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15 to 21 March 2026 (Weekly Current Affairs Quiz)

Practice the March 2026 Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the third week of March 2026. 

The Current Affairs Quiz of 15 to 21 March features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.

3rd Week of March 2026: Current Affairs Quiz

1. The Texas oil refinery project announced by Donald Trump will be developed by which company?

A) ExxonMobil
B) America First Refining (AFR)
C) Chevron Corporation
D) Valero Energy

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) America First Refining (AFR)


2. The Texas refinery will be built at which location in the United States?

A) Port of Houston, Texas
B) Port of Corpus Christi, Texas
C) Port of Brownsville, South Texas
D) Port of Galveston, Texas

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Port of Brownsville, South Texas


3. The Texas refinery will be the first major new oil refinery constructed in the United States since:

A) 1960
B) 1969
C) 1977
D) 1985

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 1977


4. The refinery will process light shale oil sourced from which major U.S. basin?

A) Bakken Basin
B) Appalachian Basin
C) Eagle Ford Basin
D) Permian Basin

Show Answer

Correct Answer: D) Permian Basin


5. The Permian Basin spans which two U.S. states?

A) Texas and Oklahoma
B) West Texas and Southeastern New Mexico
C) North Texas and Southern Colorado
D) Texas and Louisiana

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) West Texas and Southeastern New Mexico


6. Reliance Industries Limited signed what type of agreement with the Texas refinery project?

A) A 10-year joint venture agreement
B) A 20-year binding offtake agreement
C) A 15-year technology transfer agreement
D) A 5-year crude supply agreement

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) A 20-year binding offtake agreement


7. Light shale oil (LTO) is characterised by which of the following properties that make it easier to refine?

A) High sulphur content and low hydrogen-to-carbon ratio
B) High density and high viscosity
C) Low sulphur content and high hydrogen-to-carbon ratio
D) High wax content and low volatility

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Low sulphur content and high hydrogen-to-carbon ratio


8. Which Indian geological basins are identified as prospective areas for shale oil production?

A) Vindhyan Basin and Gondwana Basin
B) Cambay Basin and Krishna-Godavari Basin
C) Cauvery Basin and Mahanadi Basin
D) Assam-Arakan Basin and Kutch Basin

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Cambay Basin and Krishna-Godavari Basin


9. The International Solar Alliance was launched during which international event in 2015?

A) G20 Summit in Turkey
B) COP21 in Paris
C) UN General Assembly in New York
D) World Economic Forum in Davos

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) COP21 in Paris


10. The International Solar Alliance was jointly initiated by which two countries?

A) USA and Germany
B) India and China
C) India and France
D) UK and India

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) India and France


11. The ISA Secretariat is headquartered in:

A) New Delhi
B) Geneva
C) Gurugram, Haryana
D) Paris

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Gurugram, Haryana


12. How many member and signatory countries does the ISA currently have?

A) 75
B) 100
C) 125
D) 150

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 125


13. The apex decision-making body of the International Solar Alliance is called:

A) ISA Council
B) ISA General Assembly
C) ISA Assembly
D) ISA Executive Board

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) ISA Assembly


14. India’s cumulative installed solar power capacity as of the 10th Foundation Day of ISA is approximately:

A) 80 GW
B) 110 GW
C) 136 GW
D) 160 GW

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 136 GW


15. In 2025, India added over how much new solar capacity — its highest annual expansion?

A) 18 GW
B) 24 GW
C) 30 GW
D) 36 GW

Show Answer

Correct Answer: D) 36 GW


16. Under which national plan is the National Solar Mission a key component?

A) National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC)
B) National Development Agenda 2030
C) India Energy Security Scenarios
D) National Mission on Sustainable Habitat

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A) National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC)


17. Which scheme promotes solar-powered irrigation pumps for farmers?

A) PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana
B) PM-KUSUM Scheme
C) Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana
D) Solar Energy Corporation of India Scheme

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) PM-KUSUM Scheme


18. Asteroid 2024 YR4 belongs to which asteroid group?

A) Aten Asteroid Group
B) Amor Asteroid Group
C) Apollo Asteroid Group
D) Atira Asteroid Group

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Apollo Asteroid Group


19. Asteroid 2024 YR4 was discovered by which observatory?

A) Pan-STARRS Observatory, Hawaii
B) Catalina Sky Survey, Arizona
C) Asteroid Terrestrial-impact Last Alert System (ATLAS), Chile
D) Spacewatch Observatory, Kitt Peak

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Asteroid Terrestrial-impact Last Alert System (ATLAS), Chile


20. The estimated diameter of Asteroid 2024 YR4 is approximately:

A) 10–20 metres
B) 30–45 metres
C) 53–67 metres
D) 100–120 metres

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 53–67 metres


21. Asteroid 2024 YR4 is classified as an S-type asteroid, which means it is composed mainly of:

A) Carbon-rich minerals and organic compounds
B) Silicate minerals and nickel–iron metals
C) Ice and frozen gases
D) Metallic iron and nickel only

Show Answer

Correct Answer : B) Silicate minerals and nickel–iron metals


22. Near-Earth Asteroids (NEAs) are typically located within how many astronomical units of the Sun?

A) 0.5 AU
B) 1.0 AU
C) 1.3 AU
D) 2.0 AU

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 1.3 AU


23. Most Near-Earth Asteroids originate from which region of the solar system?

A) Kuiper Belt beyond Neptune
B) Oort Cloud at the solar system’s edge
C) Asteroid Belt between Mars and Jupiter
D) Trojan asteroids around Jupiter

Show Answer

Correct Answer : C) Asteroid Belt between Mars and Jupiter


24. The ATLAS asteroid detection system is funded by:

A) ESA
B) NASA
C) JAXA
D) Roscosmos

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) NASA


25. Updated observations that confirmed Asteroid 2024 YR4 will not collide with the Moon were made using which telescope?

A) Hubble Space Telescope
B) Chandra X-ray Observatory
C) James Webb Space Telescope (JWST)
D) Spitzer Space Telescope

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) James Webb Space Telescope (JWST)


26. The Supreme Court of India declined to entertain a PIL seeking mandatory menstrual leave primarily because:

A) Menstrual leave already exists under the Maternity Benefit Act
B) The court held it could unintentionally discourage employers from hiring women
C) The PIL was filed by an ineligible petitioner
D) The issue is already addressed under state labour laws

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) The court held it could unintentionally discourage employers from hiring women


27. Which Indian state introduced a two-day paid menstrual leave policy in 1992, one of the earliest in India?

A) Kerala
B) Tamil Nadu
C) Bihar
D) Maharashtra

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Bihar


28. In 2023, which state extended menstrual leave provisions to universities and educational institutions?

A) Karnataka
B) Goa
C) West Bengal
D) Kerala

Show Answer

Correct Answer: D) Kerala


29. The Supreme Court’s observation on menstrual leave suggested that such issues are better addressed through:

A) Judicial orders under Article 142
B) Constitutional amendments by Parliament
C) Policy consideration by the government rather than judicial intervention
D) International labour conventions ratified by India

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Policy consideration by the government rather than judicial intervention


30. The ISA initiative launched at its 10th Foundation Day to use AI for improving grid resilience and smart energy infrastructure is called:

A) Global Clean Energy Digital Platform
B) Global Mission on AI for Energy
C) AI-Powered Solar Grid Initiative
D) Smart Renewable Energy Network Mission

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Global Mission on AI for Energy

31. India is estimated to possess approximately how many manuscripts — the largest collection globally?

A) 10 lakh
B) 50 lakh
C) 1 crore (10 million)
D) 5 crore

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 1 crore (10 million)


32. The nationwide survey to document India’s manuscripts was launched by which ministry?

A) Ministry of Education
B) Ministry of Culture
C) Ministry of External Affairs
D) Ministry of Science and Technology

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Ministry of Culture


33. The national digital repository under which all manuscript data will be stored is part of:

A) Digital India Mission
B) Gyan Bharatam Mission
C) National Knowledge Network
D) Bharatmala Digital Heritage Project

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Gyan Bharatam Mission


34. The Gyan Bharatam Mission was announced in which Union Budget?

A) Union Budget 2023–24
B) Union Budget 2024–25
C) Union Budget 2025–26
D) Union Budget 2026–27

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Union Budget 2025–26


35. The Gyan Bharatam Mission builds upon which earlier initiative launched in 2003?

A) National Digital Library of India
B) National Mission for Manuscripts
C) Kriti Sampada Digital Archive
D) National Heritage Digitisation Programme

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) National Mission for Manuscripts


36. The existing digital platform ‘Kriti Sampada’ already documents over how many manuscripts?

A) 10 lakh
B) 25 lakh
C) 44.07 lakh
D) 75 lakh

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 44.07 lakh


37. The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026 was introduced in:

A) Rajya Sabha
B) Lok Sabha
C) Both Houses simultaneously
D) A Joint Parliamentary Committee

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Lok Sabha


38. The Amendment Bill proposes to remove which section of the 2019 Act that recognised self- perceived gender identity?

A) Section 2(k)
B) Section 4(2)
C) Section 7(1)
D) Section 12(3)

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Section 4(2)


39. Under the Amendment Bill, which authority will issue the transgender identity certificate?

A) Chief Medical Officer directly
B) National Council for Transgender Persons
C) District Magistrate based on Medical Board recommendation
D) State Social Welfare Department

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) District Magistrate based on Medical Board recommendation


40. Which of the following categories is REMOVED from the definition of transgender person under the Amendment Bill?

A) Hijra
B) Kinner
C) Trans-woman
D) Aravani

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Trans-woman


41. The Amendment Bill introduces life imprisonment as punishment for:

A) Discrimination in employment
B) Denial of education to transgender persons
C) Forced mutilation of minors
D) Eviction from household

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Forced mutilation of minors


42. The removal of the self-identification clause in the Amendment Bill contradicts which landmark Supreme Court judgment?

A) Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India (2018)
B) NALSA v. Union of India (2014)
C) Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017)
D) Naz Foundation v. Govt. of NCT of Delhi (2009)

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) NALSA v. Union of India (2014)


43. The atomic clock failure that weakened NavIC occurred on which satellite?

A) IRNSS-1A
B) IRNSS-1D
C) IRNSS-1F
D) IRNSS-1I

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) IRNSS-1F


44. Atomic clocks used in navigation satellites typically use which atoms for timekeeping?

A) Hydrogen and oxygen
B) Cesium or rubidium
C) Gold and platinum
D) Carbon and nitrogen

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Cesium or rubidium


45. NavIC’s development was initiated following which conflict, when India was denied access to foreign GPS?

A) 1962 Indo-China War
B) 1971 Bangladesh Liberation War
C) 1984 Siachen Conflict
D) 1999 Kargil War

Show Answer

Correct Answer: D) 1999 Kargil War


46. For reliable Positioning, Navigation, and Timing services, NavIC requires at least how many operational satellites?

A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Six

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Four


47. NavIC satellites are placed in which two types of orbits?

A) Low Earth Orbit and Medium Earth Orbit
B) Geostationary Orbit (GEO) and Geosynchronous Orbit (GSO)
C) Polar Orbit and Sun-synchronous Orbit
D) Highly Elliptical Orbit and Low Earth Orbit

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Geostationary Orbit (GEO) and Geosynchronous Orbit (GSO)


48. The first second-generation NavIC satellite (NVS-01) was launched in:

A) March 2022
B) November 2022
C) May 2023
D) January 2024

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) May 2023


49. The NVS series of NavIC satellites carries which type of indigenously developed atomic clock?

A) Cesium atomic clock
B) Hydrogen maser clock
C) Rubidium atomic clock
D) Optical lattice clock

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Rubidium atomic clock


50. Sujal Gaon ID is a digital initiative launched under which mission?

A) AMRUT 2.0
B) PM Gati Shakti
C) Jal Jeevan Mission 2.0
D) National Water Mission

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Jal Jeevan Mission 2.0


51. Approximately how many Sujal Gaon IDs have been generated across India?

A) 50,000
B) 1.64 lakh
C) 3.2 lakh
D) 5 lakh

Show Answer

Correct Answer : B) 1.64 lakh


52. Each Sujal Gaon ID is integrated with which complementary identifier to enable ‘source-to-tap’ tracking?

A) Jal Shakti Portal ID
B) Sujalam Bharat ID
C) FHTC Household ID
D) ReALCraft Portal ID

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Sujalam Bharat ID


53. Sujal Gaon ID has been implemented across how many States and Union Territories?

A) 20
B) 25
C) 31
D) 36

Show Answer

Correct Answer : C) 31


54. The B-1B Lancer bomber is nicknamed ‘Bone’ because the name derives from:

A) Its skeletal frame structure
B) Pronunciation of ‘B-One’
C) Its bone-white colour
D) Its designer’s surname

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Pronunciation of ‘B-One’


55. The B-1B Lancer’s variable-sweep wing design allows wings to adjust between which angles?

A) 5° to 45°
B) 10° to 55°
C) 15° to 67.5°
D) 20° to 75°

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 15° to 67.5°


56. The B-1B Lancer was originally designed for which type of mission?

A) Conventional precision strikes
B) Nuclear strike missions
C) Strategic airlifting of troops
D) Long-range maritime patrol

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Nuclear strike missions


57. The Sejjil missile is classified as which type of missile?

A) Short-Range Ballistic Missile
B) Intercontinental Ballistic Missile
C) Medium-Range Ballistic Missile
D) Cruise Missile

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Medium-Range Ballistic Missile


58. A key operational advantage of the Sejjil missile’s solid-fuel propellant is:

A) Higher payload than liquid-fuel missiles
B) Faster launch readiness and reduced preparation time
C) Greater range than other Iranian missiles
D) Ability to carry multiple warheads

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Faster launch readiness and reduced preparation time


59. Kharg Island is located approximately how far off the coast of Iran in the Persian Gulf?

A) 10 km
B) 30 km
C) 50 km
D) 100 km

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 50 km


60. Kharg Island handles approximately what percentage of Iran’s crude oil exports?

A) 50%
B) 70%
C) 80%
D) 90%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: D) 90%

61. COP30 was held in which city, earning it the nickname ‘Amazon COP’?

A) Bogotá
B) Manaus
C) Belém
D) Caracas

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Belém


62. The Tropical Forests Forever Facility (TFFF) is a global fund of how much that pays tropical
countries $4 per hectare annually?

A) $50 billion
B) $75 billion
C) $100 billion
D) $125 billion

Show Answer

Correct Answer: D) $125 billion


63. The Intergovernmental Land Tenure Commitment (ILTC) at COP30 aims to secure how many
hectares of land by 2030?

A) 60 million hectares
B) 100 million hectares
C) 160 million hectares
D) 250 million hectares

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 160 million hectares


64. REDD+ stands for Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation. The J-REDD+
Scaling Initiative targets how much annually by 2030?

A) $1–2 billion
B) $3–6 billion
C) $8–10 billion
D) $15–20 billion

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) $3–6 billion


65. The Baku-to-Belém Roadmap aims to mobilise how much annually in global climate finance by 2035?

A) $500 billion
B) $750 billion
C) $1 trillion
D) $1.3 trillion

Show Answer

Correct Answer: D) $1.3 trillion


66. Under the 15th Finance Commission, what percentage weightage was given to Forest & Ecology
in tax devolution to states?

A) 5%
B) 7.5%
C) 10%
D) 15%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 10%


67. The MISHTI Initiative aims to restore how many sq km of mangroves by 2028?

A) 200 sq km
B) 350 sq km
C) 540 sq km
D) 750 sq km

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 540 sq km


68. The Green India Mission targets creating a carbon sink of how many billion tonnes of CO2
equivalent?

A) 1.5 billion
B) 2.2 billion
C) 2.8 billion
D) 3.4 billion

Show Answer

Correct Answer: D) 3.4 billion


69. Ladakh became a Union Territory without a legislature in which year?

A) 2017
B) 2018
C) 2019
D) 2020

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 2019


70. One of Ladakh’s key demands is inclusion under which Schedule of the Constitution to protect tribal land and identity?

A) Fifth Schedule
B) Sixth Schedule
C) Seventh Schedule
D) Ninth Schedule

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Sixth Schedule


71. The four-point charter of Ladakh demands includes creation of two separate Lok Sabha constituencies. Which two?

A) Leh and Zanskar
B) Leh and Kargil
C) Leh and Drass
D) Kargil and Nubra

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Leh and Kargil


72. Climate activist Sonam Wangchuk was detained under which Act before his release triggered the Ladakh protests?

A) Public Safety Act
B) Unlawful Activities Prevention Act
C) National Security Act (NSA)
D) Armed Forces Special Powers Act

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) National Security Act (NSA)


73. Approximately what percentage of India’s LPG imports pass through the Strait of Hormuz?

A) 60%
B) 75%
C) 90%
D) 95%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 90%


74. India’s current LPG buffer stock covers approximately how many days of supply?

A) ~2 days
B) ~7 days
C) ~15 days
D) ~30 days

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A) ~2 days


75. India’s domestic LPG production meets approximately what percentage of its total demand?

A) ~20%
B) ~40%
C) ~60%
D) ~75%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) ~40%


76. India is the second-largest LPG consumer globally after which country?

A) USA
B) Russia
C) China
D) Japan

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) China


77. LPG connections in India grew from 150 million in 2015 to over 330 million today, primarily driven 0by which scheme?

A) PM Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana
B) Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY)
C) PAHAL (DBTL) Scheme
D) National LPG Expansion Programme

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY)


78. Bhutan’s Sustainable Development Fee (SDF) charges most foreign tourists approximately:

A) $25 per person per night
B) $50 per person per night
C) $100 per person per night
D) $200 per person per night

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) $100 per person per night


79. Bhutan’s ‘pay-to-protect’ model is based on which economic concept that prevents overuse of shared resources?

A) Law of Diminishing Returns
B) Tragedy of the Commons
C) Prisoner’s Dilemma
D) The Coase Theorem

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Tragedy of the Commons


80. Black carbon deposits from vehicle emissions in the Himalayas accelerate glacial melting by reducing which property of glaciers?

A) Density
B) Albedo
C) Viscosity
D) Permeability

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Albedo


81. The Samarth Incubation Programme was launched by which organisation?

A) Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI)
B) Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT)
C) Department of Telecommunications (DoT)
D) Software Technology Parks of India (STPI)

Show Answer

Correct Answer : B) Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT)


82. C-DOT (Centre for Development of Telematics) was established in which year?

A) 1975
B) 1980
C) 1984
D) 1991

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 1984


83. The Samarth Incubation Programme focuses on which sectors among others?

A) Textiles, handicrafts, and agritech
B) 5G/6G, Cybersecurity, AI, and Quantum Technologies
C) Space technology and defence manufacturing
D) Pharmaceuticals and medical devices

Show Answer

Correct Answer : B) 5G/6G, Cybersecurity, AI, and Quantum Technologies


84. The National Chambal Sanctuary was established in which year under Project Crocodile?

A) 1972–73
B) 1975–76
C) 1978–79
D) 1982–83

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 1978–79


85. The National Chambal Sanctuary spans across which three states?

A) Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Gujarat
B) Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh
C) Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, and Haryana
D) Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, and Bihar

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh


86. The National Chambal Sanctuary hosts approximately what percentage of the world’s wild gharial population?

A) 40%
B) 60%
C) 70%
D) 80%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: D) 80%


87. R. Vairamuthu has been selected for the 60th Jnanpith Award (2025). He is primarily known as a

A) Tamil novelist and short story writer
B) Tamil poet and lyricist
C) Tamil playwright and critic
D) Tamil journalist and essayist

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Tamil poet and lyricist


88. The first Jnanpith Award (1965) was given to G. Sankara Kurup for his contribution to which language?

A) Tamil
B) Telugu
C) Kannada
D) Malayalam

Show Answer

Correct Answer: D) Malayalam


89. The Jnanpith Award covers works in languages listed under which Schedule of the Constitution?

A) Sixth Schedule
B) Seventh Schedule
C) Eighth Schedule
D) Ninth Schedule

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Eighth Schedule


90. The Best Picture winner at the 98th Academy Awards (Oscars 2026) was:

A) The Brutalist
B) Conclave
C) One Battle After Another
D) Emilia Pérez

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) One Battle After Another


91. The Supreme Court ruled that all adoptive mothers are entitled to how many weeks of maternity leave?

A) 6 weeks
B) 8 weeks
C)12 weeks
D) 6 weeks

Show Answer

Correct Answer:: C) 12 weeks


92. The Supreme Court struck down which section of the Code on Social Security, 2020 as unconstitutional?

A) Section 45(2)
B) Section 52(1)
C) Section 60(4)
D) Section 73(3)

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Section 60(4)


93. The Supreme Court held the age-based restriction on maternity leave for adoptive mothers violated which two constitutional articles?

A) Article 19 and Article 32
B) Article 14 and Article 21
C) Article 15 and Article 16
D) Article 21 and Article 25

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Article 14 and Article 21


94. Under the Code on Social Security, 2020, how many weeks of maternity leave are provided for the first two children?

A)12 weeks
B) 18 weeks
C) 24 weeks
D) 26 weeks

Show Answer

Correct Answer:D) 26 weeks


95. A crèche facility is mandatory under the Code on Social Security, 2020 in establishments with how many employees?

A) 20 or more
B) 30 or more
C) 50 or more
D) 100 or more

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 50 or more


96. AB-PMJAY was launched in which year?

A) 2014
B) 2016
C) 2018
D) 2020

Show Answer

Correct Answer:C) 2018


97. The MISHTI Initiative aims to restore how many sq km of mangroves by 2028?

A) ₹1 lakh
B) ₹3 lakh
C) ₹5 lakh
D) ₹10 lakh

Show Answer

Correct Answer:C) ₹5 lakh


98. AB-PMJAY covers approximately how many families, targeting the bottom 40% of the population?

A) 5 crore
B) 8 crore
C) 12 crore
D) 20 crore

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 12 crore


99. AB-PMJAY was recently extended to provide universal coverage to citizens of which age group,irrespective of income?

A) 55+ years
B) 60+ years
C) 65+ years
D) 70+ years

Show Answer

Correct Answer: D) 70+ years


100. Under the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, how many ABHA IDs have been created so far?

A) 20+ crore
B) 50+ crore
C) 75+ crore
D) 86+ crore

Show Answer

Correct Answer: D) 86+ crore


101. A ‘Goldilocks economy’ is characterised by which combination?

A) High growth and high inflation
B) Steady growth and low stable inflation
C) Low growth and low inflation
D) High growth and zero inflation

Show Answer

Correct Answer:B) Steady growth and low stable inflation


102. Every $10 per barrel rise in crude oil prices raises India’s CPI inflation by approximately:

A) 10–15 basis points
B) 20–25 basis points
C) 30–40 basis points
D) 50–60 basis points

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 30–40 basis points


103.The government created which fund of ₹1 lakh crore to manage supply shocks from the West Asia conflict?

A) National Energy Resilience Fund
B) Economic Stabilisation Fund
C) Strategic Petroleum Emergency Reserve
D) Fiscal Contingency Buffer Fund

Show Answer

Correct Answer:B) Economic Stabilisation Fund


104. The Natural Gas (Supply Regulation) Order, 2026 ensures at least what percentage of gassupply to fertiliser plants?

A) 50%
B) 60%
C) 70%
D) 80%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 70%


105. To stabilise the rupee during the West Asia conflict, the RBI deployed approximately how much in forex reserves?

A) $4 billion
B) $8 billion
C) $12 billion
D) $20 billion

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) $12 billion


106. The Chennai–Vladivostok Eastern Maritime Corridor is being promoted as an alternative to reduce dependence on:

A) Suez Canal routes
B) Malacca Strait routes
C) West Asian supply routes via Hormuz
D) Cape of Good Hope routes

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) West Asian supply routes via Hormuz


107. The Employees’ Pension Scheme (EPS) was originally launched in which year?

A) 1985
B) 1991
C) 1995
D) 2000

Show Answer

Correct Answer:C) 1995


108. Under EPS, employer contribution is what percentage of wages (subject to ₹15,000 ceiling)?

A) 3.67%
B) 8.33%
C) 12%
D) 15%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) 8.33%


109. Under EPS 2026, the pension calculation is now based on which period’s average salary?

A) 12-month average
B) 36-month average
C) 48-month average
D) 60-month average

Show Answer

Correct Answer: D) 60-month average


110. The minimum monthly pension under EPS remains fixed at:

A) ₹500
B) ₹750
C) ₹1,000
D) ₹2,000

Show Answer

Correct Answer:C) ₹1,000


111. The Nagoya Protocol is a supplementary agreement to which international treaty?

A) UN Framework Convention on Climate Change
B) Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
C) Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species
D) Ramsar Convention on Wetlands

Show Answer

Correct Answer : : B) Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)


112. The Nagoya Protocol was adopted in which year and city?

A)2002, Johannesburg
B) 2008, Bonn
C) 2010, Nagoya
D) 2012, Rio de Janeiro

Show Answer

Correct Answer:C) 2010, Nagoya


113. India’s First National Report on the Nagoya Protocol revealed it has issued over 3,556internationally recognised Certificates of Compliance, accounting for over what percentage of the global total?

A) 30%
B) 45%
C) 60%
D) 75%

Show Answer

Correct Answer : C) 60%


114. India’s implementation of the Nagoya Protocol is backed by which domestic legislation?

A) Forest Conservation Act, 1980
B) Environment Protection Act, 1986
C) Biological Diversity Act, 2002
D) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Biological Diversity Act, 2002


115. India has established approximately how many Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) for decentralised governance?

A) 50,000
B) 1 lakh
C) 2.76 lakh
D) 5 lakh

Show Answer

Correct Answer:C) 2.76 lakh


116. Argentina’s withdrawal from WHO is governed by which international legal framework in the absence of an explicit exit clause?

A)UN Charter Article 100
B) Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties (Article 56)
C) International Court of Justice Statute
D) WHO Framework Convention Article 44

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties (Article 56)


117. The WHO Constitution came into force on which date, now celebrated as World Health Day?

A) 1 January 1946
B) 7 April 1948
C) 24 October 1950
D) 10 December 1952

Show Answer

Correct Answer:B) 7 April 1948


118. India falls under which WHO Regional Office?

A)Eastern Mediterranean Regional Office (EMRO)
B) Western Pacific Regional Office (WPRO)
C) South-East Asia Regional Office (SEARO)
D) African Regional Office (AFRO)

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) South-East Asia Regional Office (SEARO)


119. The Sahitya Akademi Awards cover works in 24 languages, which include the 22 Eighth Schedule languages plus:

A) Sanskrit and Pali
B) English and Rajasthani
C) English and Maithili
D) Sanskrit and English

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) English and Rajasthani


120. The Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) was established in 1986 under which Act?

A) Prevention of Illicit Traffic in Narcotic Drugs Act, 1988
B) Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985
C) Criminal Law Amendment Act, 1983
D) Customs Act, 1962

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985

121. The recommendation to include breakfast under PM POSHAN was made by which body?

A) NITI Aayog Task Force
B) Parliamentary Standing Committee on Education
C) National Nutrition Mission Advisory Board
D) Ministry of Education Expert Panel

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Parliamentary Standing Committee on Education


122. PM POSHAN currently provides one hot cooked meal to students from which classes?

A) Classes 1 to 5
B) Classes 1 to 8
C) Classes 1 to 10
D) Classes 1 to 12

Show Answer

Correct Answer:B) Classes 1 to 8


123. The cost-sharing pattern under PM POSHAN between Centre and States (general) is:

A) 50:50
B) 60:40
C) 70:30
D) 80:20

Show Answer

Correct Answer:B) 60:40


124. PM POSHAN covers approximately how many children across more than 11 lakh schools?

A) 5 crore
B) 8 crore
C) 11 crore
D) 15 crore

Show Answer

Correct Answer:C) 11 crore


125.At the upper primary level, PM POSHAN provides how many calories and grams of protein per meal?

A) 450 kcal and 12g protein
B) 550 kcal and 15g protein
C) 700 kcal and 20g protein
D) 800 kcal and 25g protein

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 700 kcal and 20g protein


126.According to the UNIGME Report 2025, how many under-5 deaths occurred globally in 2024?

A) 2.3 million
B) 3.5 million
C) 4.9 million
D) 6.2 million

Show Answer

Correct Answer:C) 4.9 million


127.Which region accounts for approximately 58% of global under-5 deaths according to UNIGME 2025?

A) South Asia
B) Southeast Asia
C) Sub-Saharan Africa
D) Latin America

Show Answer

Correct Answer:C) Sub-Saharan Africa


128. India’s Under-5 Mortality Rate (U5MR) declined from 127 (1990) to what figure in 2024?

A) 15
B) 20
C) 27
D) 35

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 27


129. Neonatal Mortality Rate (NMR) is defined as deaths within 28 days per how many live births?

A) 100 live births
B) 1,000 live births
C) 10,000 live births
D) 1,00,000 live births

Show Answer

Correct Answer:B) 1,000 live births


130. Which government initiative promotes Kangaroo Mother Care (KMC) for low-birth-weight infants?

A) MAA Programme
B) SAANS Initiative
C) Kangaroo Mother Care Programme
D) Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Kangaroo Mother Care Programme


131. The Supreme Court constituted a how-many-judge bench to re-examine the definition of ‘industry’ under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?

der the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?
A) 5-judge bench
B) 7-judge bench
C) 9-judge bench
D) 11-judge bench

Show Answer

Correct Answer:C) 9-judge bench


132. The landmark judgment that established the ‘Triple Test’ for defining ‘industry’ is:

A) Excel Wear v. Union of India (1979)
B) Bangalore Water Supply and Sewerage Board v. A. Rajappa (1978)
C) Workmen v. Management of Reptakos Brett & Co. (1992)
D) State of Bombay v. Hospital Mazdoor Sabha (1960)

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Bangalore Water Supply and Sewerage Board v. A. Rajappa (1978)


133.Under the ‘Triple Test’ for defining ‘industry’, which of the following is NOT a mandatory requirement?

A) Systematic activity
B) Employer–employee relationship
C) Profit motive
D) Production/distribution of goods or services

Show Answer

Correct Answer:C) Profit motive


134. The Industrial Relations Code, 2020 explicitly excludes which activities from the definition of ‘industry’?

A) Hospitals and educational institutions
B) Sovereign functions and domestic services
C) Clubs and charitable organisations
D) Agricultural cooperatives and trade unions

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Sovereign functions and domestic services


135. Piped Natural Gas (PNG) is primarily composed of which gas?

A) Propane (85–95%)
B) Butane (85–95%)
C) Methane (85–95%)
D) Ethane (85–95%)

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) Methane (85–95%)


136. Which safety advantage does PNG have over LPG in case of a leak?

A) PNG is odourless and undetectable
B) PNG is heavier than air and disperses along the ground safely
C) PNG is lighter than air and disperses quickly upward
D) PNG self-extinguishes faster than LPG

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) PNG is lighter than air and disperses quickly upward


137. The ‘One Nation, One Gas Grid’ vision (2014) was launched to:

A) Nationalise all private gas companies
B) Integrate regional gas networks and ensure equitable access
C) Build a single underground pipeline from Assam to Gujarat
D) Replace LPG with CNG in all households

Show Answer

Correct Answer:B) Integrate regional gas networks and ensure equitable access


138. Bharat Audyogik Vikas Yojna (BHAVYA) has a total outlay of:

A) ₹15,000 crore
B) ₹22,500 crore
C) ₹33,660 crore
D) ₹50,000 crore

Show Answer

Correct Answer:C) ₹33,660 crore


139. BHAVYA aims to develop how many plug-and-play industrial parks across India?

A) 50
B) 75
C) 100
D) 150

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C) 100


140. The institutional body responsible for implementing BHAVYA is:

A) NITI Aayog
B) National Industrial Corridor Development Corporation (NICDC)
C) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
D) Invest India

Show Answer

Correct Answer:B) National Industrial Corridor Development Corporation (NICDC)


141. The Cotton Corporation of India (CCI) was established in which year and functions under which ministry?

A) 1960, Ministry of Agriculture
B) 1970, Ministry of Textiles
C) 1975, Ministry of Commerce
D) 1982, Ministry of Industries

Show Answer

Correct Answer :B) 1970, Ministry of Textiles


142. The Small Hydro Power (SHP) Development Scheme targets installation of how much capacity by FY 2030–31?

A) 500 MW
B) 1,000 MW
C) 1,500 MW
D) 2,500 MW

Show Answer

Correct Answer:C) 1,500 MW


143. The Aravalli Hills extend approximately how many km from Delhi–Haryana to Gujarat?

A) 400 km
B) 500 km
C) 700 km
D) 900 km

Show Answer

Correct Answer : C) 700 km


144. The highest peak of the Aravalli range is Guru Shikhar at 1,722 m, located in:

A) Udaipur, Rajasthan
B) Mount Abu, Rajasthan
C) Pushkar, Rajasthan
D) Jaipur, Rajasthan

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Mount Abu, Rajasthan


145. Ras Laffan LNG Complex in Qatar processes gas from which field, the world’s largest non associated gas field?

A) South Pars Field
B) North Field
C) Rumaila Field
D) Ghawar Field

Show Answer

Correct Answer:B) North Field


146. The newly discovered particle Xi-cc-plus at the LHC is composed of:

A) Two up quarks and one down quark
B) Two strange quarks and one charm quark
C) Two charm quarks and one down quark
D) Three charm quarks

Show Answer

Correct Answer:C) Two charm quarks and one down quark


147. The Higgs boson was famously discovered at the LHC in which year?

A) 2008
B) 2010
C) 2012
D) 2015

Show Answer

Correct Answer:C) 2012


148. Exercise LAMITIYE–2026 is a joint military exercise between India and which country?

A) Maldives
B) Mauritius
C) Sri Lanka
D) Seychelles

Show Answer

Correct Answer: D) Seychelles


149. Exercise LAMITIYE–2026 aligns with India’s vision of SAGAR, which stands for:

A) Strategic Alliance for Growth and Regional Security
B) Security and Growth for All in the Region
C) South Asian Governance and Regional Resilience
D) Strategic Access for Growth and Resource

Show Answer

Correct Answer:B) Security and Growth for All in the Region


150. The Coconut Promotion Scheme announced in Union Budget 2026–27 is implemented by which nodal agency headquartered in Kochi?

A) National Horticulture Board
B) Coconut Development Board (CDB)
C) National Coconut Mission Authority
D) Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B) Coconut Development Board (CDB)


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