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8 to 14 July 2025 (Weekly Current Affairs Quiz)

Practice the July 2025 2nd Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the second week of July 2025. 

The Current Affairs Quiz of 8 to 14 July features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.

2nd Week of July 2025: Current Affairs Quiz

1. Where was the 17th BRICS Summit 2025 held?

a) São Paulo, Brazil
b) Rio de Janeiro, Brazil
c) Brasília, Brazil
d) Salvador, Brazil

Show Answer

Answer: b) Rio de Janeiro, Brazil


2. What was the theme of the 17th BRICS Summit 2025?

a) Strengthening Global South Cooperation for a More Inclusive and Sustainable Governance
b) Building Bridges for a Sustainable Future
c) Multilateralism for Global Development
d) Partnership for Peace and Prosperity

Show Answer

Answer: a) Strengthening Global South Cooperation for a More Inclusive and Sustainable Governance


3. Which two countries became new borrowing members of the New Development Bank (NDB)?

a) Colombia and Uruguay
b) Colombia and Uzbekistan
c) Uruguay and Uzbekistan
d) Algeria and Colombia

Show Answer

Answer: b) Colombia and Uzbekistan


4. Which state has the largest aluminium/bauxite reserves in India?

a) Beijing, China
b) Mumbai, India
c) Shanghai, China
d) São Paulo, Brazil

Show Answer

Answer: c) Shanghai, China


5. In which year was the New Development Bank established?

a) 2014
b) 2015
c) 2016
d) 2017

Show Answer

Answer: b) 2015


6. Which country’s candidacy to host COP 33 of UNFCCC in 2028 was supported by BRICS?

a) Brazil
b) China
c) India
d) South Africa

Show Answer

Answer: c) India


7. The BRICS Partnership for the Elimination of Socially Determined Diseases focuses on tackling which root causes?

a) Environmental pollution and climate change
b) Poverty and social exclusion
c) Lack of healthcare infrastructure
d) Genetic disorders and hereditary diseases

Show Answer

Answer: b) Poverty and social exclusion


8. Which attack was condemned by the BRICS Summit in the context of terrorism?

a) Pulwama attack
b) Uri attack
c) Pahalgam attack
d) Pathankot attack

Show Answer

Answer: c) Pahalgam attack


9. Which country is a prospective member of the New Development Bank?

a) Colombia
b) Uruguay
c) Uzbekistan
d) Algeria

Show Answer

Answer: b) Uruguay


10. The BRICS Leaders’ Statement on Global Governance of Artificial Intelligence emphasized alignment with which frameworks?

a) National regulatory frameworks and the UN Charter
b) International trade agreements and WTO rules
c) Bilateral cooperation treaties and regional blocs
d) Corporate governance standards and ethical guidelines

Show Answer

Answer: a) National regulatory frameworks and the UN Charter


11. AERB granted operational license for which units of Kakrapar Atomic Power Station?

a) Units 1 & 2
b) Units 2 & 3
c) Units 3 & 4
d) Units 4 & 5

Show Answer

Answer: c) Units 3 & 4


12. What is the capacity of India’s first indigenously developed PHWR?

a) 500 MWe
b) 600 MWe
c) 700 MWe
d) 800 MWe

Show Answer

Answer: c) 700 MWe


13. PHWR forms which stage of India’s Three-Stage Nuclear Programme?

a) First stage
b) Second stage
c) Third stage
d) Final stage

Show Answer

Answer: a) First stage


14. What is the primary fuel used in PHWR?

a) Enriched Uranium
b) Natural Uranium
c) Plutonium-239
d) Thorium

Show Answer

Answer: b) Natural Uranium


15. What acts as both coolant and neutron moderator in PHWR?

a) Light Water (H₂O)
b) Heavy Water (D₂O)
c) Graphite
d) Liquid Sodium

Show Answer

Answer: b) Heavy Water (D₂O)


16. The by-product Plutonium-239 from PHWR is used to create which type of fuel?

a) Natural Uranium fuel
b) Enriched Uranium fuel
c) Uranium-Plutonium Mixed Oxide (MOX) fuel
d) Thorium fuel

Show Answer

Answer: c) Uranium-Plutonium Mixed Oxide (MOX) fuel


17. When was the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB) established?

a) 1982
b) 1983
c) 1984
d) 1985

Show Answer

Answer: b) 1983


18. Which was India’s first indigenous PHWR reactor?

a) Rajasthan Atomic Power Station (RAPS)
b) Kakrapar Atomic Power Station (KAPS)
c) Narora Atomic Power Station (NAPS)
d) Tarapur Atomic Power Station (TAPS)

Show Answer

Answer: c) Narora Atomic Power Station (NAPS)


19. In which year did Canada withdraw support from India’s nuclear program?

a) 1973
b) 1974
c) 1975
d) 1976

Show Answer

Answer: b) 1974


20. MOX fuel powers which type of reactors in Stage II of India’s nuclear program?

a) Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors
b) Fast Breeder Reactors
c) Light Water Reactors
d) Thorium Reactors

Show Answer

Answer: b) Fast Breeder Reactors


21. According to the World Bank Spring 2025 Poverty and Equity Brief, what is India’s global ranking in income equality?

a) 2nd
b) 3rd
c) 4th
d) 5th

Show Answer

Answer: c) 4th


22. What was India’s Gini Index score in 2022-23?

a) 24.5
b) 25.5
c) 26.5
d) 27.5

Show Answer

Answer: b) 25.5


23. What was India’s Gini Index score in 2011-12?

a) 27.8
b) 28.8
c) 29.8
d) 30.8

Show Answer

Answer: b) 28.8


24. What percentage of India’s population was in extreme poverty (<$2.15/day) in 2022-23?

a) 1.3%
b) 2.3%
c) 3.3%
d) 4.3%

Show Answer

Answer: b) 2.3%


25. The National Biobank was inaugurated at which institute?

a) CSIR-Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology
b) CSIR-Institute of Genomics and Integrative Biology
c) CSIR-National Institute of Biomedical Genomics
d) CSIR-Institute of Microbial Technology

Show Answer

Answer: b) CSIR-Institute of Genomics and Integrative Biology


26. What is the official name of the Phenome India Project?

a) Phenome India – CSIR Health Cohort Knowledgebase (PI-CheCK)
b) Phenome India – CSIR Health Database (PI-ChD)
c) Phenome India – CSIR Clinical Knowledge (PI-CK)
d) Phenome India – CSIR Health Information (PI-ChI)

Show Answer

Answer: a) Phenome India – CSIR Health Cohort Knowledgebase (PI-CheCK)


27. What is the bilateral trade target between India and LAC region by 2027-28?

a) USD 75 billion
b) USD 85 billion
c) USD 100 billion
d) USD 125 billion

Show Answer

Answer: c) USD 100 billion


28. Which state became the first to roll out FaceAuth for ration distribution under PDS?

a) Punjab
b) Himachal Pradesh
c) Haryana
d) Uttarakhand

Show Answer

Answer: b) Himachal Pradesh


29. How many countries comprise the LAC (Latin America and Caribbean) region?

a) 43
b) 45
c) 47
d) 49

Show Answer

Answer: b) 45


30. Under which Act was UIDAI established?

a) Aadhaar Act, 2016
b) Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016
c) Unique Identification Act, 2016
d) Digital Identity Act, 2016

Show Answer

Answer: b) Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016


31. The Kaladan Multimodal Transit Transport Project agreement was signed in which year?

a) 2006
b) 2008
c) 2010
d) 2012

Show Answer

Answer: b) 2008


32. Which ministry is the nodal ministry for the Kaladan Project?

a) Ministry of Shipping
b) Ministry of External Affairs
c) Ministry of Commerce
d) Ministry of Transport

Show Answer

Answer: b) Ministry of External Affairs


33. The Kaladan Project is expected to be operational by which year?

a) 2025
b) 2026
c) 2027
d) 2028

Show Answer

Answer: c) 2027


34. The Siliguri Corridor, also known as “Chicken’s Neck,” is how wide?

a) 15 km
b) 21 km
c) 25 km
d) 30 km

Show Answer

Answer: b) 21 km


35. Which authority is the project consultant for the Kaladan Project?

a) National Highways Authority of India (NHAI)
b) Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI)
c) Indian Railways
d) Port Trust of India

Show Answer

Answer: b) 2015


36. Which country’s candidacy to host COP 33 of UNFCCC in 2028 was supported by BRICS?

a) Brazil
b) China
c) India
d) South Africa

Show Answer

Answer: c) India


37. The BRICS Partnership for the Elimination of Socially Determined Diseases focuses on tackling which root causes?

a) Environmental pollution and climate change
b) Poverty and social exclusion
c) Lack of healthcare infrastructure
d) Genetic disorders and hereditary diseases

Show Answer

Answer: b) Poverty and social exclusion


38. Which attack was condemned by the BRICS Summit in the context of terrorism?

a) Pulwama attack
b) Uri attack
c) Pahalgam attack
d) Pathankot attack

Show Answer

Answer: c) Pahalgam attack


39. Which country is a prospective member of the New Development Bank?

a) Colombia
b) Uruguay
c) Uzbekistan
d) Algeria

Show Answer

Answer: b) Uruguay


40. The BRICS Leaders’ Statement on Global Governance of Artificial Intelligence emphasized alignment with which frameworks?

a) National regulatory frameworks and the UN Charter
b) International trade agreements and WTO rules
c) Bilateral cooperation treaties and regional blocs
d) Corporate governance standards and ethical guidelines

Show Answer

Answer: a) National regulatory frameworks and the UN Charter


41. AERB granted operational license for which units of Kakrapar Atomic Power Station?

a) Units 1 & 2
b) Units 2 & 3
c) Units 3 & 4
d) Units 4 & 5

Show Answer

Answer: c) Units 3 & 4


42. What is the capacity of India’s first indigenously developed PHWR?

a) 500 MWe
b) 600 MWe
c) 700 MWe
d) 800 MWe

Show Answer

Answer: c) 700 MWe


43. PHWR forms which stage of India’s Three-Stage Nuclear Programme?

a) First stage
b) Second stage
c) Third stage
d) Final stage

Show Answer

Answer: a) First stage


44. What is the primary fuel used in PHWR?

a) Enriched Uranium
b) Natural Uranium
c) Plutonium-239
d) Thorium

Show Answer

Answer: b) Natural Uranium


45. What acts as both coolant and neutron moderator in PHWR?

a) Light Water (H₂O)
b) Heavy Water (D₂O)
c) Graphite
d) Liquid Sodium

Show Answer

Answer: b) Heavy Water (D₂O)


46. The by-product Plutonium-239 from PHWR is used to create which type of fuel?

a) Natural Uranium fuel
b) Enriched Uranium fuel
c) Uranium-Plutonium Mixed Oxide (MOX) fuel
d) Thorium fuel

Show Answer

Answer: c) Uranium-Plutonium Mixed Oxide (MOX) fuel


47. When was the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB) established?

a) 1982
b) 1983
c) 1984
d) 1985

Show Answer

Answer: b) 1983


48. Which was India’s first indigenous PHWR reactor?

a) Rajasthan Atomic Power Station (RAPS)
b) Kakrapar Atomic Power Station (KAPS)
c) Narora Atomic Power Station (NAPS)
d) Tarapur Atomic Power Station (TAPS)

Show Answer

Answer: c) Narora Atomic Power Station (NAPS)


49. In which year did Canada withdraw support from India’s nuclear program?

a) 1973
b) 1974
c) 1975
d) 1976

Show Answer

Answer: b) 1974


50. MOX fuel powers which type of reactors in Stage II of India’s nuclear program?

a) Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors
b) Fast Breeder Reactors
c) Light Water Reactors
d) Thorium Reactors

Show Answer

Answer: b) Fast Breeder Reactors


51. According to the World Bank Spring 2025 Poverty and Equity Brief, what is India’s global ranking in income equality?

a) 2nd
b) 3rd
c) 4th
d) 5th

Show Answer

Answer: c) 4th


52. What was India’s Gini Index score in 2022-23?

a) 24.5
b) 25.5
c) 26.5
d) 27.5

Show Answer

Answer: b) 25.5


53. What was India’s Gini Index score in 2011-12?

a) 27.8
b) 28.8
c) 29.8
d) 30.8

Show Answer

Answer: b) 28.8


54. What percentage of India’s population was in extreme poverty (<$2.15/day) in 2022-23?

a) 1.3%
b) 2.3%
c) 3.3%
d) 4.3%

Show Answer

Answer: b) 2.3%


55. The National Biobank was inaugurated at which institute?

a) CSIR-Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology
b) CSIR-Institute of Genomics and Integrative Biology
c) CSIR-National Institute of Biomedical Genomics
d) CSIR-Institute of Microbial Technology

Show Answer

Answer: b) CSIR-Institute of Genomics and Integrative Biology


56. What is the official name of the Phenome India Project?

a) Phenome India – CSIR Health Cohort Knowledgebase (PI-CheCK)
b) Phenome India – CSIR Health Database (PI-ChD)
c) Phenome India – CSIR Clinical Knowledge (PI-CK)
d) Phenome India – CSIR Health Information (PI-ChI)

Show Answer

Answer: a) Phenome India – CSIR Health Cohort Knowledgebase (PI-CheCK)


57. What is the bilateral trade target between India and LAC region by 2027-28?

a) USD 75 billion
b) USD 85 billion
c) USD 100 billion
d) USD 125 billion

Show Answer

Answer: c) USD 100 billion


58. Which state became the first to roll out FaceAuth for ration distribution under PDS?

a) Punjab
b) Himachal Pradesh
c) Haryana
d) Uttarakhand

Show Answer

Answer: b) Himachal Pradesh


59. How many countries comprise the LAC (Latin America and Caribbean) region?

a) 43
b) 45
c) 47
d) 49

Show Answer

Answer: b) 45


60. Under which Act was UIDAI established?

a) Aadhaar Act, 2016
b) Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016
c) Unique Identification Act, 2016
d) Digital Identity Act, 2016

Show Answer

Answer: b) Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016


61. In the recent phone tapping cases, which High Court upheld the interception order?

a) Madras High Court
b) Delhi High Court
c) Bombay High Court
d) Calcutta High Court

Show Answer

Answer: b) Delhi High Court


62. Which constitutional article was cited by the Madras High Court regarding right to privacy?

a) Article 19
b) Article 20
c) Article 21
d) Article 22

Show Answer

Answer: c) Article 21


63. In which year were the Telecom Interception Rules issued?

a) 2023
b) 2024
c) 2025
d) 2022

Show Answer

Answer: b) 2024


64. Who is the only authority that can issue phone tapping orders?

a) District Magistrate
b) Home Secretary of Central or State Government
c) Chief Secretary
d) Director General of Police

Show Answer

Answer: b) Home Secretary of Central or State Government


65. What is the maximum duration of a phone tapping order unless renewed?

a) One month
b) Two months
c) Three months
d) Six months

Show Answer

Answer: b) Two months


66. What percentage of the world’s REE reserves does India hold?

a) 5%
b) 8%
c) 10%
d) 12%

Show Answer

Answer: b) 8%


67. India’s global ranking in REE reserves is:

a) 2nd largest
b) 3rd largest
c) 4th largest
d) 5th largest

Show Answer

Answer: b) 3rd largest


68. What percentage of global REE mining output comes from India?

a) Less than 1%
b) 2%
c) 5%
d) 8%

Show Answer

Answer: a) Less than 1%


69. Which country dominates REE refining capacity with approximately 90%?

a) USA
b) Australia
c) China
d) India

Show Answer

Answer: c) China


70. REEs in India are mainly found in which type of sands?

a) Silica sands
b) Monazite sands
c) Garnet sands
d) Ilmenite sands

Show Answer

Answer: b) Monazite sands


71. Which PSU is the only entity in India processing monazite to produce RE compounds?

a) NMDC
b) NALCO
c) IREL
d) MECL

Show Answer

Answer: c) IREL


72. IREL operates under which department?

a) Department of Atomic Energy
b) Ministry of Steel
c) Ministry of Mines
d) Ministry of Heavy Industries

Show Answer

Answer: a) Department of Atomic Energy


73. From which date will the 2025 Hazardous Wastes Amendment Rules become effective?

a) 1 January 2026
b) 1 April 2026
c) 1 July 2026
d) 1 October 2026

Show Answer

Answer: b) 1 April 2026


74. Which ministry notified the Amendment Rules 2025?

a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
b) Ministry of Heavy Industries
c) Ministry of Steel
d) Ministry of Mines

Show Answer

Answer: a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change


75. The minimum recycling target for non-ferrous metals in 2026-2027 is:

a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 20%

Show Answer

Answer: b) 10%


76. By 2032-2033, the recycling target for non-ferrous metals should reach:

a) 60%
b) 70%
c) 75%
d) 80%

Show Answer

Answer: c) 75%


77. EPR certificates are generated by:

a) Ministry of Environment
b) Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
c) State Pollution Control Boards
d) Bureau of Indian Standards

Show Answer

Answer: b) Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)


78. The validity period of EPR certificates is:

a) 1 year
b) 2 years
c) 3 years
d) 5 years

Show Answer

Answer: b) 2 years


79. Which rules first introduced EPR formally in India?

a) Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016
b) E-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011
c) Battery Waste Management Rules, 2010
d) Hazardous Waste Management Rules, 2008

Show Answer

Answer: b) E-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011


80. India’s Prime Minister was conferred with which Brazilian honor in 2025?

a) Order of Rio Branco
b) Grand Collar of the National Order of the Southern Cross
c) Order of Scientific Merit
d) National Order of Merit

Show Answer

Answer: b) Grand Collar of the National Order of the Southern Cross


81. When was the India-Brazil Strategic Partnership established?

a) 2004
b) 2005
c) 2006
d) 2007

Show Answer

Answer: c) 2006


82. What was the bilateral trade between India and Brazil in 2024-25?

a) USD 10.50 billion
b) USD 12.20 billion
c) USD 14.30 billion
d) USD 16.40 billion

Show Answer

Answer: b) USD 12.20 billion


83. Which Brazilian organization signed an MoU with India’s ICAR?

a) EMBRAPA
b) PETROBRAS
c) BNDES
d) IBAMA

Show Answer

Answer: a) EMBRAPA


84. When was the Defence Cooperation Agreement between India and Brazil signed?

a) 2004
b) 2005
c) 2006
d) 2007

Show Answer

Answer: c) 2006


85. Brazil ratified the International Solar Alliance (ISA) Agreement in which year?

a) 2020
b) 2021
c) 2022
d) 2023

Show Answer

Answer: c) 2022


86. Bitchat app was developed by:

a) Elon Musk
b) Jack Dorsey
c) Mark Zuckerberg
d) Tim Cook

Show Answer

Answer: b) Jack Dorsey


87. Bitchat app works using which technology?

a) WiFi Direct
b) NFC
c) Bluetooth Low Energy (BLE) Mesh Networking
d) Satellite communication

Show Answer

Answer: c) Bluetooth Low Energy (BLE) Mesh Networking


88. What type of network topology does Bitchat use?

a) Star topology
b) Ring topology
c) Mesh topology
d) Bus topology

Show Answer

Answer: c) Mesh topology


89. Which of the following is NOT a key feature of Bitchat?

a) No central server
b) End-to-end encryption
c) High-speed data transfer
d) Auto-delete messages

Show Answer

Answer: c) High-speed data transfer


90. A major limitation of Bitchat is:

a) Requires internet connection
b) High latency
c) Expensive to use
d) Requires registration

Show Answer

Answer: b) High latency


91. The “Comprehensive Update on Terrorist Financing Risks” was released by which organization?

a) United Nations Security Council
b) Financial Action Task Force (FATF)
c) International Monetary Fund
d) World Bank

Show Answer

Answer: b) Financial Action Task Force (FATF)


92. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a key factor influencing terrorist financing risks?

a) Lone actors and small cells needing minimal funds
b) Porous borders in Africa and South Asia
c) State sponsorship of terrorism
d) Strong banking regulations

Show Answer

Answer: d) Strong banking regulations


93. Which terrorist groups are mentioned as using conventional cash-based methods?

a) Al-Shabaab and Hamas
b) Boko Haram and ISIS
c) Al-Qaeda and Taliban
d) Hezbollah and Hamas

Show Answer

Answer: a) Al-Shabaab and Hamas


94. Which terrorist group is specifically mentioned as using criminal activities for financing?

a) Al-Shabaab
b) Hamas
c) Boko Haram
d) ISIS

Show Answer

Answer: c) Boko Haram


95. The Aspirational DMF Programme is a flagship initiative by which ministry?

a) Ministry of Rural Development
b) Ministry of Mines
c) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
d) NITI Aayog

Show Answer

Answer: b) Ministry of Mines


96. District Mineral Foundation (DMF) was established under which section of the Mines and Minerals Act?

a) Section 9(A)
b) Section 9(B)
c) Section 10(A)
d) Section 10(B)

Show Answer

Answer: b) Section 9(B)


97. The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 was amended to include DMF in which year?

a) 2014
b) 2015
c) 2016
d) 2017

Show Answer

Answer: b) 2015


98. How many Aspirational Districts are currently covered under the programme?

a) 96
b) 106
c) 116
d) 126

Show Answer

Answer: b) 106


99. How many Aspirational Blocks are covered under the programme?

a) 463
b) 473
c) 483
d) 493

Show Answer

Answer: b) 473


100. The Petroleum Rules 2025 were released by which ministry?

a) Ministry of Environment
b) Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
c) Ministry of Heavy Industries
d) Ministry of Power

Show Answer

Answer: b) Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas


101. The Petroleum Rules 2025 replace which outdated frameworks?

a) Petroleum Concession Rules, 1949 & Petroleum and Natural Gas Rules, 1959
b) Petroleum Concession Rules, 1950 & Petroleum and Natural Gas Rules, 1960
c) Oil and Gas Rules, 1948 & Petroleum Rules, 1958
d) Petroleum Act, 1949 & Gas Rules, 1959

Show Answer

Answer: a) Petroleum Concession Rules, 1949 & Petroleum and Natural Gas Rules, 1959


102. Under the new rules, site restoration funds require post-closure monitoring for minimum how many years?

a) 3 years
b) 5 years
c) 7 years
d) 10 years

Show Answer

Answer: b) 5 years


103. Which of the following renewable energy projects can operators undertake within oilfields?

a) Solar and Wind only
b) Solar, Wind, and Hydrogen only
c) Solar, Wind, Hydrogen, and Geothermal
d) Only Solar energy

Show Answer

Answer: c) Solar, Wind, Hydrogen, and Geothermal


104. Starlink was developed by which company?

a) Blue Origin
b) SpaceX
c) Virgin Galactic
d) Amazon

Show Answer

Answer: b) SpaceX


105. IN-SPACe granted Starlink authorization for how many years?

a) 3 years
b) 5 years
c) 7 years
d) 10 years

Show Answer

Answer: b) 5 years


106. What does IN-SPACe stand for?

a) Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Centre
b) Indian National Space Policy and Authorization Centre
c) Indian National Space Program and Authorization Centre
d) Indian National Space Projects and Authorization Centre

Show Answer

Answer: a) Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Centre


107. IN-SPACe is an autonomous body under which department?

a) Department of Science and Technology
b) Department of Space
c) Ministry of External Affairs
d) Prime Minister’s Office

Show Answer

Answer: b) Department of Space


108. Which company launched Vikram-S, India’s first private sub-orbital rocket?

a) Agnikul Cosmos
b) Skyroot Aerospace
c) Bellatrix Aerospace
d) Pixxel

Show Answer

Answer: b) Skyroot Aerospace


109. Namibia will be the first country in which continent to implement UPI?

a) Asia
b) Europe
c) Africa
d) South America

Show Answer

Answer: c) Africa


110. UPI was launched in which year?

a) 2015
b) 2016
c) 2017
d) 2018

Show Answer

Answer: b) 2016


111. Which was the first country to adopt UPI-based merchant payments?

a) Nepal
b) Bhutan
c) Sri Lanka
d) Singapore

Show Answer

Answer: b) Bhutan


112. What is the RBI-NPCI target for UPI expansion by 2028-29?

a) 15 countries
b) 20 countries
c) 25 countries
d) 30 countries

Show Answer

Answer: b) 20 countries


113. NPCI International Payments Ltd was established in which year?

a) 2019
b) 2020
c) 2021
d) 2022

Show Answer

Answer: b) 2020


114. The Admiralty (Jurisdiction and Settlement of Maritime Claims) Act was enacted in which year?

a) 2016
b) 2017
c) 2018
d) 2019

Show Answer

Answer: b) 2017


115. Which state government invoked the Admiralty Act to seek compensation for environmental damage?

a) Tamil Nadu
b) Karnataka
c) Kerala
d) Andhra Pradesh

Show Answer

Answer: c) Kerala


116. Under the Admiralty Act, which courts are designated as Admiralty Courts?

a) District Courts of coastal states
b) High Courts of coastal states
c) Supreme Court only
d) Special Maritime Tribunals

Show Answer

Answer: b) High Courts of coastal states


117. ERASR stands for:

a) Extended Range Anti-Ship Rocket
b) Extended Range Anti-Submarine Rocket
c) Enhanced Range Anti-Submarine Rocket
d) Enhanced Range Anti-Ship Rocket

Show Answer

Answer: b) Extended Range Anti-Submarine Rocket


118. ERASR was developed by which DRDO laboratory?

a) Armament Research & Development Establishment (ARDE), Pune
b) Defence Research & Development Laboratory (DRDL), Hyderabad
c) Research Centre Imarat (RCI), Hyderabad
d) Terminal Ballistics Research Laboratory (TBRL), Chandigarh

Show Answer

Answer: a) Armament Research & Development Establishment (ARDE), Pune


119. INS Nistar is India’s first indigenously designed and constructed:

a) Submarine
b) Aircraft Carrier
c) Diving Support Vessel
d) Destroyer

Show Answer

Answer: c) Diving Support Vessel


120. INS Nistar can support saturation diving up to what depth?

a) 200 m
b) 250 m
c) 300 m
d) 350 m

Show Answer

Answer: c) 300 m


121. In which year were State S&T Councils established?

a) 1970
b) 1971
c) 1972
d) 1973

Show Answer

Answer: b) 1971


122. According to NITI Aayog recommendations, what percentage of GSDP should states allocate as S&T budget?

a) 0.3%
b) 0.4%
c) 0.5%
d) 0.6%

Show Answer

Answer: c) 0.5%


123. What ratio of scientific to non-scientific staff should be maintained in State S&T Councils?

a) 60:40
b) 70:30
c) 80:20
d) 75:25

Show Answer

Answer: b) 70:30


124. Which of the following ancient universities is NOT mentioned as a global center of learning?

a) Takshashila
b) Nalanda
c) Taxila
d) Vikramashila

Show Answer

Answer: c) Taxila


125. When was the Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL) launched?

a) 2000
b) 2001
c) 2002
d) 2003

Show Answer

Answer: b) 2001


126. Which Act provides legal protection for traditional knowledge in India?

a) Indian Patents Act, 1970
b) Biological Diversity Act, 2002
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: c) Both a and b


127. When was the WTO established?

a) 1994
b) 1995
c) 1996
d) 1997

Show Answer

Answer: b) 1995


128. How many members does the WTO have (including India)?

a) 164
b) 165
c) 166
d) 167

Show Answer

Answer: c) 166


129. Since which year has the US blocked appointments to the WTO Appellate Body?

a) 2015
b) 2016
c) 2017
d) 2018

Show Answer

Answer: b) 2016


130. How many members are there in the WTO Appellate Body?

a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8

Show Answer

Answer: c) 7


131. What does WASH stand for?

a) Water, Air, Sanitation, Health
b) Water, Sanitation, and Hygiene
c) Water, Air, Safety, Hygiene
d) Water, Sanitation, Air, Health

Show Answer

Answer: b) Water, Sanitation, and Hygiene


132. According to the WASH Progress Tracker 2025, what percentage of countries have adequate funding to achieve WASH targets?

a) 15%
b) 17%
c) 19%
d) 21%

Show Answer

Answer: b) 17%


133. When was the Jal Jeevan Mission launched?

a) 2018
b) 2019
c) 2020
d) 2021

Show Answer

Answer: b) 2019


134. What is the current coverage of Jal Jeevan Mission in rural households?

a) 78.15%
b) 80.15%
c) 82.15%
d) 84.15%

Show Answer

Answer: b) 80.15%


135. Which education policy did NEP 2020 replace?

a) 1985 Policy
b) 1986 Policy
c) 1987 Policy
d) 1988 Policy

Show Answer

Answer: b) 1986 Policy


136. What is the current Gross Enrollment Ratio (GER) in higher education in India?

a) 26.4%
b) 27.4%
c) 28.4%
d) 29.4%

Show Answer

Answer: ac) 28.4%


137. What is the NEP 2020 target for GER by 2035?

a) 45%
b) 50%
c) 55%
d) 60%

Show Answer

Answer: b) 50%


138. How many resolutions are there in Panch Sankalpa?

a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7

Show Answer

Answer: b) 5


139. ADCs are established under which Schedule of the Constitution?

a) Fifth Schedule
b) Sixth Schedule
c) Seventh Schedule
d) Eighth Schedule

Show Answer

Answer: b) Sixth Schedule


140. What is the maximum strength of members in an ADC?

a) 25
b) 30
c) 35
d) 40

Show Answer

Answer: b) 30


141. How many members can be nominated by the Governor in an ADC?

a) Up to 3
b) Up to 4
c) Up to 5
d) Up to 6

Show Answer

Answer: b) Up to 4


142. Which states does the Sixth Schedule apply to?

a) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram
b) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Nagaland
c) Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland
d) Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram, Nagaland

Show Answer

Answer: a) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram


143. Which Constitutional Amendment Act deals with Panchayats?

a) 72nd
b) 73rd
c) 74th
d) 75th

Show Answer

Answer: b) 73rd


144. What is the minimum reservation for women in local bodies?

a) 1/4th
b) 1/3rd
c) 1/2
d) 2/3rd

Show Answer

Answer: b) 1/3rd


145. What percentage reservation has Telangana approved for Backward Classes in local bodies?

a) 40%
b) 42%
c) 44%
d) 46%

Show Answer

Answer: b) 42%


146. What is the nickname of the S-400 system in India?

a) Brahmastra
b) Sudarshan Chakra
c) Vajra
d) Trishul

Show Answer

Answer: b) Sudarshan Chakra


147. What is the approximate value of the S-400 contract with Russia?

a) USD 5.2 billion
b) USD 5.4 billion
c) USD 5.6 billion
d) USD 5.8 billion

Show Answer

Answer: b) USD 5.4 billion


148. How many targets can the S-400 system engage simultaneously?

a) 32
b) 34
c) 36
d) 38

Show Answer

Answer: c) 36


149. What is the funding pattern for SDRF in General Category States?

a) 70:30 (Centre:State)
b) 75:25 (Centre:State)
c) 80:20 (Centre:State)
d) 85:15 (Centre:State)

Show Answer

Answer: b) 75:25 (Centre:State)


150. What is the funding pattern for SDRF in NE and Himalayan States?

a) 85:15
b) 90:10
c) 95:5
d) 100:0

Show Answer

Answer: b) 90:10


151. With the inclusion of Maratha Military Landscapes, India now has how many UNESCO World Heritage Sites?

a) 42
b) 43
c) 44
d) 45

Show Answer

Answer: c) 44


152. India’s current global rank in terms of number of UNESCO World Heritage Sites is:

a) 4th worldwide
b) 5th worldwide
c) 6th worldwide
d) 7th worldwide

Show Answer

Answer: c) 6th worldwide


153. The Maratha Military Landscapes represent which historical period?

a) 15th to 17th centuries CE
b) 16th to 18th centuries CE
c) 17th to 19th centuries CE
d) 18th to 20th centuries CE

Show Answer

Answer: c) 17th to 19th centuries CE


154. Which of the following forts is NOT part of the Maratha Military Landscapes in Maharashtra?

a) Raigad
b) Shivneri
c) Gingee
d) Sindhudurg

Show Answer

Answer: c) Gingee (it’s in Tamil Nadu)


155. The nodal agency in India responsible for World Heritage recognition is:

a) Ministry of Culture
b) Archaeological Survey of India (ASI)
c) National Museum
d) Indian Council of Historical Research

Show Answer

Answer: b) Archaeological Survey of India (ASI)


156. Which organization is responsible for the final decision on World Heritage Site recognition?

a) UNESCO General Assembly
b) International Council on Monuments and Sites (ICOMOS)
c) World Heritage Committee
d) International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)

Show Answer

Answer: c) World Heritage Committee


157. The full form of PM E-DRIVE is:

a) PM Electric Drive Revolution in Innovative Vehicle Enhancement
b) PM Electric Development Revolution in India Vehicle Enhancement
c) PM Electric Drive Revolution in Indian Vehicle Environment
d) PM Electric Development Revolution in Innovative Vehicle Enhancement

Show Answer

Answer: a) PM Electric Drive Revolution in Innovative Vehicle Enhancement


158. The maximum subsidy amount per vehicle under the e-truck incentive scheme is:

a) ₹8.5 lakh
b) ₹9.6 lakh
c) ₹10.2 lakh
d) ₹11.5 lakh

Show Answer

Answer: b) ₹9.6 lakh


159. Diesel trucks account for what percentage of vehicle fleet but generate what percentage of road transport emissions?

a) 3% fleet, 42% emissions
b) 5% fleet, 40% emissions
c) 4% fleet, 45% emissions
d) 2% fleet, 38% emissions

Show Answer

Answer: a) 3% fleet, 42% emissions


160. The N3 category of trucks under the e-truck scheme includes vehicles with GVW:

a) Above 3.5 tonnes up to 12 tonnes
b) Exceeding 12 tonnes up to 55 tonnes
c) Above 5 tonnes up to 15 tonnes
d) Exceeding 15 tonnes up to 50 tonnes

Show Answer

Answer: b) Exceeding 12 tonnes up to 55 tonnes


161. Which ministry implements the PM E-DRIVE initiative?

a) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
b) Ministry of Environment and Climate Change
c) Ministry of Heavy Industries (MHI)
d) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy

Show Answer

Answer: c) Ministry of Heavy Industries (MHI)


162. Unlike FAME-II, PM E-DRIVE includes which additional vehicle categories?

a) e-trucks and e-ambulances
b) e-buses and e-rickshaws
c) e-cars and e-motorcycles
d) e-scooters and e-cycles

Show Answer

Answer: a) e-trucks and e-ambulances


163. Geothermal energy originates from:

a) Solar radiation absorbed by Earth
b) Residual heat from planet formation and radioactive decay
c) Tidal forces and lunar gravity
d) Atmospheric pressure variations

Show Answer

Answer: b) Residual heat from planet formation and radioactive decay


164. According to the Geothermal Atlas of India (2022), India’s estimated geothermal capacity is:

a) ~8,500 MW
b) ~9,800 MW
c) ~10,600 MW
d) ~12,200 MW

Show Answer

Answer: c) ~10,600 MW


165. Which geothermal fields are mentioned as highly promising zones in Ladakh?

a) Manikaran and Sohana
b) Puga and Chumathang
c) Dholera and Tuwa
d) Tattapani and Godavari Basin

Show Answer

Answer: b) Puga and Chumathang


166. Enhanced Geothermal Systems (EGS) are classified as:

a) Conventional geothermal systems
b) Next-generation systems
c) Hydrothermal reservoirs
d) Surface thermal systems

Show Answer

Answer: b) Next-generation systems


167. India has geothermal partnerships with all of the following countries EXCEPT:

a) Iceland
b) Saudi Arabia
c) USA
d) Germany

Show Answer

Answer: d) Germany


168. The RE-RTD programme supports innovation in:

a) Conventional geothermal systems only
b) Next-generation geothermal systems
c) Solar thermal systems
d) Wind energy systems

Show Answer

Answer: b) Next-generation geothermal systems


169. EFTA member countries include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Switzerland
b) Norway
c) Denmark
d) Iceland

Show Answer

Answer: c) Denmark


170. Under the TEPA agreement, EFTA countries have committed to invest how much in India over 15 years?

a) $80 billion
b) $90 billion
c) $100 billion
d) $120 billion

Show Answer

Answer: c) $100 billion


171. The TEPA agreement is expected to create how many direct jobs?

a) 800,000
b) 1 million
c) 1.2 million
d) 1.5 million

Show Answer

Answer: b) 1 million


172. The intellectual property provisions in TEPA adhere to standards set by:

a) WTO’s TRIPS Agreement
b) WIPO Convention
c) Berne Convention
d) Paris Convention

Show Answer

Answer: a) WTO’s TRIPS Agreement


173. The Ravi and Beas Waters Tribunal was constituted in:

a) 1984
b) 1986
c) 1988
d) 1990

Show Answer

Answer: b) 1986


174. The ISRWD Act, 1956 draws its authority from which article of the Indian Constitution?

a) Article 260
b) Article 261
c) Article 262
d) Article 263

Show Answer

Answer: c) Article 262


175. Once a water dispute is referred to a tribunal under ISRWD Act:

a) Supreme Court can still intervene
b) High Courts retain jurisdiction
c) Neither Supreme Court nor any other court can intervene
d) Only District Courts lose jurisdiction

Show Answer

Answer: c) Neither Supreme Court nor any other court can intervene


176. The tribunal’s award, once published, holds the same force as:

a) High Court decree
b) Supreme Court decree
c) Executive order
d) Parliamentary resolution

Show Answer

Answer: b) Supreme Court decree


177. AIANET currently has how many member institutions and organizations?

a) 15
b) 17
c) 19
d) 21

Show Answer

Answer: b) 17


178. AIANET is administered by:

a) AI Alliance USA
b) AI Alliance Europe
c) AI Alliance Russia
d) AI Alliance Global

Show Answer

Answer: c) AI Alliance Russia


179. The Astra missile is classified as:

a) Surface-to-Air Missile (SAM)
b) Beyond Visual Range Air-to-Air Missile (BVRAAM)
c) Anti-Tank Guided Missile (ATGM)
d) Cruise Missile

Show Answer

Answer: b) Beyond Visual Range Air-to-Air Missile (BVRAAM)


180. The range of the Astra missile:

a) Exceeds 50 km
b) Exceeds 75 km
c) Exceeds 100 km
d) Exceeds 150 km

Show Answer

Answer: c) Exceeds 100 km


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