D) By Incorporation of Territory
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) By Incorporation of Territory
129. The Supreme Court’s judgment in SaveLIFE Foundation (2026) held that the right to trauma care is an integral part of the right to life under:
A) Article 14
B) Article 19
C) Article 21
D) Article 32
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Article 21
130. In Parmanand Katara v. Union of India (1989), the Supreme Court held that doctors in both government and private hospitals have a professional obligation to provide immediate medical aid to:
A) Only patients referred by police in medico-legal cases
B) All injured persons to preserve life
C) Only patients who have paid or given insurance details
D) Only patients registered with government health schemes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) All injured persons to preserve life
131. Good Samaritan protection for persons helping road-accident victims is provided under which Section of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988?
A) Section 106
B) Section 119
C) Section 134A
D) Section 162
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Section 134A
132. The PM RAHAT scheme provides cashless treatment of up to how much per road-accident victim for up to seven days?
A) ₹50,000
B) ₹1 lakh
C) ₹1.5 lakh
D) ₹2 lakh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ₹1.5 lakh
133. The eDAR platform, relevant to trauma care, links police accident reporting with the:
A) AIIMS Emergency Department
B) National Health Authority
C) Ministry of Home Affairs
D) National Disaster Management Authority
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) National Health Authority
134. In Paschim Banga Khet Mazdoor Samiti v. State of West Bengal (1996), the Supreme Court held that the State has a positive duty to:
A) Establish medical colleges in every district
B) Ensure adequate emergency medical facilities and cannot deny treatment due to lack of infrastructure
C) Provide free medicines to all accident victims
D) Compensate families of accident victims within 30 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Ensure adequate emergency medical facilities and cannot deny treatment due to lack of infrastructure
135. The United Nations declared which year as the International Year of the Woman Farmer?
A) 2024
B) 2025
C) 2026
D) 2027
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2026
136. According to PLFS 2023–24, approximately what percentage of rural women are engaged in agriculture?
A) 52.3%
B) 63.8%
C) 76.95%
D) 84.2%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 76.95%
137. Despite constituting nearly half of self-employed farmers, women own only approximately what percentage of operational landholdings?
A) 7%
B) 13%
C) 20%
D) 27%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 13%
138. The Namo Drone Didi Scheme aims to provide drones to how many Women Self-Help Groups during 2023–24 to 2025–26?
A) 5,000
B) 10,000
C) 15,000
D) 20,000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 15,000
139. The Mahila Kisan Sashaktikaran Pariyojana (MKSP) is implemented as a sub-programme under:
A) Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana
B) National Food Security Mission
C) DAY-NRLM
D) PM-KISAN
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) DAY-NRLM
140. ‘Krishi Sakhi’, a government initiative for women in agriculture, refers to:
A) A scheme to provide subsidised seeds to women farmers
B) Trained women para-extension workers who support farmers in adopting sustainable practices
C) A special credit line for women-owned Farmer Producer Organisations
D) An insurance product exclusively for women cultivators
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Trained women para-extension workers who support farmers in adopting sustainable practices
141. Sufiyana Mousiqi is the classical musical tradition of which region?
A) Punjab
B) Kashmir
C) Rajasthan
D) Gujarat
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Kashmir
142. Sufiyana Mousiqi evolved between which centuries?
A) 10th and 11th centuries
B) 12th and 13th centuries
C) 14th and 15th centuries
D) 16th and 17th centuries
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 14th and 15th centuries
143. The UNESCO Convention governing Intangible Cultural Heritage, to which India is a party, was adopted in:
A) 1972
B) 1992
C) 2003
D) 2007
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2003
144. India currently has how many elements on the UNESCO Representative List of Intangible Cultural Heritage?
A) 10
B) 13
C) 16
D) 20
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 16
145. Which of the following was India’s most recent inscription on the UNESCO Representative List of Intangible Cultural Heritage?
A) Chhau Dance
B) Yoga
C) Garba of Gujarat
D) Kumbh Mela
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Garba of Gujarat
146. Maharishi Sushruta is widely regarded as the Father of which discipline?
A) Ayurveda
B) Surgery
C) Medicine
D) Pharmacology
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Surgery
147. The Sushruta Samhita describes approximately how many surgical procedures and surgical instruments respectively?
A) 100 procedures and 50 instruments
B) 200 procedures and 80 instruments
C) 300 procedures and 120 instruments
D) 400 procedures and 200 instruments
Show Answer
Correct Answer: : C) 300 procedures and 120 instruments
148. The bronze statue of Maharishi Sushruta unveiled at the Royal College of Surgeons of Edinburgh was cast at which renowned centre in Tamil Nadu?
A) Thanjavur
B) Mahabalipuram
C) Swamimalai
D) Kumbakonam
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Swamimalai
149. The Sushruta Samhita is traditionally associated with which school of Ayurveda?
A) Atreya School
B) Dhanvantari School
C) Charaka School
D) Vagbhata School
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Dhanvantari School
150. The Sushruta Samhita identifies eight categories of surgical procedures. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
A) Incision and Excision
B) Suturing and Drainage
C) Bone grafting (transplantation)
D) Scraping and Puncturing
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Bone grafting (transplantation)
151. A ‘Seismic Doublet’ is correctly defined as:
A) A mainshock followed by a single large aftershock of similar magnitude
B) Two independent earthquakes of nearly equal magnitude occurring within a short
time and in close proximity
C) Two earthquakes occurring simultaneously on the same fault
D) A deep-focus earthquake triggering a secondary surface earthquake
Show Answer
Correct Answer: : B) Two independent earthquakes of nearly equal magnitudeoccurring within a short time and in close proximity
152. Venezuela is highly earthquake-prone due to its position along the boundary between the Caribbean Plate and the:
A) Cocos Plate
B) Nazca Plate
C) South American Plate
D) North American Plate
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) South American Plate
153. The type of faulting primarily responsible for Venezuela’s frequent shallow, high-intensity earthquakes is:
A) Normal faulting
B) Reverse faulting
C) Thrust faulting
D) Strike-slip faulting
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Strike-slip faulting
154. The Government of India observed 25 June as ‘Samvidhan Hatya Diwas’ to mark the anniversary of the 1975 Emergency. The Emergency was proclaimed by President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed under:
A) Article 356
B) Article 352
C) Article 360
D) Article 358
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Article 352
155. The Allahabad High Court judgment that preceded the 1975 Emergency pertained to which case?
A) ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla
B) Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain
C) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
D) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain
156. The 38th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1975 made the President’s proclamation of Emergency:
A) Compulsory within 24 hours of cabinet advice
B) Subject to mandatory parliamentary review within one month
C) Beyond judicial review
D) Conditional on Rajya Sabha concurrence
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Beyond judicial review
157. The 39th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1975 excluded from judicial scrutiny the election of all EXCEPT:
A) Prime Minister
B) President
C) Chief Justice of India
D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Chief Justice of India
158. The ADM Jabalpur (Habeas Corpus) Case, 1976 is significant because the Supreme Court ruled that:
A) All Fundamental Rights are non-suspendable during Emergency
B) Even the right to life under Article 21 could be suspended during Emergency, enabling detention without judicial remedy
C) Emergency proclamations require a two-thirds majority in both Houses
D) The President must take Cabinet advice before suspending any Fundamental Right
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Even the right to life under Article 21 could be suspended during Emergency, enabling detention without judicial remedy
159. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 introduced Fundamental Duties and also added which words to the Preamble?
A) ‘Democratic’ and ‘Republic’
B) ‘Sovereign’ and ‘Secular’
C) ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’, and ‘Integrity’
D) ‘Fraternity’ and ‘Federal’
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’, and ‘Integrity’
160.The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 replaced ‘internal disturbance’ as a ground for Emergency with:
A) Civil war
B) Armed rebellion
C) External aggression
D) Breakdown of constitutional machinery
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Armed rebellion
161. Under the 44th Amendment, which two Fundamental Rights CANNOT be suspended during a National Emergency?
A) Articles 14 and 19
B) Articles 19 and 21
C) Articles 20 and 21
D) Articles 21 and 32
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Articles 20 and 21
162. Under Article 358 as amended by the 44th Amendment, automatic suspension of Article 19 rights is permitted ONLY during an Emergency declared due to:
A) Armed rebellion or internal disturbance
B) War or external aggression
C) Any of the three grounds under Article 352
D) Presidential proclamation citing domestic civil disorder
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) War or external aggression
163. The Draft National Food Security (Amendment) Bill, 2026 proposes to replace the existing household-based Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) entitlement with:
A) 5 kg per person per month with no household ceiling
B) 7 kg per person per month, subject to a maximum of 35 kg per household
C) 10 kg per household per month regardless of family size
D) 35 kg per household per month irrespective of family size (status quo)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 7 kg per person per month, subject to a maximum of 35 kg per household
164. Under the existing NFSA, 2013, Priority Household (PHH) beneficiaries are entitled to foodgrains at which rates?
A) Rice ₹2/kg, Wheat ₹1/kg, Coarse grains ₹1/kg
B) Rice ₹3/kg, Wheat ₹2/kg, Coarse grains ₹1/kg
C) Rice ₹5/kg, Wheat ₹4/kg, Coarse grains ₹3/kg
D) Free of cost under PM-GKAY extension
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Rice ₹3/kg, Wheat ₹2/kg, Coarse grains ₹1/kg
165. The NFSA, 2013 covers what percentage of India’s rural and urban populations respectively?
A) 50% rural and 75% urban
B) 67% rural and 50% urban
C) 75% rural and 50% urban
D) 80% rural and 60% urban
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 75% rural and 50% urban
166. The Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS) mechanism in India is administered by:
A) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
B) National Biodiversity Authority (NBA)
C) Wildlife Crime Control Bureau
D) Central Pollution Control Board
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) National Biodiversity Authority (NBA)
167. The international agreement that operationalised the ABS framework by establishing global rules for access to genetic resources was the:
A) Convention on Biological Diversity, 1992
B) Cartagena Protocol, 2000
C) Nagoya Protocol, 2010
D) Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework, 2022
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Nagoya Protocol, 2010
168. Under the Biological Diversity Rules 2024, the NBA must transfer what percentage of ABS proceeds to State Biodiversity Boards for distribution to local communities?
A) 50–60%
B) 70–75%
C) 80–84%
D) 85–90%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 85–90%
169. Which biological resource contributes 45% of India’s total ABS collections?
A) Neem
B) Turmeric
C) Red Sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus)
D) Sandal Wood
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Red Sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus)
170. Which of the following is explicitly EXCLUDED from India’s ABS framework under the Biological Diversity Act?
A) Plant genetic resources
B) Microbial genetic resources
C) Human genetic material
D) Animal genetic resources
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Human genetic material
171. The UN Independent International Scientific Panel on AI was established by the UN General Assembly to implement commitments under:
A) The Bletchley Declaration, 2023
B) The AI Safety Summit Agreement, 2024
C) The Global Digital Compact, 2024
D) The UN AI Governance Framework, 2025
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) The Global Digital Compact, 2024
172. India’s AI Governance Guidelines (November 2025) are structured around ‘Seven Sutras’. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
A) Ethical and trustworthy AI
B) Privacy and data protection
C) Mandatory algorithmic audits
D) Human-centric governance
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) Mandatory algorithmic audits
173. ‘Regulatory Arbitrage’ in the context of AI governance refers to:
A) Countries bidding against each other to attract AI companies with tax benefits
B) AI developers relocating to jurisdictions with weaker regulations, concentrating
advanced AI in fewer countries
C) Governments adopting each other’s AI regulations without local customisation
D) International courts arbitrating disputes between AI companies and governments
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) AI developers relocating to jurisdictions with weaker regulations, concentrating advanced AI in fewer countries
174. IMD’s Long Period Average (LPA) for the Southwest Monsoon is currently:
A) 779.5 mm (based on 1951–2000 average)
B) 868.6 mm (based on 1971–2020 average)
C) 920.3 mm (based on 1981–2010 average)
D) 835.4 mm (based on 1961–2010 average)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 868.6 mm (based on 1971–2020 average)
175. The Madden–Julian Oscillation (MJO) influences the Indian Monsoon primarily by affecting:
A) Sea-surface temperatures in the Bay of Bengal
B) Cloud formation, atmospheric convection, and active/break phases of the monsoon
C) The strength of the Himalayan cold air barrier
D) Wind direction over the Arabian Sea during June–September
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Cloud formation, atmospheric convection, and active/break phases of the monsoon
176. Food constitutes approximately what percentage of India’s Consumer Price Index (CPI), making monsoon deficits a significant driver of food inflation?
A) 25%
B) 30%
C) 40%
D) 50%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 40%
177. The Caspian Sea is classified as an ‘endorheic’ water body, which means:
A) Its water level fluctuates in a 10-year cycle
B) It has no natural outlet to the oceans
C) It is fed entirely by underground aquifers
D) Its salinity equals that of the open ocean
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) It has no natural outlet to the oceans
178. Approximately what percentage of the Caspian Sea’s freshwater inflow comes from the Volga River?
A) 40%
B) 60%
C) 80%
D) 95%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 80%
179. The Aktau Convention (2018), which governs the legal status of the Caspian Sea, prohibits the presence of:
A) Commercial fishing vessels from non-littoral states
B) Military forces from non-littoral states
C) Oil exploration rigs beyond 12 nautical miles
D) Cargo ships not registered in littoral states
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Military forces from non-littoral states
180. The Caspian Sea serves as a vital link in the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) connecting Mumbai to Moscow through which Iranian port?
A) Bandar Abbas
B) Chabahar
C) Bandar-e Anzali
D) Bushehr
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Bandar-e Anzali
181. The Second Pax Silica Summit was held in:
A) A UN-led multilateral AI safety framework
B) A US-led initiative to build secure, resilient supply chains for AI-critical technologies
C) A bilateral India-US technology-sharing agreement
D) A G7-led semiconductor export control regime
Show Answer
Correct Answer: : B) A US-led initiative to build secure, resilient supply chains for AI-critical technologies
182. Pax Silica is best described as:
A) Cocos Plate
B) Nazca Plate
C) South American Plate
D) North American Plate
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) South American Plate
183. The inaugural Pax Silica Declaration was signed in December 2025 by how many founding countries?
A) Three
B) Five
C) Seven
D) Ten
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Seven
184. India joined the Pax Silica initiative in February 2026 during the:
A) Pax Silica Inaugural Summit in Washington
B) AI Impact Summit in New Delhi
C) Global Digital Compact Review Meeting in Geneva
D) G20 Digital Economy Working Group in South Africa
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) AI Impact Summit in New Delhi
185. ‘PaxPass’, launched at the Second Pax Silica Summit with a US$50 million US commitment, integrates:
A) Digital passport issuance, visa processing, and AI-based border control
B) Cargo verification, AI-powered risk assessment, and expedited customs processing for trusted AI-related shipments
C) Satellite-based freight tracking and automated port clearance
D) Standardised AI software export licences and international certification
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Cargo verification, AI-powered risk assessment, and expeditedcustoms processing for trusted AI-related shipments
186. The ‘Foundry School’, a joint initiative launched at the Summit, was established by the U.S. State Department and:
A) MIT
B) Harvard University
C) Stanford University
D) Carnegie Mellon University
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Stanford University
187. A key strategic objective of Pax Silica is to counter:
A) India’s growing dominance in IT services exports
B) China’s dominance in rare-earth refining and strategic technology supply chains
C) Russia’s influence over European semiconductor manufacturing
D) Japan’s dominance in advanced robotics and automation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) China’s dominance in rare-earth refining and strategic technology supply chains
188. The concept of ‘Innovation Sovereignty’, as promoted under Pax Silica, refers to:
A) A country’s exclusive right to own and patent all AI discoveries
B) Strengthening domestic technological capabilities through internationalcollaboration to reduce external dependency
C) Restricting technology exports to only allied nations
D) Establishing national AI research centres independent of foreign investment
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Strengthening domestic technological capabilities through international collaboration to reduce external dependency
189. The 16th BRICS National Security Advisers (NSA) Meeting in New Delhi was chaired by India as the:
A) Permanent BRICS Secretariat host
B) 2026 rotating BRICS Chair
C) Founding member of expanded BRICS+
D) Host of the upcoming BRICS Leaders’ Summit
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 2026 rotating BRICS Chair
190. India has convened how many Voice of Global South Summits (VOGSS) since
2023?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Three
191. China’s White Paper (June 2026) on the Global South argues that:
A) India should lead Global South institutions with China’s endorsement
B) A ‘Global South without China is a pseudo-proposition’
C) BRICS should be dissolved and replaced by a China-led grouping
D) Developing nations should prioritise bilateral ties over multilateral forums
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) A ‘Global South without China is a pseudo-proposition’
192. China has consistently opposed India’s strategic aspirations by blocking India’s membership in:
A) ASEAN
B) G7
C) Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)
D) International Monetary Fund
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)
13. India has extended approximately how much in Lines of Credit to 68 countries as part of its development partnership?
A) US$15 billion
B) US$20 billion
C) US$32 billion
D) US$50 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) US$32 billion
194. China extended nearly how much in bailout lending alone to 22 developing countries between 2000 and 2021?
A) US$80 billion
B) US$120 billion
C) US$180 billion
D) US$240 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) US$240 billion
195. Which of the following is India’s principal platform for South-South cooperation and capacity building with developing countries?
A) Belt and Road Initiative (BRI)
B) Indian Technical and Economic Cooperation (ITEC)
C) Colombo Plan
D) Commonwealth Development Fund
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Indian Technical and Economic Cooperation (ITEC)
196. India’s three Global Initiatives launched to counter China’s Global Governance framework are:
A) Global Development Initiative, Global Security Initiative, Global Civilisation Initiative
B) Voice of Global South, ITEC, and India Stack
C) Neighbourhood First, Act East, and Indo-Pacific vision
D) G20 Presidency, BRICS Chairmanship, and SCO membership
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Global Development Initiative, Global Security Initiative, Global Civilisation Initiative
197. In South Asia, all countries EXCEPT which two participate in China’s Belt and Road Initiative (BRI)?
A) India and Nepal
B) India and Sri Lanka
C) India and Bhutan
D) India and Bangladesh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) India and Bhutan
198. Developing Asia requires nearly how much annually in infrastructure investment through 2030, representing an advantage for China’s BRI financing model?
A) US$500 billion
B) US$1 trillion
C) US$1.7 trillion
D) US$2.5 trillion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) US$1.7 trillion
199. Youth Co:Lab is described as the Asia-Pacific’s largest youth-led social entrepreneurship initiative. It was launched in:
A) 2015
B) 2017
C) 2019
D) 2021
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 2017
200. Youth CoLab was launched by UNDP and which financial institution?
A) World Bank
B) Asian Development Bank
C) International Finance Corporation
D) Citi Foundation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Citi Foundation
201. In India, Youth Co:Lab was launched in 2019 through a partnership between UNDP India and:
A) NITI Aayog
B) Ministry of Skill Development
C) Atal Innovation Mission (AIM)
D) Startup India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Atal Innovation Mission (AIM)
202.Youth Co:Lab’s upper age limit is extended to 35 years specifically for which categories?
A) Students from Tier-2 and Tier-3 cities
B) Women, Persons with Disabilities (PwDs), and other marginalised groups
C) First-generation entrepreneurs from rural areas
D) Applicants from Northeast India and Union Territories
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Women, Persons with Disabilities (PwDs), and other marginalised groups
203. The 8th Youth Co:Lab National Innovation Challenge 2026 was organised in collaboration with:
A) NASSCOM Foundation
B) T-Hub Foundation
C) Wadhwani Foundation
D) Startup India Hub
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) T-Hub Foundation
204. Netra AEW&C was developed by:
A) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)
B) Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL)
C) Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
D) Tata Advanced Systems Limited
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
205. The Netra AEW&C system is mounted on which aircraft platform?
A) Boeing 737 AEW&C
B) Ilyushin IL-76
C) Embraer EMB-145
D) Dassault Falcon 2000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Embraer EMB-145
206. The radar fitted on the Netra AEW&C system is an:
A) Passive Electronically Scanned Array (PESA) radar
B) Active Electronically Scanned Array (AESA) radar
C) Mechanically rotating pulse-Doppler radar
D) Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Active Electronically Scanned Array (AESA) radar
207. The Netra AEW&C system provides radar surveillance coverage of:
A) 90°–180°
B) 180°–240°
C) 300°–360°
D) Fixed 120° forward arc only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 300°–360°
208. The Netra AEW&C system’s detection range is approximately:
A) 50–100 km
B) 150–200 km
C) 250–500+ km
D) 600–800 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 250–500+ km
209. DRDO’s issuance of the Final Operational Clearance (FOC) for the Netra system means:
A) The system has passed initial design review and entered prototype testing
B) The system has been certified as fully ready for deployment in all operational roles
C) The system has completed factory acceptance tests and is ready for delivery
D) The system has been approved for export to friendly nations
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) The system has been certified as fully ready for deployment in all operational roles
210. The Netra AEW&C system is popularly nicknamed India’s:
A) ‘Shield in the Sky’
B) ‘Eye in the Sky’
C) ‘Sentinel of the Skies’
D) ‘Guardian Eagle’
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) ‘Eye in the Sky’
211. Apart from infrastructure, energy, and pharmaceuticals, which additional area of cooperation is listed under the India-China SED?
A) Tourism and hospitality
B) Industrial policy, investment and economic cooperation
C) Civil aviation and aerospace
D) Banking regulation and insurance
Show Answer
Correct Answer: : B) Industrial policy, investment and economic cooperation
212. The significance of reviving the SED includes helping to:
A) Merge economic engagement entirely with strategic competition
B) Separate economic engagement from strategic competition where feasible
C) Replace bilateral trade with multilateral WTO arbitration
D) End all Chinese investment scrutiny in India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Separate economic engagement from strategic competition where feasible
213. The Indian Prime Minister attended Seychelles’ Independence Day celebrations marking its:
A) 40th anniversary
B) 45th anniversary
C) 50th anniversary
D) 55th anniversary
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 50th anniversary
214. The Indian PM became the first Indian Prime Minister to:
A) Visit Seychelles
B) Address the Seychelles National Assembly
C) Sign a defence pact with Seychelles
D) Receive an honorary doctorate from a Seychellois university
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Address the Seychelles National Assembly
215. Seychelles is located approximately how far east of mainland Africa?
A) 800 km
B) 1,200 km
C) 1,600 km
D) 2,000 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1,600 km
216. Seychelles is recognised as:
A) Africa’s largest country by land area
B) Africa’s richest country by GDP per capita
C) Africa’s most populous island nation
D) Africa’s oldest independent republic
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Africa’s richest country by GDP per capita
217. Seychelles comprises 115 islands, including granitic inner islands described as the world’s only:
A) Volcanic archipelago in the Indian Ocean
B) Mid-oceanic granitic island chain
C) Coral atoll cluster with active reef growth
D) Tectonic plate boundary island system
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Mid-oceanic granitic island chain
218. The Aldabra Atoll, a UNESCO World Heritage Site in Seychelles since 1982, is renowned for its raised coral ecosystem and the world’s largest population of:
A) Flamingos
B) Giant tortoises
C) Sea turtles
D) Whale sharks
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Giant tortoises
219. The ‘Guardian of the Blue Horizon’ award, conferred upon the Indian PM during the visit, recognises leadership in:
A) Maritime trade facilitation
B) Environmental conservation and sustainable development
C) Global counter-terrorism cooperation
D) Diplomatic mediation in the Indian Ocean Region
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Environmental conservation and sustainable development
220. India announced a Special Economic Package for Seychelles worth:
A) US$75 million
B) US$100 million
C) US$150 million
D) US$175 million
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) US$175 million
221. India gifted a Fast Patrol Vessel to the Seychelles Coast Guard named:
A) INS Sagar
B) PS Lespwar
C) PS Zwazo
D) INS Indra
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) PS Lespwar
222. The defence and maritime cooperation with Seychelles strengthens capacity- building under India’s:
A) Neighbourhood First Policy
B) SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region) vision
C) Act East Policy
D) Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region) vision
223. Healthcare cooperation between India and Seychelles involves an agreement with HLL Lifecare Limited to extend India’s:
A) Ayushman Bharat Scheme
B) National Health Mission
C) Jan Aushadhi initiative
D) PM-JAY Scheme
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Jan Aushadhi initiative
224. India and Seychelles signed an Extradition Treaty to strengthen cooperation against transnational crime, piracy, and:
A) Cyberterrorism
B) Drug trafficking
C) Money laundering only
D) Human trafficking only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Drug trafficking
225. The Digital India Mission was launched on:
A) 26 January 2015
B) 1 July 2015
C) 15 August 2015
D) 2 October 2015
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 1 July 2015
226. The ‘JAM Trinity’, a backbone of India’s Digital Public Infrastructure, refers to:
A) Jan Dhan, Aadhaar, Mobile
B) Jan Dhan, Aarogya, MyGov
C) Jal, Aadhaar, MGNREGA
D) Jan Aushadhi, Aadhaar, Mobile
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Jan Dhan, Aadhaar, Mobile
227. As of the 11-year review, India processes approximately what share of global real-time digital payment transactions through UPI?
A) 29%
B) 38%
C) 49%
D) 60%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 49%
228. Under Digital India, approximately what percentage of Gram Panchayats have been connected through BharatNet?
A) 75%
B) 85%
C) 92%
D) 97%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 97%
229. India’s electronics manufacturing production increased from ₹1.9 lakh crore in FY15 to approximately how much by FY26?
A) ₹6 lakh crore
B) ₹8 lakh crore
C) ₹12 lakh crore
D) ₹15 lakh crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ₹12 lakh crore
230. India’s Stack — the suite of DPI platforms including Aadhaar and UPI — has been adopted or partnered with how many countries?
A) 12
B) 18
C) 24
D) 30
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 24
231. The Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH) was launched in:
A) 2010–11
B) 2012–13
C) 2014–15
D) 2016–17
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2014–15
232. Under MIDH, the Centre-State funding ratio for North Eastern and Himalayan States is:
A) 60:40
B) 75:25
C) 80:20
D) 90:10
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 90:10
233. The 8th Youth Co:Lab National Innovation Challenge 2026 was organised in collaboration with:
A) NASSCOM Foundation
B) T-Hub Foundation
C) Wadhwani Foundation
D) Startup India Hub
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) T-Hub Foundation
234. The Central Institute of Horticulture (CIH), focused on capacity building for North Eastern states, is located in:
A) Itanagar, Arunachal Pradesh
B) Medziphema, Nagaland
C) Imphal, Manipur
D) Shillong, Meghalaya
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Medziphema, Nagaland
235. The Sustainable Development Report (SDR) 2026 was presented at the 3rd Hamburg Sustainability Conference, assessing global progress on:
A) Millennium Development Goals
B) UN Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)
C) Paris Agreement NDC targets
D) Kyoto Protocol commitments
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) UN Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)
236. India’s rank in the SDR 2026 improved to 94th, up from which position in 2025?
A) 97th
B) 99th
C) 105th
D) 112th
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 99th
237. As per SDR 2026, India ranks behind which group of South Asian neighbours?
A) Pakistan, Bangladesh, Afghanistan
B) Bhutan, Maldives, Nepal, Sri Lanka
C) Bangladesh and Myanmar only
D) Nepal and Pakistan only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Bhutan, Maldives, Nepal, Sri Lanka
238. The world’s first nuclear heat-based hydrogen production facility was inaugurated at:
A) BARC, Mumbai
B) IGCAR, Kalpakkam
C) Tarapur Atomic Power Station
D) Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) IGCAR, Kalpakkam
239. The Copper-Chlorine (Cu-Cl) Thermochemical Cycle used at the facility requires an operating temperature of approximately:
A) 350°C
B) 530°C
C) 700°C
D) 850°C
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 530°C
240. Hydrogen produced through electrolysis powered by nuclear energy is classified as:
A) Green Hydrogen
B) Blue Hydrogen
C) Pink Hydrogen
D) Turquoise Hydrogen
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Pink Hydrogen
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