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December 2025 Current Affairs Quiz (With MCQ PDF)

Find the December 2025 Current Affairs Quiz with answers. Test your knowledge of the important events and developments that took place throughout the month. 

This Current Affairs Quiz of December Month 2025 features carefully selected multiple-choice questions covering topics like politics, economics, sports, science, and more. Whether you’re preparing for competitive exams or want to stay informed, this quiz offers a comprehensive review of December 2025 significant happenings. 

December 2025 Current Affairs Quiz

1. How many seismic zones were there in the earlier earthquake zonation map?

A) 3 zones
B) 4 zones
C) 5 zones
D) 6 zones

Show Answer

Answer: B) 4 zones


2. What is the newly introduced highest-risk zone in the revised earthquake zonation map?

A) Zone V
B) Zone VI
C) Zone VII
D) Zone VIII

Show Answer

Answer: B) Zone VI


3. What percentage of India’s land is now in moderate to high hazard zones?

A) 55%
B) 59%
C) 61%
D) 65%

Show Answer

Answer: C) 61%


4. What percentage of India’s population lives in seismically active regions?

A) 65%
B) 70%
C) 75%
D) 80%

Show Answer

Answer: C) 75%


5. Which organization operates the National Seismological Network?

A) IMD
B) NCS (National Center for Seismology)
C) NDMA
D) GSI

Show Answer

Answer: B) NCS (National Center for Seismology)


6. Under which category was India re-elected to the IMO Council?

A) Category A
B) Category B
C) Category C
D) Category D

Show Answer

Answer: B) Category B


7. What is the tenure period for India’s IMO Council membership?

A) 2025-26
B) 2026-27
C) 2027-28
D) 2028-29

Show Answer

Answer: B) 2026-27


8. How many total members does the IMO Council have?

A) 35
B) 40
C) 45
D) 50

Show Answer

Answer: B) 40


9. Where is the IMO headquarters located?

A) New York, USA
B) Geneva, Switzerland
C) London, United Kingdom
D) Paris, France

Show Answer

Answer: C) London, United Kingdom


10. When was the Inter-Governmental Maritime Consultative Organization (IMCO) formed?

A) 1946
B) 1948
C) 1950
D) 1952

Show Answer

Answer: B) 1948


11. When was IMCO renamed to IMO?

A) 1978
B) 1980
C) 1982
D) 1984

Show Answer

Answer: C) 1982


12. What is the target year for achieving net-zero GHG emissions from ships under IMO’s 2023 strategy?

A) 2040
B) 2045
C) 2050
D) 2060

Show Answer

Answer: C) 2050


13. What does NISAR stand for?

A) National-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar
B) NASA-India Synthetic Aperture Radar
C) NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar
D) New Indian Synthetic Aperture Radar

Show Answer

Answer: C) NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar


14. Which launch vehicle was used to launch NISAR?

A) PSLV
B) GSLV-F16
C) LVM3
D) SSLV

Show Answer

Answer: B) GSLV-F16


15. Which band SAR payload was provided by NASA?

A) C-band
B) X-band
C) L-band
D) S-band

Show Answer

Answer: C) L-band


16. Which band SAR payload was provided by ISRO?

A) C-band
B) X-band
C) L-band
D) S-band

Show Answer

Answer: D) S-band


17. What type of orbit does NISAR operate in?

A) Geostationary orbit
B) Sun-synchronous Polar Orbit
C) Medium Earth Orbit
D) Highly Elliptical Orbit

Show Answer

Answer: B) Sun-synchronous Polar Orbit


18. Which organization publishes the Asia Power Index?

A) World Economic Forum
B) Asian Development Bank
C) Lowy Institute, Australia
D) ASEAN Secretariat

Show Answer

Answer: C) Lowy Institute, Australia


19. What is India’s rank in the Asia Power Index 2025?

A) 1st
B) 2nd
C) 3rd
D) 4th

Show Answer

Answer: C) 3rd


20. How many countries and territories does the Asia Power Index cover?

A) 6
B) 7
C) 8
D) 9

Show Answer

Answer: C) 8


21. Across how many dimensions does the Asia Power Index assess countries?

a) 31%
b) 36%
c) 41%
d) 46%

Show Answer

Answer: c) 41%


22. Which country ranks first in the Asia Power Index 2025?

A) China
B) U.S.
C) Japan
D) India

Show Answer

Answer: B) U.S.


23. Which company manufactures the MH-60R helicopter?

A) Boeing
B) Lockheed Martin Corporation
C) Sikorsky
D) Bell Helicopter

Show Answer

Answer: B) Lockheed Martin Corporation


24. Which service operates the MH-60R helicopters in India?

A) Indian Air Force
B) Indian Army Aviation
C) Indian Navy
D) Coast Guard

Show Answer

Answer: C) Indian Navy


25. Which of the following is NOT a mission capability of MH-60R?

A) Anti-Submarine Warfare
B) Anti-Surface Warfare
C) Air-to-Air Combat
D) Search & Rescue Operations

Show Answer

Answer: C) Air-to-Air Combat


26. Which organization is implementing SoLAR Phase II along with SDC?

A) FAO
B) IWMI (International Water Management Institute)
C) World Bank
D) UNDP

Show Answer

Answer: B) IWMI (International Water Management Institute)


27. What was the duration of SoLAR Phase I?

A) 2017-2022
B) 2018-2023
C) 2019-2024
D) 2020-2025

Show Answer

Answer: C) 2019-2024


28. When is the first batch expected at IIT Nigeria campus?

A) 2025
B) 2026
C) 2027
D) 2028

Show Answer

Answer: B) 2026


29. Which IIT campus model will IIT Nigeria follow?

A) IIT Delhi-Abu Dhabi model
B) IIT Madras-Zanzibar model
C) IIT Bombay model
D) IIT Kharagpur model

Show Answer

Answer: B) IIT Madras-Zanzibar model


30. When was the IIT Madras-Zanzibar Campus established?

A) 2021
B) 2022
C) 2023
D) 2024

Show Answer

Answer: C) 2023


31. Where was the 11th session of ITPGRFA Governing Body held?

A) Santiago, Chile
B) Lima, Peru
C) Buenos Aires, Argentina
D) Quito, Ecuador

Show Answer

Answer: B) Lima, Peru


32. How many major food crops does the Multilateral System (MLS) cover?

A) 30
B) 33
C) 35
D) 38

Show Answer

Answer: C) 35


33. How many forage species are covered under the MLS?

A) 25
B) 27
C) 29
D) 31

Show Answer

Answer: C) 29


34. What percentage of global plant-based food consumption do the crops under MLS represent?

A) Nearly 70%
B) Nearly 75%
C) Nearly 80%
D) Nearly 85%

Show Answer

Answer: C) Nearly 80%


35. When was ITPGRFA adopted at the FAO Conference?

A) 1999
B) 2000
C) 2001
D) 2002

Show Answer

Answer: C) 2001


36. When did ITPGRFA come into enforcement?

A) 2002
B) 2003
C) 2004
D) 2005

Show Answer

Answer: C) 2004


37. How many countries are members of ITPGRFA (excluding the European Union)?

A) 148
B) 151
C) 154
D) 157

Show Answer

Answer: C) 154


38. What does SMTA stand for in the context of ITPGRFA?

A) Standard Material Trade Agreement
B) Standard Material Transfer Agreement
C) Special Material Transfer Accord
D) Systematic Material Transfer Agreement

Show Answer

Answer: B) Standard Material Transfer Agreement


39. Which of the following is another name for Artificial Narrow Intelligence?

A) Strong AI
B) Weak AI
C) Super AI
D) General AI

Show Answer

Answer: B) Weak AI


40. Which stage of AI is also referred to as Strong AI?

A) Artificial Narrow Intelligence
B) Artificial General Intelligence
C) Artificial Superintelligence
D) Artificial Limited Intelligence

Show Answer

Answer: B) Artificial General Intelligence


41. Which of the following is an example of Artificial Narrow Intelligence?

A) Human-like reasoning system
B) Virtual assistants like Siri and Alexa
C) General problem-solving AI
D) Creative thinking machines

Show Answer

Answer: B) Virtual assistants like Siri and Alexa


42. Which stage of AI remains a theoretical concept with ongoing ethical debates?

A) Artificial Narrow Intelligence
B) Artificial General Intelligence
C) Artificial Superintelligence
D) Artificial Limited Intelligence

Show Answer

Answer: C) Artificial Superintelligence


43. What is a key feature of Artificial General Intelligence?

A) Limited to specific tasks
B) Operates on pre-set rules only
C) Capable of generalizing knowledge across diverse situations
D) Cannot extend learning beyond defined domains

Show Answer

Answer: C) Capable of generalizing knowledge across diverse situations


44. How many communities did the Assam GoM propose for ST status?

A) Four
B) Five
C) Six
D) Seven

Show Answer

Answer: C) Six


45. What percentage of Assam’s total population do the six proposed communities constitute?

A) Nearly 23%
B) Nearly 25%
C) Nearly 27%
D) Nearly 29%

Show Answer

Answer: C) Nearly 27%


46. What is the reservation percentage for ST (Plains) in Assam currently?

A) 8%
B) 10%
C) 12%
D) 15%

Show Answer

Answer: B) 10%


47. What is the reservation percentage for ST (Hills) in Assam currently?

A) 3%
B) 5%
C) 7%
D) 10%

Show Answer

Answer: B) 5%


48. Which Article defines Scheduled Tribes as groups identified under Article 342?

A) Article 365(25)
B) Article 366(25)
C) Article 367(25)
D) Article 368(25)

Show Answer

Answer: B) Article 366(25)


49. Which committee recommended criteria for identifying Scheduled Tribes?

A) Mandal Committee
B) Lokur Committee (1965)
C) Kaka Kalelkar Committee
D) Backward Classes Commission

Show Answer

Answer: B) Lokur Committee (1965)


50. Which of the following is NOT one of the six communities proposed for ST status?

A) Tai Ahom
B) Tea Tribes/Adivasis
C) Bodo
D) Moran

Show Answer

Answer: C) Bodo


51. What is the proposed name for the new ST category in Assam?

A) ST (Valley)
B) ST (Lowlands)
C) ST (Central)
D) ST (Brahmaputra)

Show Answer

Answer: A) ST (Valley)


52. For which term period has India been re-elected to UNESCO Executive Board?

A) 2024-2028
B) 2025-2029
C) 2026-2030
D) 2027-2031

Show Answer

Answer: B) 2025-2029


53. Where is UNESCO headquarters located?

A) Geneva, Switzerland
B) Paris, France
C) New York, USA
D) Vienna, Austria

Show Answer

Answer: B) Paris, France


54. When was the UNESCO Constitution enforced?

A) November 1944
B) November 1945
C) November 1946
D) November 1947

Show Answer

Answer: C) November 1946


55. How many Member States does UNESCO have??

A) 190
B) 192
C) 194
D) 196

Show Answer

Answer: C) 194


56. How many Associate Members does UNESCO have?

A) 10
B) 12
C) 14
D) 16

Show Answer

Answer: B) 12


57. When was the Universal Copyright Convention adopted by UNESCO?

A) 1950
B) 1952
C) 1954
D) 1956

Show Answer

Answer: B) 1952


58. When was the Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme launched?

A) 1969
B) 1970
C) 1971
D) 1972

Show Answer

Answer: C) 1971


59. Where was the World Telecommunication Development Conference 2025 held?

A) Geneva, Switzerland
B) Baku, Azerbaijan
C) Dubai, UAE
D) Singapore

Show Answer

Answer: B) Baku, Azerbaijan


60. When was the International Telecommunication Union (ITU) established?

A) 1860
B) 1865
C) 1870
D) 1875

Show Answer

Answer: B) 1865


61. How much money did Indians collectively lose to digital arrest scams in the first quarter of 2024?

A) More than ₹80 crore
B) More than ₹100 crore
C) More than ₹120 crore
D) More than ₹150 crore

Show Answer

Answer: C) More than ₹120 crore


62. Under which Act was the CBI granted powers to examine bank officials’ involvement?

A) Banking Regulation Act, 1949
B) Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002
C) Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
D) IT Act, 2000

Show Answer

Answer: C) Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988


63. Which organization was set up by MHA as a nodal body to address cybercrimes?

A) Cyber Security Council
B) National Cyber Coordination Centre
C) Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C)
D) Digital Crime Prevention Bureau

Show Answer

Answer: C) Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C)


64. What is the name of the platform providing analytics on interstate cybercrime linkages?

A) CyberConnect
B) Samanvaya Platform
C) CrimeTracker
D) CyberLink

Show Answer

Answer: B) Samanvaya Platform


65. What is the name given to the five key pillars of NSFI 2025-30?

A) Panch-Tatva
B) Panch-Jyoti
C) Panch-Shakti
D) Panch-Drishti

Show Answer

Answer: B) Panch-Jyoti


66. How many actionable steps does NSFI 2025-30 include?

A) 42
B) 45
C) 47
D) 50

Show Answer

Answer: C) 47


67. What was India’s RBI Financial Inclusion Index in 2025?

A) 62
B) 65
C) 67
D) 70

Show Answer

Answer: C) 67


68. By what percentage has the FI-Index increased since 2021?

A) 20.3%
B) 22.3%
C) 24.3%
D) 26.3%

Show Answer

Answer: C) 24.3%


69. When was the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana launched?

A) 2012
B) 2013
C) 2014
D) 2015

Show Answer

Answer: C) 2014


70. How many bank accounts were opened under PMJDY?

A) Over 46 crore
B) Over 51 crore
C) Over 56 crore
D) Over 61 crore

Show Answer

Answer: C) Over 56 crore


71. How many long-term GLP-1 medicines are covered in the WHO guideline?

A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five

Show Answer

Answer: B) Three


72. Which of the following is NOT one of the three GLP-1 medicines mentioned?

A) Liraglutide
B) Semaglutide
C) Tirzepatide
D) Dulaglutide

Show Answer

Answer: D) Dulaglutide


73. At what BMI level are adults classified as obese?

A) 25 or above
B) 28 or above
C) 30 or above
D) 32 or above

Show Answer

Answer: C) 30 or above


74. How many people worldwide are affected by obesity?

A) Over 800 million
B) Over 1 billion
C) Over 1.2 billion
D) Over 1.5 billion

Show Answer

Answer: B) Over 1 billion


75. According to NFHS-5 (2019-21), what percentage of Indian women are classified as obese?

A) 22%
B) 24%
C) 26%
D) 28%

Show Answer

Answer: B) 24%


76. What was the record fertilizer consumption in 2024-25?

A) 658 LMT
B) 688 LMT
C) 708 LMT
D) 738 LMT

Show Answer

Answer: C) 708 LMT


77. What is the domestic Urea output?

A) 287 LMT
B) 297 LMT
C) 307 LMT
D) 317 LMT

Show Answer

Answer: C) 307 LMT


78. How many urea plants out of 33 are over 25 years old?

A) 23
B) 25
C) 27
D) 29

Show Answer

Answer: C) 27


79. How many urea plants have crossed 50 years of age?

A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8

Show Answer

Answer: C) 7


80. What is India’s dependency percentage for Phosphates?

A) 85%
B) 90%
C) 95%
D) 100%

Show Answer

Answer: C) 95%


81. What is India’s dependency percentage for Potash?

A) 95%
B) 98%
C) 100%
D) 100% with no alternatives

Show Answer

Answer: C) 100%


82. Since which year has World AIDS Day been observed on December 1?

A) 1990
B) 1992
C) 1994
D) 1996

Show Answer

Answer: B) 1992


83. How many people are living with HIV in India?

A) Over 1.5 million
B) Over 2.0 million
C) Over 2.5 million
D) Over 3.0 million

Show Answer

Answer: C) Over 2.5 million


84. What is India’s HIV prevalence rate?

A) 0.15%
B) 0.20%
C) 0.25%
D) 0.30%

Show Answer

Answer: B) 0.20%


85. By what percentage have new HIV infections reduced in India between 2010-2024?

A) 38.7%
B) 43.7%
C) 48.7%
D) 53.7%

Show Answer

Answer: C) 48.7%


86. By what percentage have AIDS-related deaths reduced in India between 2010-2024?

A) 71.4%
B) 76.4%
C) 81.4%
D) 86.4%

Show Answer

Answer: C) 81.4%


87. What are the revised targets under the 95-95-95 initiative (previously 90-90-90)?

A) 95% know status, 95% on ART, 95% achieve viral suppression
B) 95% diagnosed, 95% treated, 95% cured
C) 95% tested, 95% aware, 95% protected
D) 95% covered, 95% monitored, 95% tracked

Show Answer

Answer: A) 95% know status, 95% on ART, 95% achieve viral suppression


88. What is the maximum altitude capability of Heron Mark-II UAV?

A) Up to 30,000 feet
B) Up to 35,000 feet
C) Up to 40,000 feet
D) Up to 45,000 feet

Show Answer

Answer: B) Up to 35,000 feet


89. What is the maximum endurance of Heron Mark-II?

A) Up to 35 hours
B) Up to 40 hours
C) Up to 45 hours
D) Up to 50 hours

Show Answer

Answer: C) Up to 45 hours


90. When was Exercise Ekuverin launched?

A) 2007
B) 2009
C) 2011
D) 2013

Show Answer

Answer: B) 2009


91. By what percentage did average sales increase within three years of resolution under IBC?

A) 66%
B) 71%
C) 76%
D) 81%

Show Answer

Answer: C) 76%


92. Under which Act was the CBI granted powers to examine bank officials’ involvement?

A) ~40%
B) ~45%
C) ~50%
D) ~55%

Show Answer

Answer: C)~50%


93. From what range of days did loan account overdue periods fall under IBC?

A) From 218-314 days to 30-87 days
B) From 238-334 days to 30-87 days
C) From 248-344 days to 30-87 days
D) From 258-354 days to 30-87 days

Show Answer

Answer: C) From 248-344 days to 30-87 days


94. What is the name of the Integrated Technology Platform being fast-tracked for IBC?

A) iBIE
B) iPIE
C) iNSO
D) iBAR

Show Answer

Answer: B) iPIE


95. Which convention defines refugee rights and protections?

A) 1948 UN Refugee Convention
B) 1951 UN Refugee Convention
C) 1954 UN Refugee Convention
D) 1957 UN Refugee Convention

Show Answer

Answer: B) 1951 UN Refugee Convention


96. When was the Protocol to the UN Refugee Convention adopted?

A) 1965
B) 1967
C) 1969
D) 1971

Show Answer

Answer: B) 1967


97. Is India a signatory to the 1951 UN Refugee Convention?

A) Yes, signed in 1952
B) Yes, signed in 1955
C) No
D) Signed but not ratified

Show Answer

Answer: C) No


98. Which principle does India follow regarding refugees despite not being a signatory?

A) Asylum
B) Non-Refoulement
C) Safe Third Country
D) Dublin Regulation

Show Answer

Answer: B) Non-Refoulement


99. What is the markup range for many commonly used medicines according to the Parliamentary panel?

A) 300% to 1600%
B) 500% to 1800%
C) 700% to 2000%
D) 900% to 2200%

Show Answer

Answer: B) 500% to 1800%


100. Which order empowers NPPA to regulate and fix ceiling prices?

A) Drugs (Prices Control) Order (DPCO), 2013
B) Essential Medicines Order, 2012
C) Pharmaceutical Pricing Order, 2014
D) Medicine Regulation Act, 2013

Show Answer

Answer: A) Drugs (Prices Control) Order (DPCO), 2013


101. When was the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Policy introduced?

A) 2010
B) 2011
C) 2012
D) 2013

Show Answer

Answer: C) 2012


102. What is the maximum compensation that can be directed under RB-IOS for financial loss?

A) Up to ₹15 lakh
B) Up to ₹20 lakh
C) Up to ₹25 lakh
D) Up to ₹30 lakh

Show Answer

Answer: B) Up to ₹20 lakh


103. What additional compensation can be awarded under RB-IOS for mental distress?

A) Additional ₹50,000
B) Additional ₹75,000
C) Additional ₹1 lakh
D) Additional ₹1.5 lakh

Show Answer

Answer: C) Additional ₹1 lakh


104. How frequently is the SOLAW report published?

A) Annually
B) Biennially
C) Triennially
D) Every five years

Show Answer

Answer: B) Biennially


105. What was the record fertilizer consumption in 2024-25?

A) 40%
B) 45%
C) 50%
D) 55%

Show Answer

Answer: C) 50%


106. By 2050, how much more freshwater will agriculture need?

A) 20%
B) 25%
C) 30%
D) 35%

Show Answer

Answer: B) 25%


107. What percentage of human-induced land degradation occurs on agricultural lands?

A) Over 50%
B) Over 55%
C) Over 60%
D) Over 65%

Show Answer

Answer: C) Over 60%


108. What percentage of global freshwater withdrawals is agriculture responsible for?

A) More than 60%
B) More than 65%
C) More than 70%
D) More than 75%

Show Answer

Answer: C) More than 70%


109. What is the term for bioremediation using plants?

A) Microremediation
B) Phytoremediation
C) Mycoremediation
D) Biostimulation

Show Answer

Answer: B) Phytoremediation


110. What is the term for bioremediation using fungi?

A) Mycoremediation
B) Phytoremediation
C) Biomanipulation
D) Fungal remediation

Show Answer

Answer: A) Mycoremediation


111. What is the name of the oil-degrading bacteria used in India for oil spills?

A) Oilcleaner
B) Oilzapper
C) Biocrude
D) Petroeater

Show Answer

Answer: B) Oilzapper


112. Which type of bioremediation involves treatment at the contamination site?

A) Ex Situ Bioremediation
B) In Situ Bioremediation
C) Off-site Bioremediation
D) Remote Bioremediation

Show Answer

Answer: B) In Situ Bioremediation


113.How many banks are on RBI’s 2025 list of Domestic Systemically Important Banks?

A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five

Show Answer

Answer: B) Three


114. Which of the following is NOT in the 2025 D-SIB list?

A) State Bank of India
B) HDFC Bank
C) ICICI Bank
D) Punjab National Bank

Show Answer

Answer: D) Punjab National Bank


115. What does CET1 stand for in the context of D-SIBs?

A) Central Equity Tier-1
B) Common Equity Tier-1
C) Core Equity Tier-1
D) Capital Equity Tier-1

Show Answer

Answer: B) Common Equity Tier-1


116. When was Numaligarh Refinery Limited established?

A) 1991
B) 1992
C) 1993
D) 1994

Show Answer

Answer: C) 1993


117. What is the minimum composite score required for Navratna status?

A) 50 or above
B) 55 or above
C) 60 or above
D) 65 or above

Show Answer

Answer: C) 60 or above


118. When was the Biological Weapons Convention opened for signature?

A) 1970
B) 1972
C) 1974
D) 1975

Show Answer

Answer: B) 1972


119. When did the Biological Weapons Convention enter into force?

A) 1973
B) 1974
C) 1975
D) 1976

Show Answer

Answer: C) 1975


120. How many State Parties does the Biological Weapons Convention have?

A) 179
B) 184
C) 189
D) 194

Show Answer

Answer: C) 189


121. Approximately how many square kilometers of natural areas in India are invaded by at least one new IAS every year? 

A) 12,500 km²
B) 13,500 km²
C) 15,500 km²
D) 17,500 km²

Show Answer

Answer: C) 15,500 km²


122.How many major IAS are hosted by nearly two-thirds of India’s natural ecosystems?

A) 9
B) 11
C) 13
D) 15

Show Answer

Answer: B) 11


123. By 2022, how much area of tiger habitats had been affected by IAS?

A) Over 80,000 sq km
B) Over 90,000 sq km
C) Over 1 lakh sq km
D) Over 1.2 lakh sq km

Show Answer

Answer: C) Over 1 lakh sq km


124. What were India’s economic losses due to IAS between 1960-2020?

A) $117.3 billion
B) $127.3 billion
C) $137.3 billion
D) $147.3 billion

Show Answer

Answer: B) $127.3 billion


125. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a major IAS in India?

A) Lantana camara
B) Chromolaena odorata
C) Prosopis juliflora
D) Eucalyptus globulus

Show Answer

Answer: D) Eucalyptus globulus


126. At what altitude is stratospheric ozone located?

A) 5-30 km
B) 10-40 km
C) 15-50 km
D) 20-60 km

Show Answer

Answer: B) 10-40 km


127. What was the peak size of the Antarctic ozone hole in 2025?

A) Just over 19 million sq km
B) Just over 21 million sq km
C) Just over 23 million sq km
D) Just over 25 million sq km

Show Answer

Answer: B) Just over 21 million sq km


128. What was the record size of the Antarctic ozone hole in 2006?

A) 27 million sq km
B) 29 million sq km
C) 31 million sq km
D) 33 million sq km

Show Answer

Answer: B) 29 million sq km


129. When was the Vienna Convention on ozone protection adopted?

A) 1983
B) 1985
C) 1987
D) 1989

Show Answer

Answer: B) 1985


130. When was the Montreal Protocol adopted?

A) 1985
B) 1987
C) 1989
D) 1991

Show Answer

Answer: B) 1987


131. When was the Kigali Amendment adopted?

A) 2014
B) 2015
C) 2016
D) 2017

Show Answer

Answer: C) 2016


132. What percentage reduction in ODS production has been achieved compared to 1990 levels?

A) Over 95%
B) Over 98%
C) Over 99%
D) 100%

Show Answer

Answer: B) Over 98%


133. By what percentage did the INR depreciate in 2025?

A) Over 3%
B) Over 4%
C) Over 5%
D) Over 6%

Show Answer

Answer: C) Over 5%


134. What was India’s GDP growth rate mentioned in the context of INR depreciation?

A) 7.2%
B) 8.2%
C) 9.2%
D) 10.2%

Show Answer

Answer: B) 8.2%


135. What was India’s inflation rate mentioned?

A) ~0.5%
B) ~1%
C) ~1.5%
D) ~2%

Show Answer

Answer: B) ~1%


136. What percentage of crude does India import?

A) 80%
B) 85%
C) 90%
D) 95%

Show Answer

Answer: C) 90%


137. Up to what percentage were US tariffs on Indian exports mentioned?

A) Up to 30%
B) Up to 40%
C) Up to 50%
D) Up to 60%

Show Answer

Answer:C) Up to 50%


138. Which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita criminalizes dissemination of false information?

A) Section 351
B) Section 352
C) Section 353
D) Section 354

Show Answer

Answer:C) Section 353


139. Which section of the IT Act provides safe harbour to intermediaries?

A) Section 77
B) Section 79
C) Section 81
D) Section 83

Show Answer

Answer: B) Section 79


140. When was the Cable Television Networks (Regulation) Act enacted?

A) 1993
B) 1995
C) 1997
D) 1999

Show Answer

Answer: B) 1995


141. When was the National Statistical Commission formed?

A) 2003
B) 2005
C) 2007
D) 2009

Show Answer

Answer: B) 2005


142. Which commission recommended the formation of NSC?

A) Chakravarty Commission (1998)
B) Rangarajan Commission (2000)
C) Kelkar Commission (2002)
D) Vijay Kelkar Committee (2004)

Show Answer

Answer:B) Rangarajan Commission (2000)


143. How many part-time Members does the NSC have?

A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five

Show Answer

Answer: C) Four


144. What percentage of India’s economy is represented by the informal and unorganized sector?

A) Over 50%
B) Over 60%
C) Over 70%
D) Over 80%

Show Answer

Answer: B) Over 60%


145. What was India’s leprosy prevalence rate in 1981 (per 10,000 population)?

A) 47.2
B) 52.2
C) 57.2
D) 62.2

Show Answer

Answer: C) 57.2


146. What is India’s current leprosy prevalence rate in 2025 (per 10,000 population)?

A) 0.47
B) 0.57
C) 0.67
D) 0.77

Show Answer

Answer: B) 0.57


147. By what percentage has leprosy prevalence declined in India?

A) 97%
B) 98%
C) 99%
D) 100%

Show Answer

Answer: C) 99%


148. When did India achieve “National Elimination” of leprosy?

A) 2003
B) 2005
C) 2007
D) 2009

Show Answer

Answer: B) 2005


149.What is the timeframe for the National Strategic Plan & Roadmap for Leprosy?

A) 2021-2025
B) 2022-2026
C) 2023-2027
D) 2024-2028

Show Answer

Answer: C) 2023-2027


150. Which bacterium causes leprosy?

A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B) Mycobacterium leprae
C) Mycobacterium avium
D) Mycobacterium bovis

Show Answer

Answer: B) Mycobacterium leprae


151.By which year does the NITI Aayog-IBM roadmap aim to make India a top-3 quantum economy?

A) 2040
B) 2045
C) 2047
D) 2050

Show Answer

Answer:C) 2047


152.How many globally competitive quantum startups does the roadmap aim to develop by 2035?

A) At least 5
B) At least 8
C) At least 10
D) At least 15

Show Answer

Answer: C) At least 10


153. What is the target revenue for each quantum startup by 2035?

A) Surpass USD 50 million
B) Surpass USD 75 million
C) Surpass USD 100 million
D) Surpass USD 150 million

Show Answer

Answer: C) Surpass USD 100 million


154. Where does India rank globally in producing graduates in quantum-relevant disciplines?

A) 1st
B) 2nd
C) 3rd
D) 4th

Show Answer

Answer: B) 2nd


155. How many graduates does India produce annually in quantum-relevant disciplines?

A) ~71,000
B) ~81,000
C) ~91,000
D) ~101,000

Show Answer

Answer: C) ~91,000


156.Which state has operationalized the Quantum Research Park (QuRP)?

A) 5-30 km
B) 10-40 km
C) 15-50 km
D) 20-60 km

Show Answer

Answer: B) 10-40 km


157. Which state launched the Amaravati Quantum Valley (AQV)?

A) Karnataka
B) Telangana
C) Andhra Pradesh
D) Tamil Nadu

Show Answer

Answer:C) Andhra Pradesh


158. How many key pillars does quantum technology have according to the document?

A) Three
B) Four
C) Five
D) Six

Show Answer

Answer: B) Four


159.When was the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act enacted?

A) 2011
B) 2012
C) 2013
D) 2014

Show Answer

Answer:C) 2013


160.Under which section is the Inquiry Wing established?

A) Section 10
B) Section 11
C) Section 12
D) Section 13

Show Answer

Answer:C) Section 12


161. Under which section is the Prosecution Wing established?

A) Section 10
B) Section 11
C) Section 12
D) Section 13

Show Answer

Answer:C) Section 12


162. How many members can the Lokpal have, including the Chairperson?

A) Up to 7
B) Up to 8
C) Up to 9 (Chairperson + up to 8 Members)
D) Up to 10

Show Answer

Answer:C) Up to 9 (Chairperson + up to 8 Members)


163.What percentage of Lokpal members must be Judicial Members?

A) 40%
B) 50%
C) 60%
D) 70%

Show Answer

Answer: B) 50%


164. What is the tenure of Lokpal members?

A) 4 years or until age 65, whichever is earlier
B) 5 years or until age 70, whichever is earlier
C) 6 years or until age 75, whichever is earlier
D) 7 years or until age 80, whichever is earlier

Show Answer

Answer: B) 5 years or until age 70, whichever is earlier


165.Which institution prepared the State of Digital Public Infrastructure in India 2025 Report?

A) IIM Ahmedabad
B) IIM Bangalore
C) IIM Calcutta
D) IIM Lucknow

Show Answer

Answer:B) IIM Bangalore


166.Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a sector-specific DPI in India?

A) AgriStack for Agriculture
B) ULIP for Logistics
C) DIKSHA for Education
D) HealthStack for Healthcare

Show Answer

Answer: D) HealthStack for Healthcare


167. What does JAM Trinity stand for?

A) Justice-Aadhaar-Mobile
B) Jan Dhan-Aadhaar-Mobile
C) Jan Dhan-Agriculture-Manufacturing
D) Justice-Agriculture-Manufacturing

Show Answer

Answer:B) Jan Dhan-Aadhaar-Mobile


168.What is DigiYatra an example of?

A) Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI)
B) Digital Public Goods (DPG)
C) Digital Public Service (DPS)
D) Digital Public Platform (DPP)

Show Answer

Answer:B) Digital Public Goods (DPG)


169.Which department prepared India’s first CCUS R&D Roadmap?

A) Department of Atomic Energy
B) Department of Biotechnology
C) Department of Science & Technology (DST)
D) Department of Space

Show Answer

Answer: C) Department of Science & Technology (DST)


170. How many phases does the CCUS R&D Programme have?

A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five

Show Answer

Answer: B) Three


171.What does Phase 1 of the CCUS roadmap focus on?

A) CCUS-Compliant Design
B) CCUS-in-One-Pot Strategy
C) End-of-Pipe (EP) Integration
D) Direct Air Capture

Show Answer

Answer:C) End-of-Pipe (EP) Integration


172. What does CCD stand for in Phase 2 of the CCUS roadmap?

A) Carbon Capture Design
B) CCUS-Compliant Design
C) Carbon Control Development
D) Climate Change Design

Show Answer

AnswerB) CCUS-Compliant Design


173. What does COP stand for in Phase 3 of the CCUS roadmap?

A) Carbon Optimization Process
B) CCUS-in-One-Pot
C) Carbon Output Process
D) Climate Optimization Project

Show Answer

Answer:B) CCUS-in-One-Pot


174. What does BECCS stand for?

A) Bioenergy with Carbon Control and Storage
B) Bioenergy with Carbon Capture and Storage
C) Biomass Energy with Carbon Capture System
D) Biological Energy Carbon Capture Storage

Show Answer

Answer: B) Bioenergy with Carbon Capture and Storage


175. What does DACCS stand for?

A) Direct Atmospheric Carbon Capture System
B) Direct Air Carbon Control and Storage
C) Direct Air Carbon Capture and Storage
D) Dynamic Air Carbon Capture System

Show Answer

Answer: C) Direct Air Carbon Capture and Storage


176.What does DHRUVA stand for?

A) Digital Hub for Reference and Universal Virtual Address
B) Digital Hub for Reference and Unique Virtual Address
C) Digital Highway for Reference and Unique Virtual Address
D) Digital Hub for Regional and Unique Virtual Address

Show Answer

Answer:B) Digital Hub for Reference and Unique Virtual Address


177.Which department proposed the DHRUVA initiative?

A) Department of Telecommunications
B) Department of Posts
C) Department of IT
D) Ministry of Communications

Show Answer

Answer: B) Department of Posts


178. What is the foundational layer of DHRUVA called?

A) GEOPIN
B) DIGIPIN
C) LOCPIN
D) MAPPIN

Show Answer

Answer:B) DIGIPIN


179.When did the Mahad Satyagraha take place?

A) 20 March 1925
B) 20 March 1927
C) 20 March 1929
D) 20 March 1930

Show Answer

Answer: B) 20 March 1927


180. When did Dr. B.R. Ambedkar publicly burn Manusmriti?

A) 25 November 1927
B) 25 December 1927
C) 25 January 1928
D) 25 March 1928

Show Answer

Answer: B) 25 December 1927


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