Practice the August 2025 3rd Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the third week of August 2025.
The Current Affairs Quiz of 15 to 21 August features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.
3rd Week of August 2025: Current Affairs Quiz
1. The Ningaloo Reef, which has suffered extensive bleaching damage, is located in:
a) Eastern Australia
b) Western Australia
c) Northern Australia
d) Southern Australia
Show Answer
Answer: b) Western Australia
2. Coral bleaching occurs when corals expel which organisms from their tissues?
a) Bacteria
b) Plankton
c) Zooxanthellae
d) Mollusks
Show Answer
Answer: c) Zooxanthellae
3. The optimal temperature range for most reef-building corals is:
a) 18°C to 25°C
b) 23°C to 29°C
c) 30°C to 35°C
d) 15°C to 22°C
Show Answer
Answer: b) 23°C to 29°C
4. The fourth global mass coral bleaching episode was declared by which organization in 2024?
a) UNESCO
b) UNEP
c) NOAA (U.S. National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration)
d) IPCC
Show Answer
Answer: c) NOAA
5. Which species help maintain coral reef balance by grazing on algae?
a) Dolphins and whales
b) Sharks and rays
c) Parrotfish and sea turtles
d) Jellyfish and sea anemones
Show Answer
Answer: c) Parrotfish and sea turtles
6. India and Singapore elevated their relationship to Strategic Partnership in:
a) 2005
b) 2010
c) 2015
d) 2020
Show Answer
Answer: c) 2015
7. The Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA) between India and Singapore was signed in:
a) 2003
b) 2005
c) 2007
d) 2010
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2005
8. Singapore ranks as which position globally in India’s total trade (2023-24)?
a) 4th
b) 5th
c) 6th
d) 7th
Show Answer
Answer: c) 6th
9. Which payment systems linkage is operational between India and Singapore?
a) UPI-PayNow
b) RTGS-FAST
c) NEFT-MEPS
d) IMPS-PayLah
Show Answer
Answer: a) UPI-PayNow
10. The bilateral defense exercise between Indian and Singaporean armies is called:
a) SIMBEX
b) Agni Warrior
c) Malabar
d) Garuda
Show Answer
Answer: b) Agni Warrior
11. India’s access to which naval base helps balance China’s influence in the region?
a) Sembawang Naval Base
b) Changi Naval Base
c) Tuas Naval Base
d) Jurong Naval Base
Show Answer
Answer: b) Changi Naval Base
12. India’s first commercial Earth Observation satellite constellation will deploy how many satellites?
a) 8
b) 10
c) 12
d) 15
Show Answer
Answer: c) 12
13. The EO constellation programme will be rolled out within:
a) 2 years
b) 3 years
c) 4 years
d) 5 years
Show Answer
Answer: c) 4 years
14. Which of the following is NOT part of the consortium led by PixxelSpace India?
a) Piersight Space
b) Satsure Analytics India
c) Dhruva Space
d) Skyroot Aerospace
Show Answer
Answer: d) Skyroot Aerospace
15. India’s current private space industry size is approximately:
a) $5 billion
b) $8 billion
c) $10 billion
d) $12 billion
Show Answer
Answer: b) $8 billion
16. India’s first privately developed rocket launched under Mission Prarambh was:
a) Vikram-A
b) Vikram-S
c) Agni-P
d) PSLV-C
Show Answer
Answer: b) Vikram-S
17. The venture capital fund approved for space-tech startups is worth:
a) ₹500 crore
b) ₹750 crore
c) ₹1,000 crore
d) ₹1,500 crore
Show Answer
Answer: c) ₹1,000 crore
18. FREE-AI stands for:
a) Framework for Responsible and Efficient Enablement of AI
b) Framework for Responsible and Ethical Enablement of Artificial Intelligence
c) Financial Regulatory and Ethical Enhancement of AI
d) Financial Risk and Error Elimination through AI
Show Answer
Answer: b) Framework for Responsible and Ethical Enablement of Artificial Intelligence
19. The FREE-AI framework is based on how many core principles (Sutras)?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8
Show Answer
Answer: c) 7
20. India’s projected AI investment in finance by 2027 is:
a) ₹5 lakh crore
b) ₹6 lakh crore
c) ₹8 lakh crore
d) ₹10 lakh crore
Show Answer
Answer: c) ₹8 lakh crore
21. The projected investment in Generative AI by 2033 is:
a) ₹85,000 crore
b) ₹1.02 lakh crore
c) ₹1.25 lakh crore
d) ₹1.50 lakh crore
Show Answer
Answer: b) ₹1.02 lakh crore
22. Which initiative under IndiaAI Mission aligns with FREE-AI’s shared infrastructure approach?
a) AI Compute
b) AI Kosh
c) AI Innovation Hub
d) AI Sandbox
Show Answer
Answer: b) AI Kosh
23. The National Green Tribunal was constituted under which Act?
a) Environment Protection Act, 1986
b) NGT Act, 2010
c) Forest Conservation Act, 1980
d) Water Prevention Act, 1974
Show Answer
Answer: b) NGT Act, 2010
24. The tenure of NGT members is:
a) 3 years with re-appointment possible
b) 5 years with no provision for re-appointment
c) 5 years with one re-appointment possible
d) 6 years with no provision for re-appointment
Show Answer
Answer: b) 5 years with no provision for re-appointment
25. NGT functions are guided by:
a) Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
b) Indian Evidence Act, 1872
c) Principles of Natural Justice
d) Environmental Protection Rules
Show Answer
Answer: c) Principles of Natural Justice
26. The Indian Olympic Association was founded in:
a) 1925
b) 1927
c) 1930
d) 1932
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1927
27. The first President of the Indian Olympic Association was:
a) Dr. A.G. Noehren
b) Sir Dorabji Tata
c) Maharaja of Patiala
d) K.M. Cariappa
Show Answer
Answer: b) Sir Dorabji Tata
28. The Commonwealth Games were first held in:
a) 1928 at London
b) 1930 at Hamilton, Canada
c) 1932 at Los Angeles
d) 1934 at London
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1930 at Hamilton, Canada
29. IOA’s Executive Council has how many members?
a) 28
b) 30
c) 32
d) 36
Show Answer
Answer: c) 32
30. Project Kusha was cleared in 2022 with an outlay of:
a) ₹19,500 crore
b) ₹21,700 crore
c) ₹23,400 crore
d) ₹25,600 crore
Show Answer
Answer: b) ₹21,700 crore
31. Under Project Kusha, the M3 interceptor variant has a range of:
a) 250-300 km
b) 300-350 km
c) 350-400 km
d) 400-450 km
Show Answer
Answer: c) 350-400 km
32. The extended-range interceptor under Phase 2 will have capability exceeding:
a) 500 km
b) 550 km
c) 600 km
d) 650 km
Show Answer
Answer: c) 600 km
33. OCO-2 was launched in:
a) 2012
b) 2014
c) 2016
d) 2018
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2014
34. OCO-3 was installed as an instrument aboard:
a) Hubble Space Telescope
b) International Space Station (ISS)
c) James Webb Space Telescope
d) Parker Solar Probe
Show Answer
Answer: b) International Space Station (ISS)
35. According to OCO mission findings, the Amazon rainforest now:
a) Absorbs more CO2 than it emits
b) Emits more CO2 than it absorbs
c) Maintains carbon neutrality
d) Has stopped photosynthesis
Show Answer
Answer: b) Emits more CO2 than it absorbs
36. Which regions still act as carbon sinks according to OCO data?
a) Tropical rainforests
b) Desert regions
c) Boreal forests in Canada and Russia
d) Urban areas
Show Answer
Answer: c) Boreal forests in Canada and Russia
37. What is the primary aim of the Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana?
a) To provide unemployment benefits to job seekers
b) To support the creation of over 3.5 crore jobs in two years
c) To establish new employment exchanges
d) To provide skill development training
Show Answer
Answer: b) To support the creation of over 3.5 crore jobs in two years
38. Under Part A of PM-VBRY, what is the maximum amount of EPF wage equivalent incentive a first-time employee can receive?
a) ₹10,000
b) ₹12,000
c) ₹15,000
d) ₹20,000
Show Answer
Answer: c) ₹15,000
39. The second installment of incentive under PM-VBRY Part A is released after:
a) 6 months of service only
b) 12 months of service only
c) 12 months of service and completion of financial literacy programme
d) 18 months of service
Show Answer
Answer: c) 12 months of service and completion of financial literacy programme
40. For employers under Part B of PM-VBRY, what is the maximum monthly incentive per additional employee?
a) ₹2,000
b) ₹3,000
c) ₹4,000
d) ₹5,000
Show Answer
Answer: b) ₹3,000
41. In which sector do employers receive extended incentives for the 3rd and 4th year under PM-VBRY?
a) Services sector
b) Agriculture sector
c) Manufacturing sector
d) IT sector
Show Answer
Answer: c) Manufacturing sector
42. What depths did the two Indian aquanauts achieve in their historic Atlantic Ocean dive?
a) 3,000m and 4,000m
b) 4,025m and 5,002m
c) 4,500m and 5,500m
d) 3,500m and 4,500m
Show Answer
Answer: b) 4,025m and 5,002m
43. The name of India’s indigenous submersible under the Samudrayaan Mission is:
a) MATSYA-5000
b) MATSYA-6000
c) VARUNA-6000
d) NEMO-6000
Show Answer
Answer: b) MATSYA-6000
44. What is the target depth for the Samudrayaan Mission by 2027?
a) 5,000 meters
b) 5,500 meters
c) 6,000 meters
d) 6,500 meters
Show Answer
Answer: c) 6,000 meters
9. The Deep Ocean Mission was launched in which year with what budget?
a) 2020, ₹3,500 crore
b) 2021, ₹4,077 crore
c) 2022, ₹4,500 crore
d) 2019, ₹3,800 crore
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2021, ₹4,077 crore
45. MATSYA-6000 is designed for how many hours of operational endurance?
a) 8 hours
b) 10 hours
c) 12 hours
d) 15 hours
Show Answer
Answer: c) 12 hours
46. S&P Global Ratings upgraded India’s long-term sovereign credit rating from:
a) BB+ to BBB-
b) BBB- to BBB
c) BBB to BBB+
d) A- to A
Show Answer
Answer: b) BBB- to BBB
47. This upgrade by S&P is the first since which year?
a) 2005
b) 2006
c) 2007
d) 2008
Show Answer
Answer: c) 2007
48. Which of the following is NOT a major global credit rating agency mentioned?
a) Standard & Poor’s
b) Fitch Ratings
c) Moody’s Investors Service
d) CRISIL
Show Answer
Answer: d) CRISIL
49. According to S&P and Fitch, investment grade ratings range from:
a) BB- to AAA
b) BBB- to AAA
c) A- to AAA
d) BBB to AAA
Show Answer
Answer: b) BBB- to AAA
50. The “Rating Ceiling Effect” refers to:
a) Maximum rating a country can achieve
b) Companies generally cannot receive ratings higher than their sovereign
c) Limit on number of ratings issued
d) Ceiling on rating fees
Show Answer
Answer: b) Companies generally cannot receive ratings higher than their sovereign
51. Mission Sudarshan Chakra aims to secure India’s critical infrastructure by:
a) 2030
b) 2032
c) 2035
d) 2040
Show Answer
Answer: c) 2035
52. The mission is inspired by the mythical Sudarshan Chakra, which symbolizes:
a) Peace and prosperity
b) Precision, speed, and destructive power
c) Unity and strength
d) Wisdom and knowledge
Show Answer
Answer: b) Precision, speed, and destructive power
53. Mission Sudarshan Chakra focuses on which types of capabilities?
a) Only defensive capabilities
b) Only offensive capabilities
c) Both defensive and offensive capabilities
d) Only cyber capabilities
Show Answer
Answer: c) Both defensive and offensive capabilities
54. Alaska was purchased by the United States from which country?
a) Canada
b) United Kingdom
c) Russia
d) France
Show Answer
Answer: c) Russia
55. The Alaska Treaty was signed in which year?
a) 1865
b) 1866
c) 1867
d) 1868
Show Answer
Answer: c) 1867
56. Approximately what percentage of Alaska’s land area is underlain by permafrost?
a) 75%
b) 80%
c) 85%
d) 90%
Show Answer
Answer: c) 85%
57. Which sea borders Alaska to the west?
a) Beaufort Sea
b) Chukchi Sea
c) Bering Sea
d) Arctic Ocean
Show Answer
Answer: c) Bering Sea
58. SLINEX is a bilateral naval exercise between India and:
a) Singapore
b) Sri Lanka
c) Seychelles
d) South Korea
Show Answer
Answer: b) Sri Lanka
59. SLINEX was first initiated in which year?
a) 2003
b) 2004
c) 2005
d) 2006
Show Answer
Answer: c) 2005
60. SLINEX-25 represents which edition of this naval exercise?
a) 10th
b) 11th
c) 12th
d) 13th
Show Answer
Answer: c) 12th
61. MAHASAGAR stands for:
a) Maritime Advancement and Holistic Security Across Geographic Regions
b) Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions
c) Maritime and Holistic Alliance for Strategic Growth Across Regions
d) Mutual Alliance for Holistic Security and Growth Across Regions
Show Answer
Answer: b) Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions
62. The Permanent Court of Arbitration was established in which year?
a) 1898
b) 1899
c) 1900
d) 1901
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1899
63. PCA was created by which convention?
a) Geneva Convention for International Disputes
b) Vienna Convention for International Relations
c) Convention for the Pacific Settlement of International Disputes
d) Hague Convention for International Justice
Show Answer
Answer: c) Convention for the Pacific Settlement of International Disputes
64. How many contracting parties does the PCA currently have?
a) 120
b) 122
c) 125
d) 130
Show Answer
Answer: c) 125
65. The headquarters of the Permanent Court of Arbitration is located in:
a) Geneva, Switzerland
b) Vienna, Austria
c) New York, USA
d) The Hague, Netherlands
Show Answer
Answer: d) The Hague, Netherlands
66. What is the primary security innovation in Stanford’s recently developed Brain-Computer Interface?
a) Biometric authentication
b) Password-enabled mental authentication
c) Dual-factor verification
d) Encrypted neural signals
Show Answer
Answer: b) Password-enabled mental authentication
67. Which of the following is NOT a key step in BCI working process?
a) Signal Acquisition
b) Signal Processing
c) Neural Implantation
d) Feedback Mechanism
Show Answer
Answer: c) Neural Implantation
68. “Brain tapping” in the context of BCI security refers to:
a) Physical damage to brain tissue
b) Unauthorized access to private thoughts
c) Medical procedure for BCI installation
d) Method of neural signal enhancement
Show Answer
Answer: b) Unauthorized access to private thoughts
69. Which concern is specifically related to “cognitive liberty” in BCI technology?
a) High cost of implementation
b) Risk of undermining mental self-determination
c) Technical compatibility issues
d) Regulatory compliance
Show Answer
Answer: b) Risk of undermining mental self-determination
70. BCIs have potential applications in all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Restoring communication in ALS patients
b) Creating immersive gaming experiences
c) Direct genetic modification
d) Neurofeedback therapy
Show Answer
Answer: c) Direct genetic modification
71. The UN Global Plastics Treaty negotiations (INC-5.2) in August 2025 were held in:
a) Paris
b) Geneva
c) New York
d) Vienna
Show Answer
Answer: b) Geneva
72. What percentage of plastic is currently recycled globally?
a) 9%
b) 15%
c) 25%
d) 4%
Show Answer
Answer: a) 9%
73. By 2060, plastic waste is projected to:
a) Double
b) Triple
c) Quadruple
d) Remain stable
Show Answer
Answer: b) Triple
74. The main disagreement in the Global Plastics Treaty negotiations was between:
a) Developed vs developing countries
b) Imposing production caps vs focusing on waste management
c) Mandatory vs voluntary compliance
d) Regional vs global implementation
Show Answer
Answer: b) Imposing production caps vs focusing on waste management
75. What is the estimated economic damage from plastic pollution between 2016-2040?
a) $150 trillion
b) $200 trillion
c) $281 trillion
d) $350 trillion
Show Answer
Answer: c) $281 trillion
76. Plastics account for what percentage of global greenhouse gas emissions?
a) 2%
b) 4%
c) 6%
d) 8%
Show Answer
Answer: b) 4%
77. India’s ban on single-use plastics was implemented in:
a) 2020
b) 2021
c) 2022
d) 2023
Show Answer
Answer: c) 2022
78. E20 fuel contains what percentage of ethanol blended with petrol?
a) 10%
b) 15%
c) 20%
d) 25%
Show Answer
Answer: c) 20%
79. The nationwide rollout of E20 fuel in India began in:
a) January 2025
b) March 2025
c) April 2025
d) May 2025
Show Answer
Answer: c) April 2025
80. The original target year for 20% ethanol blending was:
a) 2025
b) 2028
c) 2030
d) 2035
Show Answer
Answer: c) 2030
81. Which material is NOT mentioned as being susceptible to ethanol corrosion?
a) Rubber
b) Aluminum
c) Steel
d) Zinc
Show Answer
Answer: c) Steel
82. The Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme was launched in:
a) 2001
b) 2003
c) 2005
d) 2007
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2003
83. Phase separation in E20 fuel occurs when:
a) Temperature drops below freezing
b) Ethanol absorbs water
c) Fuel is stored too long
d) Octane rating is too high
Show Answer
Answer: b) Ethanol absorbs water
84. Which ministry oversees the Ethanol Blended Petrol Programme?
a) Ministry of Environment
b) Ministry of Agriculture
c) Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas
d) Ministry of Road Transport
Show Answer
Answer: c) Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas
85. The E-Jagriti platform was launched on:
a) 1st December, 2024
b) 1st January, 2025
c) 15th January, 2025
d) 1st February, 2025
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1st January, 2025
86. Which ministry is the nodal agency for E-Jagriti platform?
a) Ministry of Electronics and IT
b) Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution
c) Ministry of Law and Justice
d) Ministry of Home Affairs
Show Answer
Answer: b) Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution
87. A disposal rate of over 100% on E-Jagriti platform indicates:
a) System malfunction
b) Clearing backlogs along with new cases
c) Duplicate case filings
d) Incorrect data reporting
Show Answer
Answer: b) Clearing backlogs along with new cases
88. E-Jagriti platform connects which levels of consumer commissions?
a) Only National and State
b) Only State and District
c) National, State, and District
d) Only District level
Show Answer
Answer: c) National, State, and District
89. Mount Elbrus is located in which mountain range?
a) Ural Mountains
b) Caucasus Mountains
c) Altai Mountains
d) Carpathian Mountains
Show Answer
Answer: b) Caucasus Mountains
90. The elevation of Mount Elbrus is:
a) 5,542 m
b) 5,642 m
c) 5,742 m
d) 5,842 m
Show Answer
Answer: b) 5,642 m
91. Mount Elbrus is geologically classified as a:
a) Active volcano
b) Dormant volcano
c) Extinct volcano
d) Sedimentary mountain
Show Answer
Answer: b) Dormant volcano
92. Mount Elbrus is significant in mountaineering because it is part of:
a) The Eight-thousanders
b) The Seven Summits challenge
c) The 14 Peaks project
d) The Continental Divide
Show Answer
Answer: b) The Seven Summits challenge
93. Which of the following best represents the relationship between BCIs and neurorights?
a) BCIs automatically guarantee neurorights
b) Neurorights are obstacles to BCI development
c) Neurorights framework is needed to protect individuals using BCIs
d) BCIs and neurorights are unrelated concepts
Show Answer
Answer: c) Neurorights framework is needed to protect individuals using BCIs
94. The failure to reach consensus on the Global Plastics Treaty primarily reflects:
a) Technical limitations in plastic recycling
b) Fundamental disagreements on production vs waste management approaches
c) Insufficient scientific evidence about plastic pollution
d) Lack of international legal frameworks
Show Answer
Answer: b) Fundamental disagreements on production vs waste management approaches
95. The concerns about E20 fuel compatibility with older vehicles primarily stem from:
a) Higher fuel costs
b) Government policy changes
c) Material and technological limitations of legacy systems
d) Consumer resistance to change
Show Answer
Answer: c) Material and technological limitations of legacy systems
96. The primary objective of the FRBM Act, 2003 does NOT include:
a) Promoting long-term macroeconomic stability
b) Ensuring inter-generational equity by reducing deficits
c) Increasing government expenditure on welfare schemes
d) Strengthening fiscal discipline and transparency
Show Answer
Answer: c) Increasing government expenditure on welfare schemes
97. According to the CAG report, Central Government debt as a percentage of GDP:
a) Increased from 57% to 61.38% between FY 2020-21 and March 2024
b) Declined from 61.38% to 57% between FY 2020-21 and March 2024
c) Remained constant at 61.38% throughout the period
d) Fluctuated between 55% and 65% during the period
Show Answer
Answer: b) Declined from 61.38% to 57% between FY 2020-21 and March 2024
98. The improvement in public debt repayment to public debt receipts ratio from FY 2019-20 to FY 2023-24 was:
a) From 81.46% to 86.66%
b) From 86.66% to 81.46%
c) From 90% to 85%
d) From 75% to 80%
Show Answer
Answer: b) From 86.66% to 81.46%
99. Under the FRBM targets, the General Government debt (Centre + States) should be:
a) ≤ 40% of GDP by FY 2024-25
b) ≤ 50% of GDP by FY 2024-25
c) ≤ 60% of GDP by FY 2024-25
d) ≤ 70% of GDP by FY 2024-25
Show Answer
Answer: c) ≤ 60% of GDP by FY 2024-25
100. The current commitment for Fiscal Deficit (FD) target is to achieve:
a) FD below 3% of GDP by FY 2025-26
b) FD below 4.5% of GDP by FY 2025-26
c) FD below 5% of GDP by FY 2024-25
d) FD below 3.5% of GDP by FY 2026-27
Show Answer
Answer: b) FD below 4.5% of GDP by FY 2025-26
101. Government borrowing guarantees on the Consolidated Fund of India should not exceed:
a) 0.3% of GDP in any year
b) 0.5% of GDP in any year
c) 1% of GDP in any year
d) 1.5% of GDP in any year
Show Answer
Answer: b) 0.5% of GDP in any year
102. The CAG report suggests that between 2020-21 to 2023-24:
a) Debt accumulation exceeded GDP expansion
b) GDP expansion exceeded debt accumulation
c) Debt accumulation equaled GDP expansion
d) There was no correlation between debt and GDP
Show Answer
Answer: b) GDP expansion exceeded debt accumulation
103. Which organization presents the annual review report on the FRBM Act?
a) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
b) Ministry of Finance
c) Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)
d) Parliament Standing Committee
Show Answer
Answer: c) Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)
104. The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2025 builds upon which previous legislation?
a) Jan Vishwas Act, 2022
b) Jan Vishwas Act, 2023
c) Jan Vishwas Act, 2024
d) Companies Amendment Act, 2023
Show Answer
Answer: b) Jan Vishwas Act, 2023
105. How many provisions were decriminalised under the original Jan Vishwas Act, 2023?
a) 183 provisions across 42 Central Acts
b) 288 provisions across 50 Central Acts
c) 150 provisions across 35 Central Acts
d) 200 provisions across 45 Central Acts
Show Answer
Answer: a) 183 provisions across 42 Central Acts
106. The Jan Vishwas Bill, 2025 proposes decriminalisation of:
a) 183 provisions
b) 250 provisions
c) 288 provisions
d) 300 provisions
Show Answer
Answer: c) 288 provisions
107. Under the new bill, first-time contraventions for how many offences under how many Acts will attract warnings instead of fines?
a) 76 offences under 10 Acts
b) 80 offences under 12 Acts
c) 70 offences under 8 Acts
d) 85 offences under 15 Acts
Show Answer
Answer: a) 76 offences under 10 Acts
108. The automatic penalty revision mechanism in the bill provides for:
a) 5% increase every two years
b) 10% increase every three years
c) 15% increase every four years
d) 8% increase every two years
Show Answer
Answer: b) 10% increase every three years
109. Which of the following Acts is NOT mentioned for further decriminalisation in the 2025 bill?
a) Tea Act, 1953
b) Motor Vehicles Act, 1988
c) Companies Act, 2013
d) Drugs & Cosmetics Act, 1940
Show Answer
Answer: c) Companies Act, 2013
110. The principle behind Jan Vishwas legislation is:
a) Maximum Government, Minimum Governance
b) Minimum Government, Maximum Governance
c) Balanced Government, Effective Governance
d) Digital Government, Transparent Governance
Show Answer
Answer: b) Minimum Government, Maximum Governance
111. Streamlined adjudication under the bill means:
a) All cases must go through courts
b) Parliamentary committees will handle penalties
c) Designated officers can impose penalties administratively
d) State governments will handle all violations
Show Answer
Answer: c) Designated officers can impose penalties administratively
112. According to Article 324(5) of the Constitution, the CEC can be removed:
a) In the same manner as the President of India
b) In like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court
c) By a simple majority in Parliament
d) Through a referendum
Show Answer
Answer: b) In like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court
113. A motion for removal of CEC alleging misbehaviour can be introduced in:
a) Only Lok Sabha
b) Only Rajya Sabha
c) Either House of Parliament
d) Both Houses simultaneously
Show Answer
Answer: c) Either House of Parliament
114. For removal of CEC, the motion must be passed by:
a) Simple majority in both Houses
b) Two-thirds majority of total membership
c) Two-thirds majority of members present and voting in both Houses
d) Three-fourths majority in both Houses
Show Answer
Answer: c) Two-thirds majority of members present and voting in both Houses
115. After parliamentary approval for CEC removal, the final order is issued by:
a) Prime Minister of India
b) President of India
c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
d) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Show Answer
Answer: b) President of India
116. The enquiry into charges against the CEC is conducted by:
a) Supreme Court committee
b) Parliamentary committee
c) High Court judges
d) Cabinet committee
Show Answer
Answer: b) Parliamentary committee
117. The current news about CEC removal motion is being considered by:
a) Government parties
b) Opposition parties
c) Independent members
d) Regional parties
Show Answer
Answer: b) Opposition parties
118. Bond yield represents:
a) The face value of the bond
b) The return an investor earns on capital invested in a bond
c) The maturity period of the bond
d) The credit rating of the bond issuer
Show Answer
Answer: b) The return an investor earns on capital invested in a bond
119. The relationship between bond prices and yields is:
a) Directly proportional
b) Inversely proportional
c) No correlation
d) Sometimes direct, sometimes inverse
Show Answer
Answer: b) Inversely proportional
120. When market interest rates rise:
a) Existing bond prices rise and yields fall
b) Existing bond prices fall and yields rise
c) Both bond prices and yields rise
d) Both bond prices and yields fall
Show Answer
Answer: b) Existing bond prices fall and yields rise
120. Higher inflation expectations typically lead to:
a) Lower bond yields as real returns increase
b) Higher bond yields as investors demand compensation
c) No change in bond yields
d) Volatile bond yields with no clear direction
Show Answer
Answer: b) Higher bond yields as investors demand compensation
121. UNHCR was established in:
a) 1945 after World War II
b) 1950 by the UN General Assembly
c) 1951 along with the Refugee Convention
d) 1967 with the Protocol
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1950 by the UN General Assembly
122. UNHCR headquarters is located in:
a) New York, USA
b) Vienna, Austria
c) Geneva, Switzerland
d) The Hague, Netherlands
Show Answer
Answer: c) Geneva, Switzerland
123. UNHCR has been awarded the Nobel Peace Prize:
a) Technical limitations in plastic recycling
b) Fundamental disagreements on production vs waste management approaches
c) Insufficient scientific evidence about plastic pollution
d) Lack of international legal frameworks
Show Answer
Answer: c) Twice in 1954 and 1981
124. The recent suspension of repatriation process by UNHCR concerns:
a) Afghan refugees
b) Syrian refugees
c) Sri Lankan Tamil refugees
d) Myanmar refugees
Show Answer
Answer: c) Sri Lankan Tamil refugees
125. The Adi Karmayogi Abhiyan was launched by which ministry?
a) Ministry of Rural Development
b) Ministry of Panchayati Raj
c) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
d) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
Show Answer
Answer: c) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
126. The Adi Karmayogi Abhiyan is launched as part of:
a) Janjatiya Gaurav Varsh
b) Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav
c) Swachh Bharat Mission
d) Digital India Campaign
Show Answer
Answer: a) Janjatiya Gaurav Varsh
127. The Abhiyan envisions building a network of how many change leaders?
a) 15 lakh change leaders
b) 20 lakh change leaders
c) 25 lakh change leaders
d) 30 lakh change leaders
Show Answer
Answer: b) 20 lakh change leaders
128. The change leaders network will cover:
a) 1 lakh villages, 450 districts, 28 States/UTs
b) 1 lakh villages, 550 districts, 30 States/UTs
c) 90,000 villages, 500 districts, 30 States/UTs
d) 1.2 lakh villages, 600 districts, 32 States/UTs
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1 lakh villages, 550 districts, 30 States/UTs
129. The visit aimed to address tensions primarily along:
a) Line of Control (Lo(C)
b) International Border
c) Line of Actual Control (LA(C)
d) McMahon Line
Show Answer
Answer: c) Line of Actual Control (LA(C)
130. Adi Sewa Samay refers to:
a) Daily 30-minute community service
b) Weekly 1-hour governance meeting
c) Fortnightly 1-2 hours dedicated by officers & community for issue resolution
d) Monthly 3-hour development planning session
Show Answer
Answer: c) Fortnightly 1-2 hours dedicated by officers & community for issue resolution
131. The Tribal Village Action Plan (TVAP) is aligned with:
a) Only SDGs
b) Only national development goals
c) SDGs and national development goals
d) State development plans only
Show Answer
Answer: c) SDGs and national development goals
132. Which of the following is NOT a component of Adi Karmayogi Abhiyan?
a) Adi Sewa Kendra
b) Governance Lab Workshops
c) Adi Digital Platform
d) Parliament Standing Committee
Show Answer
Answer: c) Adi Digital Platform
133. Adi Sahyogi in the program refers to:
a) Government officials providing administrative support
b) Teachers, doctors, professionals mentoring communities
c) Village heads coordinating activities
d) Technical experts providing training
Show Answer
Answer: b) Teachers, doctors, professionals mentoring communities
134. Adi Saathi includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a) SHG members
b) NRLM members
c) Government bureaucrats
d) Tribal elders and youth
Show Answer
Answer: c) Government bureaucrats
135. The Tribal Village Vision is targeted for the year:
a) 2027
b) 2029
c) 2030
d) 2035
Show Answer
Answer: c) 2030
136. Which flagship scheme is NOT mentioned as being enhanced by Adi Karmayogi Abhiyan?
a) Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan
b) PM-JANMAN
c) National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission
d) Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana
Show Answer
Answer: d) Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana
137. The Abhiyan promotes governance that is:
a) Top-down policy implementation
b) Bottom-up policy-making integrating tribal wisdom
c) Technology-driven centralized governance
d) Urban-centric development model
Show Answer
Answer: b) Bottom-up policy-making integrating tribal wisdoms
138. According to Article 66(2), the Vice-President:
a) Can be a member of Lok Sabha but not Rajya Sabha
b) Can be a member of State Legislature but not Parliament
c) Cannot be a member of either House of Parliament or any State Legislature
d) Can hold dual membership in both Parliament and State Legislature
Show Answer
Answer: c) Cannot be a member of either House of Parliament or any State Legislature
139. The term of the Vice-President as per Article 67 is:
a) 4 years
b) 5 years
c) 6 years
d) 7 years
Show Answer
Answer: b) 5 years
140. For Vice-Presidential election nomination, a candidate requires:
a) 15 proposers and 15 seconders
b) 20 proposers and 20 seconders
c) 25 proposers and 25 seconders
d) 30 proposers and 30 seconders
Show Answer
Answer: b) 20 proposers and 20 seconders
141. The security deposit for Vice-Presidential election is:
a) ₹10,000
b) ₹15,000
c) ₹25,000
d) ₹50,000
Show Answer
Answer: b) ₹15,000
142. The electoral college for Vice-Presidential election comprises:
a) Only elected members of both Houses of Parliament
b) All elected and nominated members of both Houses of Parliament
c) Elected members of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies
d) All members of Parliament and State Legislative Councils
Show Answer
Answer: b) All elected and nominated members of both Houses of Parliament
143. In Vice-Presidential election, every vote carries a value of:
a) Variable based on state population
b) Equal value of 1
c) Proportional to constituency size
d) Based on the member’s seniority
Show Answer
Answer: b) Equal value of 1
144. Which law is NOT applicable during Vice-Presidential election voting?
a) Representation of People Act
b) Anti-Defection Law
c) Election Commission guidelines
d) Constitutional provisions
Show Answer
Answer: b) Anti-Defection Law
145. The minimum age requirement for Vice-Presidential candidature is:
a) 30 years
b) 35 years
c) 40 years
d) 45 years
Show Answer
Answer: b) 35 years
146. The Chinese Foreign Minister’s visit marked the:
a) 23rd round of Special Representatives’ Dialogue
b) 24th round of Special Representatives’ Dialogue
c) 25th round of Special Representatives’ Dialogue
d) 26th round of Special Representatives’ Dialogue
Show Answer
Answer: b) 24th round of Special Representatives’ Dialogue
147. The Chinese Foreign Minister co-chaired the dialogue with:
a) India’s External Affairs Minister
b) India’s Defense Minister
c) India’s National Security Advisor
d) India’s Home Minister
Show Answer
Answer: c) India’s National Security Advisor
148. The border management framework is based on which agreement?
a) 2003 Agreement on Trade and Commerce
b) 2005 Agreement on Political Parameters and Guiding Principles
c) 2008 Border Management Protocol
d) 2010 Strategic Partnership Agreement
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2005 Agreement on Political Parameters and Guiding Principles
149. The Working Mechanism for Consultation and Coordination (WMC(C) will establish:
a) Only an Expert Group
b) Only a Working Group
c) Both Expert Group and Working Group
d) A Joint Military Committee
Show Answer
Answer: c) Both Expert Group and Working Group
150. The High-Level Mechanism on People-to-People Exchanges is set to resume in:
a) 2025
b) 2026
c) 2027
d) 2028
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2026
151. India and China are commemorating how many years of diplomatic ties in 2025?
a) 70 years
b) 72 years
c) 75 years
d) 80 years
Show Answer
Answer: c) 75 years
152. The expansion of Kailash Mansarovar Yatra is planned from:
a) 2025
b) 2026
c) 2027
d) 2028
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2026
153. Which pass is NOT mentioned for reopening border trade?
a) Lipulekh Pass (Uttarakhan(d)
b) Shipki La Pass (Himachal Pradesh)
c) Nathu La Pass (Sikkim)
d) Jelep La Pass (Sikkim)
Show Answer
Answer: d) Jelep La Pass (Sikkim)
154. Hydrological data sharing between India and China will occur:
a) On a monthly basis
b) During emergencies
c) Annually during monsoon
d) On a quarterly basis
Show Answer
Answer: b) During emergencies
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