Practice the September 2025 2nd Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the second week of September 2025.
The Current Affairs Quiz of 8 to 14 September features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.
2nd Week of September 2025: Current Affairs Quiz
1. The Self-Respect Movement was launched in which year?
a) 1924
b) 1925
c) 1926
d) 1927
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1925
2. Who was the founder of the Self-Respect Movement?
a) Jyotirao Phule
b) B.R. Ambedkar
c) E.V. Ramasamy (Periyar)
d) W.P.A. Soundara Pandian
Show Answer
Answer: c) E.V. Ramasamy (Periyar)
3. What was the name of the Tamil weekly publication of the Self-Respect Movement?
a) Kudi Arasu
b) Namathu Kurikkol
c) Tiravitak Kalaka Lateiyam
d) Dravidar Kazhagam
Show Answer
Answer: a) Kudi Arasu
4. The first Self-Respect Provincial Conference was held in which year and place?
a) 1928, Chennai
b) 1929, Chengalpattu
c) 1930, Madras
d) 1931, Salem
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1929, Chengalpattu
5. Which of the following was NOT an objective of the Self-Respect Movement?
a) Eradication of caste hierarchy
b) Promotion of ritualism
c) Assertion of individual dignity
d) Promotion of critical thinking
Show Answer
Answer: b) Promotion of ritualism
6. Which organization released the “Air Quality and Climate Bulletin” in 2025?
a) World Health Organization
b) World Meteorological Organization
c) United Nations Environment Programme
d) International Climate Change Panel
Show Answer
Answer: b) World Meteorological Organization
7. WMO was established in which year?
a) 1948
b) 1950
c) 1952
d) 1955
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1950
8. Where is the headquarters of WMO located?
a) New York, USA
b) Paris, France
c) Geneva, Switzerland
d) Vienna, Austria
Show Answer
Answer: c) Geneva, Switzerland
9. PM2.5 levels have shown decline in which regions according to the bulletin?
a) South Asia and Africa
b) North America, Europe, and East Asia
c) Latin America and Middle East
d) Australia and Antarctica
Show Answer
Answer: b) North America, Europe, and East Asia
10. The winter fog issue highlighted in the bulletin particularly affects which region?
a) Western Ghats
b) Himalayas
c) Indo-Gangetic Plain
d) Deccan Plateau
Show Answer
Answer: c) Indo-Gangetic Plain
11. MARPOL VI regulations are related to:
a) Air pollution from industries
b) Reduced sulfur in marine fuels
c) Vehicle emission standards
d) Agricultural pollution
Show Answer
Answer: b) Reduced sulfur in marine fuels
12. Which type of aerosols cause warming by absorbing sunlight?
a) Sulfates
b) Bright aerosols
c) Dark aerosols (like black carbon)
d) Water vapor
Show Answer
Answer: c) Dark aerosols (like black carbon)
13. WMO’s flagship programme for monitoring air and climate is:
a) Global Weather Watch
b) Global Atmosphere Watch (GAW)
c) International Climate Monitoring
d) World Air Quality Programme
Show Answer
Answer: b) Global Atmosphere Watch (GAW)
14. Ground-level ozone is significant because it is:
a) Only an air pollutant
b) Only a greenhouse gas
c) Both an air pollutant and greenhouse gas
d) Neither pollutant nor greenhouse gas
Show Answer
Answer: c) Both an air pollutant and greenhouse gas
15. How many states and territories are members of WMO?
a) 185 States + 4 Territories
b) 187 States + 6 Territories
c) 190 States + 8 Territories
d) 195 States + 10 Territories
Show Answer
Answer: b) 187 States + 6 Territories
16. TPCR 2025 is a plan spanning how many years?
a) 10 years
b) 12 years
c) 15 years
d) 20 years
Show Answer
Answer: c) 15 years
17. Which ministry unveiled the TPCR 2025?
a) Ministry of External Affairs
b) Ministry of Defence
c) Ministry of Science and Technology
d) Ministry of Electronics and IT
Show Answer
Answer: b) Ministry of Defence
18. Previous editions of TPCR were released in:
a) 2010 & 2015
b) 2013 & 2018
c) 2012 & 2017
d) 2014 & 2019
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2013 & 2018
19. What does MALE/HALE RPA stand for?
a) Medium/High Altitude Long Endurance Remotely Piloted Aircraft
b) Multi/Heavy Altitude Low Endurance Remote Piloted Aircraft
c) Mobile/Helicopter Altitude Long Endurance Remotely Piloted Aircraft
d) Military/Heavy Altitude Low Endurance Remote Piloted Aircraft
Show Answer
Answer: a) Medium/High Altitude Long Endurance Remotely Piloted Aircraft
20. iDEX (Innovation for Defence Excellence) was launched in:
a) 2017
b) 2018
c) 2019
d) 2020
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2018
21. The copyright infringement lawsuit against Apple was filed by:
a) Software developers
b) Authors
c) Musicians
d) Artists
Show Answer
Answer: b) Authors
22. Which country granted a patent with AI tool DABUS as inventor?
a) India
b) United States
c) South Africa
d) United Kingdom
Show Answer
Answer: c) South Africa
23. According to India’s Copyright Act, 1957, who can be recognized as author of computer-generated work?
a) The AI system
b) The computer
c) Human author behind the work
d) The software company
Show Answer
Answer: c) Human author behind the work
24. Which countries allow copyright protection for computer-generated works without human creator?
a) India and USA
b) UK and New Zealand
c) Germany and France
d) Japan and South Korea
Show Answer
Answer: b) UK and New Zealand
25. The Parliamentary Standing Committee in India recommended:
a) Banning AI-generated works
b) A separate category for AI-based inventions
c) Complete deregulation of AI
d) Only human-created works protection
Show Answer
Answer: b) A separate category for AI-based inventions
26. The Angikaar 2025 campaign was launched under which scheme?
a) PMAY-Rural
b) PMAY-Urban 2.0
c) Digital India
d) Smart Cities Mission
Show Answer
Answer: b) PMAY-Urban 2.0
27. What is the new per-transaction limit for UPI Person-to-Merchant (P2M) transactions?
a) ₹2 lakh
b) ₹3 lakh
c) ₹5 lakh
d) ₹10 lakh
Show Answer
Answer: c) ₹5 lakh
28. UPI was launched in which year?
a) 2014
b) 2015
c) 2016
d) 2017
Show Answer
Answer: c) 2016
29. SWIFT was founded in which year?
a) 1971
b) 1973
c) 1975
d) 1977
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1973
30. How many banks from how many countries originally founded SWIFT?
a) 200 banks from 12 countries
b) 239 banks from 15 countries
c) 250 banks from 18 countries
d) 300 banks from 20 countries
Show Answer
Answer: b) 239 banks from 15 countries
31. What is the standard used for judicial recusal in Indian law?
a) Clear evidence of bias
b) Reasonable likelihood of bias
c) Actual bias proven
d) Financial interest only
Show Answer
Answer: b) Reasonable likelihood of bias
32. Which case established that even “reasonable apprehension of bias” warrants recusal?
a) State of WB v. Shivananda Pathak (1998)
b) SC Advocates-on-Record Assn. v. UoI (2015)
c) Ranjit Thakur v. Union of India (1987)
d) R v. Gough
Show Answer
Answer: c) Ranjit Thakur v. Union of India (1987)
33. In the UK, which test is adopted for judicial recusal?
a) Reasonable likelihood test
b) Real danger test
c) Clear bias test
d) Financial interest test
Show Answer
Answer: b) Real danger test
34. Under the latest 2025 decision, how many boreholes are allowed per 10 sq km for mineral exploration?
a) 25 boreholes
b) 50-60 boreholes
c) 62-80 boreholes
d) 100 boreholes
Show Answer
Answer: c) 62-80 boreholes
35. What is the maximum diameter allowed for boreholes in the new exemptions?
a) 4 inches
b) 5 inches
c) 6 inches
d) 8 inches
Show Answer
Answer: c) 6 inches
36. During which hours is drilling permitted to avoid peak wildlife activity?
a) 8 a.m. to 6 p.m.
b) 9 a.m. to 5:30 p.m.
c) 7 a.m. to 7 p.m.
d) 10 a.m. to 4 p.m.
Show Answer
Answer: b) 9 a.m. to 5:30 p.m.
37. What is the total budget allocated for the Critical Mineral Recycling Incentive Scheme?
a) ₹1,000 crore
b) ₹1,200 crore
c) ₹1,500 crore
d) ₹2,000 crore
Show Answer
Answer: c) ₹1,500 crore
38. How many critical minerals have been identified in India’s list?
a) 25
b) 30
c) 35
d) 40
Show Answer
Answer: b) 30
39. What percentage of global rare earth refining does China control?
a) 60-70%
b) 70-80%
c) 85-90%
d) 95-98%
Show Answer
Answer: c) 85-90%
40. What is the Capex subsidy percentage provided under the recycling scheme?
a) 15%
b) 20%
c) 25%
d) 30%
Show Answer
Answer: b) 20%
41. What is the current renewable energy contribution to Total Primary Energy Supply (TPES) across HKH countries?
a) 4.5%
b) 6.1%
c) 8.2%
d) 10.3%
Show Answer
Answer: b) 6.1%
42. How much of the total hydropower potential in the HKH region has been exploited?
a) 35%
b) 42%
c) 49%
d) 55%
Show Answer
Answer: c) 49%
43. What is the total hydropower potential of the HKH region?
a) 750 GW
b) 820 GW
c) 882 GW
d) 950 GW
Show Answer
Answer: c) 882 GW
44. Which countries in the HKH region generate nearly 100% electricity from renewables?
a) India and China
b) Nepal and Pakistan
c) Bhutan and Nepal
d) Afghanistan and Myanmar
Show Answer
Answer: c) Bhutan and Nepal
45. How many villages were submerged in Punjab’s recent floods?
a) 1,650
b) 1,782
c) 1,902
d) 2,150
Show Answer
Answer: c) 1,902
46. What is India’s total flood-prone area?
a) 35 million hectares
b) Over 40 million hectares
c) 45 million hectares
d) 50 million hectares
Show Answer
Answer: b) Over 40 million hectares
47. Which dam on the Ravi river is managed by Punjab?
a) Bhakra Dam
b) Pong Dam
c) Thein (Ranjit Sagar) Dam
d) Madhopur Barrage
Show Answer
Answer: c) Thein (Ranjit Sagar) Dam
48. What was the budget allocated for the Urban Flood Risk Management Program (UFRMP) in 2021?
a) ₹2,000 crore
b) ₹2,500 crore
c) ₹3,000 crore
d) ₹3,500 crore
Show Answer
Answer: b) ₹2,500 crore
49. How many nuclear reactors are currently operational in India?
a) 20
b) 22
c) 24
d) 26
Show Answer
Answer: b) 22
50. What is India’s target nuclear capacity by 2047?
a) 75 GW
b) 80 GW
c) 100 GW
d) 120 GW
Show Answer
Answer: c) 100 GW
51. How much has been allocated for indigenous SMRs by 2033 under the Nuclear Energy Mission?
a) ₹15,000 crore
b) ₹18,000 crore
c) ₹20,000 crore
d) ₹25,000 crore
Show Answer
Answer: c) ₹20,000 crore
52. Which reactor technology does India have domestic expertise in?
a) Light Water Reactors (LWRs)
b) Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs)
c) Fast Breeder Reactors (FBRs)
d) Small Modular Reactors (SMRs)
Show Answer
Answer: b) Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs)
53. What is the planned range capability for stealth drones under TPCR-2025?
a) Up to 1,200 km
b) Up to 1,500 km
c) Up to 1,800 km
d) Up to 2,000 km
Show Answer
Answer: b) Up to 1,500 km
54. What is the planned altitude capability for stealth drones?
a) 50,000 ft
b) 55,000 ft
c) 60,000 ft
d) 65,000 ft
Show Answer
Answer: c) 60,000 ft
55. What is the maximum radius for electronic denial zones in counter-drone measures?
a) 10 km
b) 12 km
c) 15 km
d) 20 km
Show Answer
Answer: c) 15 km
56. In which year was the Department of Defense originally established as the Department of War?
a) 1787
b) 1789
c) 1791
d) 1793
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1789
57. Who created the National Military Establishment (NME) in 1947?
a) President Franklin D. Roosevelt
b) President Harry Truman
c) President Dwight Eisenhower
d) President John Kennedy
Show Answer
Answer: b) President Harry Truman
58. In which year was the National Military Establishment renamed to Department of Defense?
a) 1947
b) 1948
c) 1949
d) 1950
Show Answer
Answer: c) 1949
59. How many personnel are typically involved in Z-plus security for the Vice-President?
a) Around 35
b) Around 40
c) Around 50
d) Around 60
Show Answer
Answer: c) Around 50
60. Under which Act are the security guidelines for the President, Vice-President, and Prime Minister issued?
a) Central Reserve Police Force Act, 1949
b) Special Protection Group (SPG) Act, 1988
c) Delhi Police Act, 1978
d) National Security Act, 1980
Show Answer
Answer: b) Special Protection Group (SPG) Act, 1988
61. What is the success rate of Russia’s mRNA vaccine “Enteromix” in preclinical trials?
a) 85%
b) 90%
c) 95%
d) 100%
Show Answer
Answer: d) 100%
62. Which type of cancer is “Enteromix” initially focusing on?
a) Lung cancer
b) Breast cancer
c) Colorectal cancer
d) Brain cancer
Show Answer
Answer: c) Colorectal cancer
63. What makes “Enteromix” a personalized medicine?
a) It’s administered at different times for each patient
b) Each vaccine dose is tailored to a patient’s tumor profile through mutation mapping
c) It uses different mRNA strands for men and women
d) The dosage varies based on patient weight
Show Answer
Answer: b) Each vaccine dose is tailored to a patient’s tumor profile through mutation mapping
64. What is a major storage challenge of mRNA vaccines?
a) They require high humidity conditions
b) They need to be stored in darkness
c) They require ultra-cold conditions
d) They cannot be stored for more than 24 hours
Show Answer
Answer: c) They require ultra-cold conditions
65. According to the CII-KPMG report (2025), India’s space economy is projected to grow from USD 8.4 billion (2022) to what amount by 2033?
a) USD 35 billion
b) USD 40 billion
c) USD 44 billion
d) USD 50 billion
Show Answer
Answer: c) USD 44 billion
66. India’s global share in the space economy is expected to rise from 2% to what percentage?
a) 6%
b) 8%
c) 10%
d) 12%
Show Answer
Answer: b) 8%
67. Approximately how many space startups are driving innovation in India’s space sector?
a) 150
b) 200
c) 250
d) 300
Show Answer
Answer: b) 200
68. What is the amount of venture capital fund allocated for space startups in India?
a) ₹500 crore
b) ₹750 crore
c) ₹1,000 crore
d) ₹1,250 crore
Show Answer
Answer: c) ₹1,000 crore
69. What percentage of FDI is allowed in India’s space sector?
a) 75%
b) 85%
c) 95%
d) 100%
Show Answer
Answer: d) 100%
70. In which year did the US impose 50% tariffs on Brazil and India according to the document?
a) 2024
b) 2025
c) 2026
d) 2027
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2025
71. Which policy is mentioned as part of India’s strategy to diversify supply chain hubs?
a) Look West Policy
b) Act East Policy
c) Connect Central Asia Policy
d) Neighborhood First Policy
Show Answer
Answer: b) Act East Policy
72. What does CBAM stand for in the context of trade challenges?
a) Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism
b) Carbon Border Adjustment Tax
c) Climate Border Assessment Method
d) Carbon Boundary Assessment Tax
Show Answer
Answer: b) Carbon Border Adjustment Tax
73. Israel becomes the first country from which organization to sign a BIT with India under its Model BIT 2015?
a) EU
b) OECD
c) NATO
d) G7
Show Answer
Answer: b) OECD
74. When was the earlier India-Israel BIT terminated?
a) 2015
b) 2016
c) 2017
d) 2018
Show Answer
Answer: c) 2017
75. What is the current bilateral investment flow between India and Israel?
a) USD 600 million
b) USD 700 million
c) USD 800 million
d) USD 900 million
Show Answer
Answer: c) USD 800 million
76. What was the bilateral trade (excluding defense) between India and Israel in FY 2023-24?
a) USD 5.53 billion
b) USD 6.53 billion
c) USD 7.53 billion
d) USD 8.53 billion
Show Answer
Answer: b) USD 6.53 billion
77. Which countries form the I2U2 grouping?
a) India, Israel, UAE, UK
b) India, Israel, USA, Ukraine
c) India, Israel, UAE, US
d) India, Italy, UAE, US
Show Answer
Answer: c) India, Israel, UAE, US
78. How many digits does an Aadhaar number contain?
a) 10
b) 11
c) 12
d) 13
Show Answer
Answer: c) 12
79. Which authority issues Aadhaar numbers?
a) NITI Aayog
b) UIDAI
c) RBI
d) SEBI
Show Answer
Answer: b) UIDAI
80. According to Supreme Court guidelines, Aadhaar-related metadata cannot be stored beyond how many months?
a) 3 months
b) 6 months
c) 9 months
d) 12 months
Show Answer
Answer: b) 6 months
81. Which Supreme Court judgment upheld the constitutional validity of Aadhaar in 2018?
a) Justice K.S. Puttaswamy
b) Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
c) Justice N.V. Ramana
d) Justice S.A. Bobde
Show Answer
Answer: a) Justice K.S. Puttaswamy
82. How many States/UTs have achieved full functional literacy under ULLAS according to the document?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
Show Answer
Answer: b) 5
83. Which state recently became the fifth to achieve full functional literacy under ULLAS?
a) Punjab
b) Haryana
c) Himachal Pradesh
d) Uttarakhand
Show Answer
Answer: c) Himachal Pradesh
84. What is the full form of ULLAS?
a) Universal Lifelong Learning for All Societies
b) Understanding of Lifelong Learning for All in Society
c) Unified Lifelong Learning and Skill System
d) Universal Literacy and Learning Advancement Scheme
Show Answer
Answer: b) Understanding of Lifelong Learning for All in Society
85. What is the duration of the ULLAS program?
a) 2021-2026
b) 2022-2027
c) 2023-2028
d) 2024-2029
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2022-2027
86. What is the target age group for ULLAS?
a) Adults aged 12 years and above
b) Adults aged 15 years and above
c) Adults aged 18 years and above
d) Adults aged 21 years and above
Show Answer
Answer: b) Adults aged 15 years and above
87. In which year was the Universal Postal Union established?
a) 1872
b) 1874
c) 1876
d) 1878
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1874
88. Where is the headquarters of the Universal Postal Union located?
a) Geneva, Switzerland
b) Berne, Switzerland
c) Vienna, Austria
d) Brussels, Belgium
Show Answer
Answer: b) Berne, Switzerland
89. How many countries are members of the Universal Postal Union?
a) 190
b) 191
c) 192
d) 193
Show Answer
Answer: c) 192
90. Which is the oldest international organization mentioned in the document?
a) UPU (1874)
b) ITU (1865)
c) UN (1945)
d) WTO (1995)
Show Answer
Answer: b) ITU (1865)
91. C.P. Radhakrishnan was elected as which number Vice-President of India?
a) 13th
b) 14th
c) 15th
d) 16th
Show Answer
Answer: c) 15th
92. On which date was C.P. Radhakrishnan elected as Vice-President?
a) September 9, 2025
b) September 10, 2025
c) September 11, 2025
d) September 12, 2025
Show Answer
Answer: b) September 10, 2025
93. According to Article 64, the Vice-President serves as the Chairman of which house?
a) Lok Sabha
b) Rajya Sabha
c) Legislative Assembly
d) Legislative Council
Show Answer
Answer: b) Rajya Sabha
94. What is the minimum deposit required for Vice-President nomination?
a) ₹10,000
b) ₹12,500
c) ₹15,000
d) ₹20,000
Show Answer
Answer: c) ₹15,000
95. How many proposers and seconders are required for Vice-President nomination?
a) 15 each
b) 20 each
c) 25 each
d) 30 each
Show Answer
Answer: b) 20 each
96. What percentage of children under 5 are overweight according to UNICEF’s 2025 report?
a) 3%
b) 4%
c) 5%
d) 6%
Show Answer
Answer: c) 5%
97. What percentage of children/adolescents (5-19 years) are overweight in 2025?
a) 15%
b) 18%
c) 20%
d) 22%
Show Answer
Answer: c) 20%
98. What is the obesity prevalence rate in 2025 according to the report?
a) 8.4%
b) 9.2%
c) 9.4%
d) 10.1%
Show Answer
Answer: c) 9.4%
99. In South Asia, overweight in 5-19 years increased by how many times since 2000?
a) 3x
b) 4x
c) 5x
d) 6x
Show Answer
Answer: c) 5x
100. What percentage of countries have mandatory front-of-pack labeling?
a) 5%
b) 7%
c) 9%
d) 11%
Show Answer
Answer: b) 7%
101. What was the primary reason for Nepal’s PM resignation?
a) Economic crisis
b) Gen Z protests
c) International pressure
d) Health issues
Show Answer
Answer: b) Gen Z protests
102. How many social media platforms did Nepal’s government ban during the crisis?
a) 20
b) 24
c) 26
d) 30
Show Answer
Answer: c) 26
103. Which committee reviewed Nepal’s situation from India’s perspective?
a) National Security Council
b) Cabinet Committee on Security
c) External Affairs Committee
d) Border Management Committee
Show Answer
Answer: b) Cabinet Committee on Security
104. Which organization is the nodal agency for GNIP?
a) Ministry of Environment
b) NITI Aayog
c) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
d) ANIIDCO
Show Answer
Answer: b) NITI Aayog
105. How much forest area (in sq km) is being diverted for GNIP?
a) 120.50 sq km
b) 125.75 sq km
c) 130.75 sq km
d) 135.50 sq km
Show Answer
Answer: c) 130.75 sq km
106. What percentage of the project area is reserved for green development?
a) 40%
b) 45%
c) 50%
d) 55%
Show Answer
Answer: c) 50%
107. At which bay is the International Container Transshipment Terminal planned?
a) Campbell Bay
b) Galathea Bay
c) Trinket Bay
d) Camorta Bay
Show Answer
Answer: b) Galathea Bay
108. Which endangered species nests at Galathea Bay?
a) Green Turtle
b) Hawksbill Turtle
c) Leatherback Turtle
d) Olive Ridley Turtle
Show Answer
Answer: c) Leatherback Turtle
109. Which tribal group mentioned in GNIP is a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG)?
a) Nicobarese
b) Shompens
c) Great Andamanese
d) Jarawas
Show Answer
Answer: b) Shompens
110. How many cities were assessed under Swachh Vayu Sarveshan 2025?
a) 120
b) 125
c) 130
d) 135
Show Answer
Answer: c) 130
111. Which city won the first position in Category 1 (>10 lakh population)?
a) Agra
b) Surat
c) Jabalpur
d) Indore
Show Answer
Answer: d) Indore
112. Which cities shared the third position in Category 1?
a) Indore & Jabalpur
b) Agra & Surat
c) Jabalpur & Agra
d) Surat & Indore
Show Answer
Answer: b) Agra & Surat
113. In Category 3 (<3 lakh population), which city won first place?
a) Parwanoo
b) Angul
c) Dewas
d) Alwar
Show Answer
Answer: c) Dewas
114. What is the target PM10 reduction under NCAP by 2025-26?
a) 30%
b) 35%
c) 40%
d) 45%
Show Answer
Answer: c) 40%
115. What is the National Ambient Air Quality Standard for PM10 (in μg/m3)?
a) 50
b) 60
c) 70
d) 80
Show Answer
Answer: b) 60
116. UKIIFB is a collaborative initiative between NITI Aayog and which UK entity?
a) UK Government
b) Bank of England
c) City of London
d) London Stock Exchange
Show Answer
Answer: c) City of London
117. Which anniversary did UKIIFB mark recently?
a) First anniversary
b) Second anniversary
c) Third anniversary
d) Fifth anniversary
Show Answer
Answer: a) First anniversary
118. CLAMP study was conducted on fossil leaves from which Indian state?
a) Manipur
b) Mizoram
c) Nagaland
d) Tripura
Show Answer
Answer: c) Nagaland
119. What does CLAMP primarily analyze to reconstruct paleoclimate?
a) Tree rings
b) Fossil leaves
c) Sediment cores
d) Ice cores
Show Answer
Answer: b) Fossil leaves
120. CLAMP revealed how which region’s climatic shifts influenced the Indian Monsoon?
a) Arctic
b) Antarctica
c) Siberia
d) Greenland
Show Answer
Answer: b) Antarctica
121. When was the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana originally launched?
a) 10 September 2019
b) 10 September 2020
c) 10 September 2021
d) 10 September 2022
Show Answer
Answer: b) 10 September 2020
122. What is India’s current ranking in global fish production?
a) 1st largest
b) 2nd largest
c) 3rd largest
d) 4th largest
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2nd largest
123. How much does India contribute to world fish production?
a) ~6%
b) ~7%
c) ~8%
d) ~9%
Show Answer
Answer: c) ~8%
124. How many livelihoods were created under PMMSY from 2020-25?
a) 50 lakh
b) 55 lakh
c) 58 lakh
d) 60 lakh
Show Answer
Answer: c) 58 lakh
125. What percentage of financial assistance is provided for women-oriented projects under PMMSY?
a) Up to 50%
b) Up to 55%
c) Up to 60%
d) Up to 65%
Show Answer
Answer: c) Up to 60%
126. How many Climate Resilient Coastal Fishermen Villages (CRCFV) are being developed?
a) 75
b) 100
c) 125
d) 150
Show Answer
Answer: b) 100
127. What was the global military spending in 2024 according to the UN report?
a) $2.5 trillion
b) $2.7 trillion
c) $2.9 trillion
d) $3.1 trillion
Show Answer
Answer: b) $2.7 trillion
128. What is the projected global military spending by 2035 if unchecked?
a) $5.8 trillion
b) $6.2 trillion
c) $6.6 trillion
d) $7.0 trillion
Show Answer
Answer: c) $6.6 trillion
129. What percentage of world GDP did military spending represent in 2025?
a) 2.2%
b) 2.3%
c) 2.4%
d) 2.5%
Show Answer
Answer: d) 2.5%
130. What is the annual SDG financing gap according to the UN report?
a) $3 trillion
b) $4 trillion
c) $5 trillion
d) $6 trillion
Show Answer
Answer: b) $4 trillion
131. What percentage of global rare earth mining does China control?
a) 60%
b) 65%
c) 70%
d) 75%
Show Answer
Answer: c) 70%
132. What percentage of global rare earth production capacity does China have?
a) 85%
b) 90%
c) 95%
d) 98%
Show Answer
Answer: b) 90%
133. What is India’s ranking in terms of rare earth reserves globally? India’s perspective?
a) 3rd largest
b) 4th largest
c) 5th largest
d) 6th largest
Show Answer
Answer: c) 5th largest
134. How long does it typically take to establish a rare earth magnet supply chain?
a) 2-3 years
b) 3-4 years
c) 4-5 years
d) 5-6 years
Show Answer
Answer: b) 3-4 years
135. Which company is India’s nodal agency for rare earth development?
a) NALCO
b) SAIL
c) IREL
d) BHEL
Show Answer
Answer: c) IREL
136. What percentage of Mauritius’ population is of Indian origin?
a) ~60%
b) ~65%
c) ~70%
d) ~75%
Show Answer
Answer: c) ~70%
137. What percentage of cumulative FDI inflows to India since 2000 has come from Mauritius?
a) ~20%
b) ~25%
c) ~30%
d) ~35%
Show Answer
Answer: b) ~25%
138. In which year did the first indentured laborers arrive in Mauritius from India?
a) 1729
b) 1735
c) 1742
d) 1750
Show Answer
Answer: a) 1729
139. How much have Indian companies invested in Mauritius in the last 5 years?
a) $150+ million
b) $200+ million
c) $250+ million
d) $300+ million
Show Answer
Answer: b) $200+ million
140. How far offshore can these aquifers extend?
a) Up to 70 km
b) Up to 80 km
c) Up to 90 km
d) Up to 100 km
Show Answer
Answer: c) Up to 90 km
141. What is the estimated volume of freshwater in offshore aquifers globally?
a) ~800,000 km3
b) ~900,000 km3
c) ~1 million km3
d) ~1.1 million km3
Show Answer
Answer: c) ~1 million km3
142. What percentage of terrestrial groundwater do offshore aquifers represent?
a) ~8%
b) ~10%
c) ~12%
d) ~15%
Show Answer
Answer: b) ~10%
143. By what percentage is freshwater demand expected to exceed supply by 2030 according to UN?
a) 30%
b) 35%
c) 40%
d) 45%
Show Answer
Answer: c) 40%
144. How many immersive courses does Adi Vishwavidyalaya offer?
a) 40
b) 45
c) 50
d) 55
Show Answer
Answer: b) 45
145. How many curated documents are available in Adi Sampada repository?
a) 4,000+
b) 4,500+
c) 5,000+
d) 5,500+
Show Answer
Answer: c) 5,000+
146. Across how many themes are the documents in Adi Sampada organized?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
Show Answer
Answer: b) 5
147. Which organization is Adi Haat currently linked with?
a) KVIC
b) TRIFED
c) NABARD
d) SIDBI
Show Answer
Answer: b) TRIFED
148. ISRO signed an agreement for SSLV technology transfer with which organization?
a) BEL
b) HAL
c) BDL
d) DRDO
Show Answer
Answer: b) HAL
149. What is the maximum payload capacity of SSLV?
a) 400 kg
b) 450 kg
c) 500 kg
d) 550 kg
Show Answer
Answer: c) 500 kg
150. How many solid propulsion stages does the SSLV have?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
Show Answer
Answer: b) Three
151. What is the name of the AI-generated bot appointed as AI Minister in Albania?
a) Diana
b) Diella
c) Delila
d) Delia
Show Answer
Answer: b) Diella
152. What is the primary role of Albania’s AI Minister?
a) Healthcare management
b) Education policy
c) Managing and awarding public tenders
d) Traffic management
Show Answer
Answer: c) Managing and awarding public tenders
153. Which Indian app is mentioned as an example of AI optimizing relief operations during crises?
a) UMANG
b) RAHAT
c) Bhashini
d) DHARMA
Show Answer
Answer: b) RAHAT
154. Which ministry exempted certain mining projects from public hearing requirements under EIA?
a) Ministry of Mines
b) Ministry of Defence
c) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
d) Department of Atomic Energy
Show Answer
Answer: c) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
155. Under which act were critical/strategic minerals notified in 2023?
a) Environment Protection Act
b) Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act
c) Forest Rights Act
d) Wildlife Protection Act
Show Answer
Answer: b) Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act
156. Under which act was the EIA Notification, 2006 issued?
a) Water Act, 1974
b) Air Act, 1981
c) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
d) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
Show Answer
Answer: c) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
157. According to the IISER Bhopal study, what percentage of designed capacity have India’s dams lost due to sedimentation?
a) 40%
b) 45%
c) 50%
d) 55%
Show Answer
Answer: c) 50%
158. India is the world’s largest dam-owning country after which two countries?
a) USA and Russia
b) China and USA
c) China and Brazil
d) USA and Brazil
Show Answer
Answer: b) China and USA
159. Approximately how many large dams does India have?
a) 5,500
b) 5,700
c) 5,900
d) 6,100
Show Answer
Answer: b) 5,700
160. What percentage of India’s large dams are 25+ years old?
a) 70%
b) 75%
c) 80%
d) 85%
Show Answer
Answer: c) 80%
161. In which year was the Dam Safety Act passed?
a) 2019
b) 2020
c) 2021
d) 2022
Show Answer
Answer: c) 2021
162. What does DHARMA stand for in the context of dam safety?
a) Dam Health and Rehabilitation Monitoring Application
b) Dam Health and Risk Management Application
c) Dam Hazard and Risk Monitoring Application
d) Dam Health and Resource Management Application
Show Answer
Answer: a) Dam Health and Rehabilitation Monitoring Application
163. Which medical journal published the study on India’s rising NCD mortality?
a) The BMJ
b) The Lancet
c) Nature Medicine
d) JAMA
Show Answer
Answer: b) The Lancet
164. What period did the Lancet study cover?
a) 2008-2017
b) 2009-2018
c) 2010-2019
d) 2011-2020
Show Answer
Answer: c) 2010-2019
165. India’s share of deaths due to NCDs increased from 37.9% in 1990 to what percentage in 2018?
a) 58%
b) 60%
c) 63%
d) 65%
Show Answer
Answer: c) 63%
166. In which year was the Fit India Movement launched?
a) 2018
b) 2019
c) 2020
d) 2021
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2019
167. In which year was the Commonwealth Parliamentary Association established?
a) 1910
b) 1911
c) 1912
d) 1913
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1911
168. Where is the headquarters of CPA located?
a) New Delhi, India
b) Canberra, Australia
c) Houses of Parliament, London
d) Ottawa, Canada
Show Answer
Answer: c) Houses of Parliament, London
169. How many legislatures (branches) are part of CPA membership worldwide?
a) Over 150
b) Over 160
c) Over 170
d) Over 180
Show Answer
Answer: d) Over 180
170. Which number CPA India Region Conference was inaugurated in Bengaluru?
a) 9th
b) 10th
c) 11th
d) 12th
Show Answer
Answer: c) 11th
171. Which Finance Commission developed the Disaster Risk Index?
a) 14th Finance Commission
b) 15th Finance Commission
c) 16th Finance Commission
d) 17th Finance Commission
Show Answer
Answer: b) 15th Finance Commission
172. How many hazards does the DRI cover?
a) 12
b) 14
c) 16
d) 18
Show Answer
Answer: b) 14
173. How many vulnerabilities are considered in the DRI?
a) 12
b) 14
c) 16
d) 18
Show Answer
Answer: b) 14
174. Which aircraft is the F404-IN20 engine specifically customized for?
a) Tejas Mk-1
b) Tejas Mk-1A
c) Tejas Mk-2
d) AMCA
Show Answer
Answer: b) Tejas Mk-1A
175. What is the thrust generated by the F404-IN20 engine with afterburner?
a) About 80 kN
b) About 85 kN
c) About 90 kN
d) About 95 kN
Show Answer
Answer: b) About 85 kN
176. Which company manufactures the F404-IN20 engine?
a) Rolls-Royce
b) Pratt & Whitney
c) GE Aerospace
d) Safran
Show Answer
Answer: c) GE Aerospace
177. How many F404-IN20 engines has HAL ordered from GE Aerospace?
a) 89
b) 93
c) 99
d) 105
Show Answer
Answer: c) 99
178. Which organization developed the AdFalciVax malaria vaccine?
a) AIIMS
b) ICMR
c) DRDO
d) DBT
Show Answer
Answer: b) ICMR
179. AdFalciVax targets which species of malaria parasite?
a) Plasmodium vivax
b) Plasmodium malariae
c) Plasmodium falciparum
d) Plasmodium ovale
Show Answer
Answer: c) Plasmodium falciparum
180. What type of vaccine is AdFalciVax?
a) Live attenuated vaccine
b) Inactivated vaccine
c) mRNA vaccine
d) Recombinant chimeric vaccine
Show Answer
Answer: d) Recombinant chimeric vaccine
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