Practice the July 2025 2nd Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the second week of July 2025.
The Current Affairs Quiz of 8 to 14 July features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.
2nd Week of July 2025: Current Affairs Quiz
1. Where was the 17th BRICS Summit 2025 held?
a) São Paulo, Brazil
b) Rio de Janeiro, Brazil
c) Brasília, Brazil
d) Salvador, Brazil
Show Answer
Answer: b) Rio de Janeiro, Brazil
2. What was the theme of the 17th BRICS Summit 2025?
a) Strengthening Global South Cooperation for a More Inclusive and Sustainable Governance
b) Building Bridges for a Sustainable Future
c) Multilateralism for Global Development
d) Partnership for Peace and Prosperity
Show Answer
Answer: a) Strengthening Global South Cooperation for a More Inclusive and Sustainable Governance
3. Which two countries became new borrowing members of the New Development Bank (NDB)?
a) Colombia and Uruguay
b) Colombia and Uzbekistan
c) Uruguay and Uzbekistan
d) Algeria and Colombia
Show Answer
Answer: b) Colombia and Uzbekistan
4. Which state has the largest aluminium/bauxite reserves in India?
a) Beijing, China
b) Mumbai, India
c) Shanghai, China
d) São Paulo, Brazil
Show Answer
Answer: c) Shanghai, China
5. In which year was the New Development Bank established?
a) 2014
b) 2015
c) 2016
d) 2017
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2015
6. Which country’s candidacy to host COP 33 of UNFCCC in 2028 was supported by BRICS?
a) Brazil
b) China
c) India
d) South Africa
Show Answer
Answer: c) India
7. The BRICS Partnership for the Elimination of Socially Determined Diseases focuses on tackling which root causes?
a) Environmental pollution and climate change
b) Poverty and social exclusion
c) Lack of healthcare infrastructure
d) Genetic disorders and hereditary diseases
Show Answer
Answer: b) Poverty and social exclusion
8. Which attack was condemned by the BRICS Summit in the context of terrorism?
a) Pulwama attack
b) Uri attack
c) Pahalgam attack
d) Pathankot attack
Show Answer
Answer: c) Pahalgam attack
9. Which country is a prospective member of the New Development Bank?
a) Colombia
b) Uruguay
c) Uzbekistan
d) Algeria
Show Answer
Answer: b) Uruguay
10. The BRICS Leaders’ Statement on Global Governance of Artificial Intelligence emphasized alignment with which frameworks?
a) National regulatory frameworks and the UN Charter
b) International trade agreements and WTO rules
c) Bilateral cooperation treaties and regional blocs
d) Corporate governance standards and ethical guidelines
Show Answer
Answer: a) National regulatory frameworks and the UN Charter
11. AERB granted operational license for which units of Kakrapar Atomic Power Station?
a) Units 1 & 2
b) Units 2 & 3
c) Units 3 & 4
d) Units 4 & 5
Show Answer
Answer: c) Units 3 & 4
12. What is the capacity of India’s first indigenously developed PHWR?
a) 500 MWe
b) 600 MWe
c) 700 MWe
d) 800 MWe
Show Answer
Answer: c) 700 MWe
13. PHWR forms which stage of India’s Three-Stage Nuclear Programme?
a) First stage
b) Second stage
c) Third stage
d) Final stage
Show Answer
Answer: a) First stage
14. What is the primary fuel used in PHWR?
a) Enriched Uranium
b) Natural Uranium
c) Plutonium-239
d) Thorium
Show Answer
Answer: b) Natural Uranium
15. What acts as both coolant and neutron moderator in PHWR?
a) Light Water (H₂O)
b) Heavy Water (D₂O)
c) Graphite
d) Liquid Sodium
Show Answer
Answer: b) Heavy Water (D₂O)
16. The by-product Plutonium-239 from PHWR is used to create which type of fuel?
a) Natural Uranium fuel
b) Enriched Uranium fuel
c) Uranium-Plutonium Mixed Oxide (MOX) fuel
d) Thorium fuel
Show Answer
Answer: c) Uranium-Plutonium Mixed Oxide (MOX) fuel
17. When was the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB) established?
a) 1982
b) 1983
c) 1984
d) 1985
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1983
18. Which was India’s first indigenous PHWR reactor?
a) Rajasthan Atomic Power Station (RAPS)
b) Kakrapar Atomic Power Station (KAPS)
c) Narora Atomic Power Station (NAPS)
d) Tarapur Atomic Power Station (TAPS)
Show Answer
Answer: c) Narora Atomic Power Station (NAPS)
19. In which year did Canada withdraw support from India’s nuclear program?
a) 1973
b) 1974
c) 1975
d) 1976
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1974
20. MOX fuel powers which type of reactors in Stage II of India’s nuclear program?
a) Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors
b) Fast Breeder Reactors
c) Light Water Reactors
d) Thorium Reactors
Show Answer
Answer: b) Fast Breeder Reactors
21. According to the World Bank Spring 2025 Poverty and Equity Brief, what is India’s global ranking in income equality?
a) 2nd
b) 3rd
c) 4th
d) 5th
Show Answer
Answer: c) 4th
22. What was India’s Gini Index score in 2022-23?
a) 24.5
b) 25.5
c) 26.5
d) 27.5
Show Answer
Answer: b) 25.5
23. What was India’s Gini Index score in 2011-12?
a) 27.8
b) 28.8
c) 29.8
d) 30.8
Show Answer
Answer: b) 28.8
24. What percentage of India’s population was in extreme poverty (<$2.15/day) in 2022-23?
a) 1.3%
b) 2.3%
c) 3.3%
d) 4.3%
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2.3%
25. The National Biobank was inaugurated at which institute?
a) CSIR-Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology
b) CSIR-Institute of Genomics and Integrative Biology
c) CSIR-National Institute of Biomedical Genomics
d) CSIR-Institute of Microbial Technology
Show Answer
Answer: b) CSIR-Institute of Genomics and Integrative Biology
26. What is the official name of the Phenome India Project?
a) Phenome India – CSIR Health Cohort Knowledgebase (PI-CheCK)
b) Phenome India – CSIR Health Database (PI-ChD)
c) Phenome India – CSIR Clinical Knowledge (PI-CK)
d) Phenome India – CSIR Health Information (PI-ChI)
Show Answer
Answer: a) Phenome India – CSIR Health Cohort Knowledgebase (PI-CheCK)
27. What is the bilateral trade target between India and LAC region by 2027-28?
a) USD 75 billion
b) USD 85 billion
c) USD 100 billion
d) USD 125 billion
Show Answer
Answer: c) USD 100 billion
28. Which state became the first to roll out FaceAuth for ration distribution under PDS?
a) Punjab
b) Himachal Pradesh
c) Haryana
d) Uttarakhand
Show Answer
Answer: b) Himachal Pradesh
29. How many countries comprise the LAC (Latin America and Caribbean) region?
a) 43
b) 45
c) 47
d) 49
Show Answer
Answer: b) 45
30. Under which Act was UIDAI established?
a) Aadhaar Act, 2016
b) Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016
c) Unique Identification Act, 2016
d) Digital Identity Act, 2016
Show Answer
Answer: b) Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016
31. The Kaladan Multimodal Transit Transport Project agreement was signed in which year?
a) 2006
b) 2008
c) 2010
d) 2012
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2008
32. Which ministry is the nodal ministry for the Kaladan Project?
a) Ministry of Shipping
b) Ministry of External Affairs
c) Ministry of Commerce
d) Ministry of Transport
Show Answer
Answer: b) Ministry of External Affairs
33. The Kaladan Project is expected to be operational by which year?
a) 2025
b) 2026
c) 2027
d) 2028
Show Answer
Answer: c) 2027
34. The Siliguri Corridor, also known as “Chicken’s Neck,” is how wide?
a) 15 km
b) 21 km
c) 25 km
d) 30 km
Show Answer
Answer: b) 21 km
35. Which authority is the project consultant for the Kaladan Project?
a) National Highways Authority of India (NHAI)
b) Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI)
c) Indian Railways
d) Port Trust of India
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2015
36. Which country’s candidacy to host COP 33 of UNFCCC in 2028 was supported by BRICS?
a) Brazil
b) China
c) India
d) South Africa
Show Answer
Answer: c) India
37. The BRICS Partnership for the Elimination of Socially Determined Diseases focuses on tackling which root causes?
a) Environmental pollution and climate change
b) Poverty and social exclusion
c) Lack of healthcare infrastructure
d) Genetic disorders and hereditary diseases
Show Answer
Answer: b) Poverty and social exclusion
38. Which attack was condemned by the BRICS Summit in the context of terrorism?
a) Pulwama attack
b) Uri attack
c) Pahalgam attack
d) Pathankot attack
Show Answer
Answer: c) Pahalgam attack
39. Which country is a prospective member of the New Development Bank?
a) Colombia
b) Uruguay
c) Uzbekistan
d) Algeria
Show Answer
Answer: b) Uruguay
40. The BRICS Leaders’ Statement on Global Governance of Artificial Intelligence emphasized alignment with which frameworks?
a) National regulatory frameworks and the UN Charter
b) International trade agreements and WTO rules
c) Bilateral cooperation treaties and regional blocs
d) Corporate governance standards and ethical guidelines
Show Answer
Answer: a) National regulatory frameworks and the UN Charter
41. AERB granted operational license for which units of Kakrapar Atomic Power Station?
a) Units 1 & 2
b) Units 2 & 3
c) Units 3 & 4
d) Units 4 & 5
Show Answer
Answer: c) Units 3 & 4
42. What is the capacity of India’s first indigenously developed PHWR?
a) 500 MWe
b) 600 MWe
c) 700 MWe
d) 800 MWe
Show Answer
Answer: c) 700 MWe
43. PHWR forms which stage of India’s Three-Stage Nuclear Programme?
a) First stage
b) Second stage
c) Third stage
d) Final stage
Show Answer
Answer: a) First stage
44. What is the primary fuel used in PHWR?
a) Enriched Uranium
b) Natural Uranium
c) Plutonium-239
d) Thorium
Show Answer
Answer: b) Natural Uranium
45. What acts as both coolant and neutron moderator in PHWR?
a) Light Water (H₂O)
b) Heavy Water (D₂O)
c) Graphite
d) Liquid Sodium
Show Answer
Answer: b) Heavy Water (D₂O)
46. The by-product Plutonium-239 from PHWR is used to create which type of fuel?
a) Natural Uranium fuel
b) Enriched Uranium fuel
c) Uranium-Plutonium Mixed Oxide (MOX) fuel
d) Thorium fuel
Show Answer
Answer: c) Uranium-Plutonium Mixed Oxide (MOX) fuel
47. When was the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB) established?
a) 1982
b) 1983
c) 1984
d) 1985
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1983
48. Which was India’s first indigenous PHWR reactor?
a) Rajasthan Atomic Power Station (RAPS)
b) Kakrapar Atomic Power Station (KAPS)
c) Narora Atomic Power Station (NAPS)
d) Tarapur Atomic Power Station (TAPS)
Show Answer
Answer: c) Narora Atomic Power Station (NAPS)
49. In which year did Canada withdraw support from India’s nuclear program?
a) 1973
b) 1974
c) 1975
d) 1976
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1974
50. MOX fuel powers which type of reactors in Stage II of India’s nuclear program?
a) Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors
b) Fast Breeder Reactors
c) Light Water Reactors
d) Thorium Reactors
Show Answer
Answer: b) Fast Breeder Reactors
51. According to the World Bank Spring 2025 Poverty and Equity Brief, what is India’s global ranking in income equality?
a) 2nd
b) 3rd
c) 4th
d) 5th
Show Answer
Answer: c) 4th
52. What was India’s Gini Index score in 2022-23?
a) 24.5
b) 25.5
c) 26.5
d) 27.5
Show Answer
Answer: b) 25.5
53. What was India’s Gini Index score in 2011-12?
a) 27.8
b) 28.8
c) 29.8
d) 30.8
Show Answer
Answer: b) 28.8
54. What percentage of India’s population was in extreme poverty (<$2.15/day) in 2022-23?
a) 1.3%
b) 2.3%
c) 3.3%
d) 4.3%
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2.3%
55. The National Biobank was inaugurated at which institute?
a) CSIR-Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology
b) CSIR-Institute of Genomics and Integrative Biology
c) CSIR-National Institute of Biomedical Genomics
d) CSIR-Institute of Microbial Technology
Show Answer
Answer: b) CSIR-Institute of Genomics and Integrative Biology
56. What is the official name of the Phenome India Project?
a) Phenome India – CSIR Health Cohort Knowledgebase (PI-CheCK)
b) Phenome India – CSIR Health Database (PI-ChD)
c) Phenome India – CSIR Clinical Knowledge (PI-CK)
d) Phenome India – CSIR Health Information (PI-ChI)
Show Answer
Answer: a) Phenome India – CSIR Health Cohort Knowledgebase (PI-CheCK)
57. What is the bilateral trade target between India and LAC region by 2027-28?
a) USD 75 billion
b) USD 85 billion
c) USD 100 billion
d) USD 125 billion
Show Answer
Answer: c) USD 100 billion
58. Which state became the first to roll out FaceAuth for ration distribution under PDS?
a) Punjab
b) Himachal Pradesh
c) Haryana
d) Uttarakhand
Show Answer
Answer: b) Himachal Pradesh
59. How many countries comprise the LAC (Latin America and Caribbean) region?
a) 43
b) 45
c) 47
d) 49
Show Answer
Answer: b) 45
60. Under which Act was UIDAI established?
a) Aadhaar Act, 2016
b) Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016
c) Unique Identification Act, 2016
d) Digital Identity Act, 2016
Show Answer
Answer: b) Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016
61. In the recent phone tapping cases, which High Court upheld the interception order?
a) Madras High Court
b) Delhi High Court
c) Bombay High Court
d) Calcutta High Court
Show Answer
Answer: b) Delhi High Court
62. Which constitutional article was cited by the Madras High Court regarding right to privacy?
a) Article 19
b) Article 20
c) Article 21
d) Article 22
Show Answer
Answer: c) Article 21
63. In which year were the Telecom Interception Rules issued?
a) 2023
b) 2024
c) 2025
d) 2022
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2024
64. Who is the only authority that can issue phone tapping orders?
a) District Magistrate
b) Home Secretary of Central or State Government
c) Chief Secretary
d) Director General of Police
Show Answer
Answer: b) Home Secretary of Central or State Government
65. What is the maximum duration of a phone tapping order unless renewed?
a) One month
b) Two months
c) Three months
d) Six months
Show Answer
Answer: b) Two months
66. What percentage of the world’s REE reserves does India hold?
a) 5%
b) 8%
c) 10%
d) 12%
Show Answer
Answer: b) 8%
67. India’s global ranking in REE reserves is:
a) 2nd largest
b) 3rd largest
c) 4th largest
d) 5th largest
Show Answer
Answer: b) 3rd largest
68. What percentage of global REE mining output comes from India?
a) Less than 1%
b) 2%
c) 5%
d) 8%
Show Answer
Answer: a) Less than 1%
69. Which country dominates REE refining capacity with approximately 90%?
a) USA
b) Australia
c) China
d) India
Show Answer
Answer: c) China
70. REEs in India are mainly found in which type of sands?
a) Silica sands
b) Monazite sands
c) Garnet sands
d) Ilmenite sands
Show Answer
Answer: b) Monazite sands
71. Which PSU is the only entity in India processing monazite to produce RE compounds?
a) NMDC
b) NALCO
c) IREL
d) MECL
Show Answer
Answer: c) IREL
72. IREL operates under which department?
a) Department of Atomic Energy
b) Ministry of Steel
c) Ministry of Mines
d) Ministry of Heavy Industries
Show Answer
Answer: a) Department of Atomic Energy
73. From which date will the 2025 Hazardous Wastes Amendment Rules become effective?
a) 1 January 2026
b) 1 April 2026
c) 1 July 2026
d) 1 October 2026
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1 April 2026
74. Which ministry notified the Amendment Rules 2025?
a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
b) Ministry of Heavy Industries
c) Ministry of Steel
d) Ministry of Mines
Show Answer
Answer: a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
75. The minimum recycling target for non-ferrous metals in 2026-2027 is:
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 20%
Show Answer
Answer: b) 10%
76. By 2032-2033, the recycling target for non-ferrous metals should reach:
a) 60%
b) 70%
c) 75%
d) 80%
Show Answer
Answer: c) 75%
77. EPR certificates are generated by:
a) Ministry of Environment
b) Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
c) State Pollution Control Boards
d) Bureau of Indian Standards
Show Answer
Answer: b) Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
78. The validity period of EPR certificates is:
a) 1 year
b) 2 years
c) 3 years
d) 5 years
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2 years
79. Which rules first introduced EPR formally in India?
a) Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016
b) E-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011
c) Battery Waste Management Rules, 2010
d) Hazardous Waste Management Rules, 2008
Show Answer
Answer: b) E-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011
80. India’s Prime Minister was conferred with which Brazilian honor in 2025?
a) Order of Rio Branco
b) Grand Collar of the National Order of the Southern Cross
c) Order of Scientific Merit
d) National Order of Merit
Show Answer
Answer: b) Grand Collar of the National Order of the Southern Cross
81. When was the India-Brazil Strategic Partnership established?
a) 2004
b) 2005
c) 2006
d) 2007
Show Answer
Answer: c) 2006
82. What was the bilateral trade between India and Brazil in 2024-25?
a) USD 10.50 billion
b) USD 12.20 billion
c) USD 14.30 billion
d) USD 16.40 billion
Show Answer
Answer: b) USD 12.20 billion
83. Which Brazilian organization signed an MoU with India’s ICAR?
a) EMBRAPA
b) PETROBRAS
c) BNDES
d) IBAMA
Show Answer
Answer: a) EMBRAPA
84. When was the Defence Cooperation Agreement between India and Brazil signed?
a) 2004
b) 2005
c) 2006
d) 2007
Show Answer
Answer: c) 2006
85. Brazil ratified the International Solar Alliance (ISA) Agreement in which year?
a) 2020
b) 2021
c) 2022
d) 2023
Show Answer
Answer: c) 2022
86. Bitchat app was developed by:
a) Elon Musk
b) Jack Dorsey
c) Mark Zuckerberg
d) Tim Cook
Show Answer
Answer: b) Jack Dorsey
87. Bitchat app works using which technology?
a) WiFi Direct
b) NFC
c) Bluetooth Low Energy (BLE) Mesh Networking
d) Satellite communication
Show Answer
Answer: c) Bluetooth Low Energy (BLE) Mesh Networking
88. What type of network topology does Bitchat use?
a) Star topology
b) Ring topology
c) Mesh topology
d) Bus topology
Show Answer
Answer: c) Mesh topology
89. Which of the following is NOT a key feature of Bitchat?
a) No central server
b) End-to-end encryption
c) High-speed data transfer
d) Auto-delete messages
Show Answer
Answer: c) High-speed data transfer
90. A major limitation of Bitchat is:
a) Requires internet connection
b) High latency
c) Expensive to use
d) Requires registration
Show Answer
Answer: b) High latency
91. The “Comprehensive Update on Terrorist Financing Risks” was released by which organization?
a) United Nations Security Council
b) Financial Action Task Force (FATF)
c) International Monetary Fund
d) World Bank
Show Answer
Answer: b) Financial Action Task Force (FATF)
92. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a key factor influencing terrorist financing risks?
a) Lone actors and small cells needing minimal funds
b) Porous borders in Africa and South Asia
c) State sponsorship of terrorism
d) Strong banking regulations
Show Answer
Answer: d) Strong banking regulations
93. Which terrorist groups are mentioned as using conventional cash-based methods?
a) Al-Shabaab and Hamas
b) Boko Haram and ISIS
c) Al-Qaeda and Taliban
d) Hezbollah and Hamas
Show Answer
Answer: a) Al-Shabaab and Hamas
94. Which terrorist group is specifically mentioned as using criminal activities for financing?
a) Al-Shabaab
b) Hamas
c) Boko Haram
d) ISIS
Show Answer
Answer: c) Boko Haram
95. The Aspirational DMF Programme is a flagship initiative by which ministry?
a) Ministry of Rural Development
b) Ministry of Mines
c) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
d) NITI Aayog
Show Answer
Answer: b) Ministry of Mines
96. District Mineral Foundation (DMF) was established under which section of the Mines and Minerals Act?
a) Section 9(A)
b) Section 9(B)
c) Section 10(A)
d) Section 10(B)
Show Answer
Answer: b) Section 9(B)
97. The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 was amended to include DMF in which year?
a) 2014
b) 2015
c) 2016
d) 2017
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2015
98. How many Aspirational Districts are currently covered under the programme?
a) 96
b) 106
c) 116
d) 126
Show Answer
Answer: b) 106
99. How many Aspirational Blocks are covered under the programme?
a) 463
b) 473
c) 483
d) 493
Show Answer
Answer: b) 473
100. The Petroleum Rules 2025 were released by which ministry?
a) Ministry of Environment
b) Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
c) Ministry of Heavy Industries
d) Ministry of Power
Show Answer
Answer: b) Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
101. The Petroleum Rules 2025 replace which outdated frameworks?
a) Petroleum Concession Rules, 1949 & Petroleum and Natural Gas Rules, 1959
b) Petroleum Concession Rules, 1950 & Petroleum and Natural Gas Rules, 1960
c) Oil and Gas Rules, 1948 & Petroleum Rules, 1958
d) Petroleum Act, 1949 & Gas Rules, 1959
Show Answer
Answer: a) Petroleum Concession Rules, 1949 & Petroleum and Natural Gas Rules, 1959
102. Under the new rules, site restoration funds require post-closure monitoring for minimum how many years?
a) 3 years
b) 5 years
c) 7 years
d) 10 years
Show Answer
Answer: b) 5 years
103. Which of the following renewable energy projects can operators undertake within oilfields?
a) Solar and Wind only
b) Solar, Wind, and Hydrogen only
c) Solar, Wind, Hydrogen, and Geothermal
d) Only Solar energy
Show Answer
Answer: c) Solar, Wind, Hydrogen, and Geothermal
104. Starlink was developed by which company?
a) Blue Origin
b) SpaceX
c) Virgin Galactic
d) Amazon
Show Answer
Answer: b) SpaceX
105. IN-SPACe granted Starlink authorization for how many years?
a) 3 years
b) 5 years
c) 7 years
d) 10 years
Show Answer
Answer: b) 5 years
106. What does IN-SPACe stand for?
a) Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Centre
b) Indian National Space Policy and Authorization Centre
c) Indian National Space Program and Authorization Centre
d) Indian National Space Projects and Authorization Centre
Show Answer
Answer: a) Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Centre
107. IN-SPACe is an autonomous body under which department?
a) Department of Science and Technology
b) Department of Space
c) Ministry of External Affairs
d) Prime Minister’s Office
Show Answer
Answer: b) Department of Space
108. Which company launched Vikram-S, India’s first private sub-orbital rocket?
a) Agnikul Cosmos
b) Skyroot Aerospace
c) Bellatrix Aerospace
d) Pixxel
Show Answer
Answer: b) Skyroot Aerospace
109. Namibia will be the first country in which continent to implement UPI?
a) Asia
b) Europe
c) Africa
d) South America
Show Answer
Answer: c) Africa
110. UPI was launched in which year?
a) 2015
b) 2016
c) 2017
d) 2018
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2016
111. Which was the first country to adopt UPI-based merchant payments?
a) Nepal
b) Bhutan
c) Sri Lanka
d) Singapore
Show Answer
Answer: b) Bhutan
112. What is the RBI-NPCI target for UPI expansion by 2028-29?
a) 15 countries
b) 20 countries
c) 25 countries
d) 30 countries
Show Answer
Answer: b) 20 countries
113. NPCI International Payments Ltd was established in which year?
a) 2019
b) 2020
c) 2021
d) 2022
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2020
114. The Admiralty (Jurisdiction and Settlement of Maritime Claims) Act was enacted in which year?
a) 2016
b) 2017
c) 2018
d) 2019
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2017
115. Which state government invoked the Admiralty Act to seek compensation for environmental damage?
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Karnataka
c) Kerala
d) Andhra Pradesh
Show Answer
Answer: c) Kerala
116. Under the Admiralty Act, which courts are designated as Admiralty Courts?
a) District Courts of coastal states
b) High Courts of coastal states
c) Supreme Court only
d) Special Maritime Tribunals
Show Answer
Answer: b) High Courts of coastal states
117. ERASR stands for:
a) Extended Range Anti-Ship Rocket
b) Extended Range Anti-Submarine Rocket
c) Enhanced Range Anti-Submarine Rocket
d) Enhanced Range Anti-Ship Rocket
Show Answer
Answer: b) Extended Range Anti-Submarine Rocket
118. ERASR was developed by which DRDO laboratory?
a) Armament Research & Development Establishment (ARDE), Pune
b) Defence Research & Development Laboratory (DRDL), Hyderabad
c) Research Centre Imarat (RCI), Hyderabad
d) Terminal Ballistics Research Laboratory (TBRL), Chandigarh
Show Answer
Answer: a) Armament Research & Development Establishment (ARDE), Pune
119. INS Nistar is India’s first indigenously designed and constructed:
a) Submarine
b) Aircraft Carrier
c) Diving Support Vessel
d) Destroyer
Show Answer
Answer: c) Diving Support Vessel
120. INS Nistar can support saturation diving up to what depth?
a) 200 m
b) 250 m
c) 300 m
d) 350 m
Show Answer
Answer: c) 300 m
121. In which year were State S&T Councils established?
a) 1970
b) 1971
c) 1972
d) 1973
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1971
122. According to NITI Aayog recommendations, what percentage of GSDP should states allocate as S&T budget?
a) 0.3%
b) 0.4%
c) 0.5%
d) 0.6%
Show Answer
Answer: c) 0.5%
123. What ratio of scientific to non-scientific staff should be maintained in State S&T Councils?
a) 60:40
b) 70:30
c) 80:20
d) 75:25
Show Answer
Answer: b) 70:30
124. Which of the following ancient universities is NOT mentioned as a global center of learning?
a) Takshashila
b) Nalanda
c) Taxila
d) Vikramashila
Show Answer
Answer: c) Taxila
125. When was the Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL) launched?
a) 2000
b) 2001
c) 2002
d) 2003
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2001
126. Which Act provides legal protection for traditional knowledge in India?
a) Indian Patents Act, 1970
b) Biological Diversity Act, 2002
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
Show Answer
Answer: c) Both a and b
127. When was the WTO established?
a) 1994
b) 1995
c) 1996
d) 1997
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1995
128. How many members does the WTO have (including India)?
a) 164
b) 165
c) 166
d) 167
Show Answer
Answer: c) 166
129. Since which year has the US blocked appointments to the WTO Appellate Body?
a) 2015
b) 2016
c) 2017
d) 2018
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2016
130. How many members are there in the WTO Appellate Body?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8
Show Answer
Answer: c) 7
131. What does WASH stand for?
a) Water, Air, Sanitation, Health
b) Water, Sanitation, and Hygiene
c) Water, Air, Safety, Hygiene
d) Water, Sanitation, Air, Health
Show Answer
Answer: b) Water, Sanitation, and Hygiene
132. According to the WASH Progress Tracker 2025, what percentage of countries have adequate funding to achieve WASH targets?
a) 15%
b) 17%
c) 19%
d) 21%
Show Answer
Answer: b) 17%
133. When was the Jal Jeevan Mission launched?
a) 2018
b) 2019
c) 2020
d) 2021
Show Answer
Answer: b) 2019
134. What is the current coverage of Jal Jeevan Mission in rural households?
a) 78.15%
b) 80.15%
c) 82.15%
d) 84.15%
Show Answer
Answer: b) 80.15%
135. Which education policy did NEP 2020 replace?
a) 1985 Policy
b) 1986 Policy
c) 1987 Policy
d) 1988 Policy
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1986 Policy
136. What is the current Gross Enrollment Ratio (GER) in higher education in India?
a) 26.4%
b) 27.4%
c) 28.4%
d) 29.4%
Show Answer
Answer: ac) 28.4%
137. What is the NEP 2020 target for GER by 2035?
a) 45%
b) 50%
c) 55%
d) 60%
Show Answer
Answer: b) 50%
138. How many resolutions are there in Panch Sankalpa?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
Show Answer
Answer: b) 5
139. ADCs are established under which Schedule of the Constitution?
a) Fifth Schedule
b) Sixth Schedule
c) Seventh Schedule
d) Eighth Schedule
Show Answer
Answer: b) Sixth Schedule
140. What is the maximum strength of members in an ADC?
a) 25
b) 30
c) 35
d) 40
Show Answer
Answer: b) 30
141. How many members can be nominated by the Governor in an ADC?
a) Up to 3
b) Up to 4
c) Up to 5
d) Up to 6
Show Answer
Answer: b) Up to 4
142. Which states does the Sixth Schedule apply to?
a) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram
b) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Nagaland
c) Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland
d) Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram, Nagaland
Show Answer
Answer: a) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram
143. Which Constitutional Amendment Act deals with Panchayats?
a) 72nd
b) 73rd
c) 74th
d) 75th
Show Answer
Answer: b) 73rd
144. What is the minimum reservation for women in local bodies?
a) 1/4th
b) 1/3rd
c) 1/2
d) 2/3rd
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1/3rd
145. What percentage reservation has Telangana approved for Backward Classes in local bodies?
a) 40%
b) 42%
c) 44%
d) 46%
Show Answer
Answer: b) 42%
146. What is the nickname of the S-400 system in India?
a) Brahmastra
b) Sudarshan Chakra
c) Vajra
d) Trishul
Show Answer
Answer: b) Sudarshan Chakra
147. What is the approximate value of the S-400 contract with Russia?
a) USD 5.2 billion
b) USD 5.4 billion
c) USD 5.6 billion
d) USD 5.8 billion
Show Answer
Answer: b) USD 5.4 billion
148. How many targets can the S-400 system engage simultaneously?
a) 32
b) 34
c) 36
d) 38
Show Answer
Answer: c) 36
149. What is the funding pattern for SDRF in General Category States?
a) 70:30 (Centre:State)
b) 75:25 (Centre:State)
c) 80:20 (Centre:State)
d) 85:15 (Centre:State)
Show Answer
Answer: b) 75:25 (Centre:State)
150. What is the funding pattern for SDRF in NE and Himalayan States?
a) 85:15
b) 90:10
c) 95:5
d) 100:0
Show Answer
Answer: b) 90:10
151. With the inclusion of Maratha Military Landscapes, India now has how many UNESCO World Heritage Sites?
a) 42
b) 43
c) 44
d) 45
Show Answer
Answer: c) 44
152. India’s current global rank in terms of number of UNESCO World Heritage Sites is:
a) 4th worldwide
b) 5th worldwide
c) 6th worldwide
d) 7th worldwide
Show Answer
Answer: c) 6th worldwide
153. The Maratha Military Landscapes represent which historical period?
a) 15th to 17th centuries CE
b) 16th to 18th centuries CE
c) 17th to 19th centuries CE
d) 18th to 20th centuries CE
Show Answer
Answer: c) 17th to 19th centuries CE
154. Which of the following forts is NOT part of the Maratha Military Landscapes in Maharashtra?
a) Raigad
b) Shivneri
c) Gingee
d) Sindhudurg
Show Answer
Answer: c) Gingee (it’s in Tamil Nadu)
155. The nodal agency in India responsible for World Heritage recognition is:
a) Ministry of Culture
b) Archaeological Survey of India (ASI)
c) National Museum
d) Indian Council of Historical Research
Show Answer
Answer: b) Archaeological Survey of India (ASI)
156. Which organization is responsible for the final decision on World Heritage Site recognition?
a) UNESCO General Assembly
b) International Council on Monuments and Sites (ICOMOS)
c) World Heritage Committee
d) International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
Show Answer
Answer: c) World Heritage Committee
157. The full form of PM E-DRIVE is:
a) PM Electric Drive Revolution in Innovative Vehicle Enhancement
b) PM Electric Development Revolution in India Vehicle Enhancement
c) PM Electric Drive Revolution in Indian Vehicle Environment
d) PM Electric Development Revolution in Innovative Vehicle Enhancement
Show Answer
Answer: a) PM Electric Drive Revolution in Innovative Vehicle Enhancement
158. The maximum subsidy amount per vehicle under the e-truck incentive scheme is:
a) ₹8.5 lakh
b) ₹9.6 lakh
c) ₹10.2 lakh
d) ₹11.5 lakh
Show Answer
Answer: b) ₹9.6 lakh
159. Diesel trucks account for what percentage of vehicle fleet but generate what percentage of road transport emissions?
a) 3% fleet, 42% emissions
b) 5% fleet, 40% emissions
c) 4% fleet, 45% emissions
d) 2% fleet, 38% emissions
Show Answer
Answer: a) 3% fleet, 42% emissions
160. The N3 category of trucks under the e-truck scheme includes vehicles with GVW:
a) Above 3.5 tonnes up to 12 tonnes
b) Exceeding 12 tonnes up to 55 tonnes
c) Above 5 tonnes up to 15 tonnes
d) Exceeding 15 tonnes up to 50 tonnes
Show Answer
Answer: b) Exceeding 12 tonnes up to 55 tonnes
161. Which ministry implements the PM E-DRIVE initiative?
a) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
b) Ministry of Environment and Climate Change
c) Ministry of Heavy Industries (MHI)
d) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
Show Answer
Answer: c) Ministry of Heavy Industries (MHI)
162. Unlike FAME-II, PM E-DRIVE includes which additional vehicle categories?
a) e-trucks and e-ambulances
b) e-buses and e-rickshaws
c) e-cars and e-motorcycles
d) e-scooters and e-cycles
Show Answer
Answer: a) e-trucks and e-ambulances
163. Geothermal energy originates from:
a) Solar radiation absorbed by Earth
b) Residual heat from planet formation and radioactive decay
c) Tidal forces and lunar gravity
d) Atmospheric pressure variations
Show Answer
Answer: b) Residual heat from planet formation and radioactive decay
164. According to the Geothermal Atlas of India (2022), India’s estimated geothermal capacity is:
a) ~8,500 MW
b) ~9,800 MW
c) ~10,600 MW
d) ~12,200 MW
Show Answer
Answer: c) ~10,600 MW
165. Which geothermal fields are mentioned as highly promising zones in Ladakh?
a) Manikaran and Sohana
b) Puga and Chumathang
c) Dholera and Tuwa
d) Tattapani and Godavari Basin
Show Answer
Answer: b) Puga and Chumathang
166. Enhanced Geothermal Systems (EGS) are classified as:
a) Conventional geothermal systems
b) Next-generation systems
c) Hydrothermal reservoirs
d) Surface thermal systems
Show Answer
Answer: b) Next-generation systems
167. India has geothermal partnerships with all of the following countries EXCEPT:
a) Iceland
b) Saudi Arabia
c) USA
d) Germany
Show Answer
Answer: d) Germany
168. The RE-RTD programme supports innovation in:
a) Conventional geothermal systems only
b) Next-generation geothermal systems
c) Solar thermal systems
d) Wind energy systems
Show Answer
Answer: b) Next-generation geothermal systems
169. EFTA member countries include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Switzerland
b) Norway
c) Denmark
d) Iceland
Show Answer
Answer: c) Denmark
170. Under the TEPA agreement, EFTA countries have committed to invest how much in India over 15 years?
a) $80 billion
b) $90 billion
c) $100 billion
d) $120 billion
Show Answer
Answer: c) $100 billion
171. The TEPA agreement is expected to create how many direct jobs?
a) 800,000
b) 1 million
c) 1.2 million
d) 1.5 million
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1 million
172. The intellectual property provisions in TEPA adhere to standards set by:
a) WTO’s TRIPS Agreement
b) WIPO Convention
c) Berne Convention
d) Paris Convention
Show Answer
Answer: a) WTO’s TRIPS Agreement
173. The Ravi and Beas Waters Tribunal was constituted in:
a) 1984
b) 1986
c) 1988
d) 1990
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1986
174. The ISRWD Act, 1956 draws its authority from which article of the Indian Constitution?
a) Article 260
b) Article 261
c) Article 262
d) Article 263
Show Answer
Answer: c) Article 262
175. Once a water dispute is referred to a tribunal under ISRWD Act:
a) Supreme Court can still intervene
b) High Courts retain jurisdiction
c) Neither Supreme Court nor any other court can intervene
d) Only District Courts lose jurisdiction
Show Answer
Answer: c) Neither Supreme Court nor any other court can intervene
176. The tribunal’s award, once published, holds the same force as:
a) High Court decree
b) Supreme Court decree
c) Executive order
d) Parliamentary resolution
Show Answer
Answer: b) Supreme Court decree
177. AIANET currently has how many member institutions and organizations?
a) 15
b) 17
c) 19
d) 21
Show Answer
Answer: b) 17
178. AIANET is administered by:
a) AI Alliance USA
b) AI Alliance Europe
c) AI Alliance Russia
d) AI Alliance Global
Show Answer
Answer: c) AI Alliance Russia
179. The Astra missile is classified as:
a) Surface-to-Air Missile (SAM)
b) Beyond Visual Range Air-to-Air Missile (BVRAAM)
c) Anti-Tank Guided Missile (ATGM)
d) Cruise Missile
Show Answer
Answer: b) Beyond Visual Range Air-to-Air Missile (BVRAAM)
180. The range of the Astra missile:
a) Exceeds 50 km
b) Exceeds 75 km
c) Exceeds 100 km
d) Exceeds 150 km
Show Answer
Answer: c) Exceeds 100 km
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