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8 to 14 December 2025 (Weekly Current Affairs Quiz)

Practice the December 2025 2nd Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the first week of December 2025. 

The Current Affairs Quiz of 8 to 14 December features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.

2nd Week of December 2025: Current Affairs Quiz

1. What is the current bilateral trade volume between India and Russia (2024-25)?

A) $58.7 billion
B) $63.7 billion
C) $68.7 billion
D) $73.7 billion

Show Answer

Answer: C) $68.7 billion


2. What is the trade target between India and Russia by 2030?

A) $75 billion
B) $85 billion
C) $100 billion
D) $125 billion

Show Answer

Answer: C) $100 billion


3. When was the India-Russia Strategic Partnership Declaration signed?

A) 1998
B) 2000
C) 2002
D) 2005

Show Answer

Answer: B) 2000


4. When was the partnership elevated to “Special and Privileged Strategic Partnership”?

A) 2008
B) 2010
C) 2012
D) 2014

Show Answer

Answer: B) 2010


5. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a connectivity initiative?

A) International North-South Transport Corridor
B) Chennai-Vladivostok Maritime Corridor
C) Northern Sea Route
D) Trans-Siberian Railway Corridor

Show Answer

Answer: D) Trans-Siberian Railway Corridor


6. What India-led alliance did Russia formally join?

A) International Solar Alliance
B) International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA)
C) Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure
D) International Renewable Energy Alliance

Show Answer

Answer: B) International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA)


7. How many days of visa-free e-tourist entry was introduced for Russian citizens?

A) 15 days
B) 20 days
C) 30 days
D) 45 days

Show Answer

Answer: C) 30 days


8. Which company filed the patent infringement suit?

A) Pfizer
B) Novo Nordisk
C) Merck
D) GlaxoSmithKline

Show Answer

Answer: B) Novo Nordisk


9. What is the name of the drug involved in the patent case?

A) Metformin
B) Insulin
C) Semaglutide
D) Liraglutide

Show Answer

Answer: C) Semaglutide


10. Under which global brands is semaglutide marketed?

A) Lantus and Levemir
B) Ozempic and Wegovy
C) Victoza and Trulicity
D) Jardiance and Invokana

Show Answer

Answer: B) Ozempic and Wegovy


11. Which section of the Patents Act, 1970 prohibits evergreening?

A) Section 3(b)
B) Section 3(c)
C) Section 3(d)
D) Section 3(e)

Show Answer

Answer: C) Section 3(d)


12. When was the Patents Act enacted in India?

A) 1968
B) 1970
C) 1972
D) 1975

Show Answer

Answer: B) 1970


13. Which Article of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights recognizes the right to rest and leisure?

A) Article 21
B) Article 23
C) Article 24
D) Article 25

Show Answer

Answer: C) Article 24


14. Which country passed the first national law recognizing the right to disconnect?

A) Australia
B) Germany
C) France
D) Sweden

Show Answer

Answer: C) France


15. When was France’s El Khomri Law enacted?

A) 2015
B) 2016
C) 2017
D) 2018

Show Answer

Answer: C) 2017


16. In which year did Australia amend the Fair Work Act to include right to disconnect?

A) 2022
B) 2023
C) 2024
D) 2025

Show Answer

Answer: C) 2024


17. According to studies, beyond how many working hours per week does productivity drop significantly?

A) 40 hours
B) 45 hours
C) 50 hours
D) 55 hours

Show Answer

Answer: C) 50 hours


18. Under which SEBI Regulations do InvITs operate?

A) SEBI (Infrastructure Investment Trusts) Regulations, 2012
B) SEBI (Infrastructure Investment Trusts) Regulations, 2014
C) SEBI (Infrastructure Investment Trusts) Regulations, 2016
D) SEBI (Infrastructure Investment Trusts) Regulations, 2018

Show Answer

Answer: B) SEBI (Infrastructure Investment Trusts) Regulations, 2014


19. What percentage of net distributable cash flows must InvITs distribute to unit holders?

A) At least 80%
B) At least 85%
C) At least 90%
D) At least 95%

Show Answer

Answer: C) At least 90%


20. What is the name of NHAI’s Infrastructure Investment Trust?

A) Bharatmarg Infra Investment Trust
B) Raajmarg Infra Investment Trust
C) Surajmarg Infra Investment Trust
D) Devmarg Infra Investment Trust

Show Answer

Answer: B) Raajmarg Infra Investment Trust


21. What does UMEED stand for?

A) Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency and Development
B) Universal Muslim Empowerment and Economic Development
C) Unified Management for Economic Empowerment and Development
D) United Minority Empowerment and Educational Development

Show Answer

Answer: A) Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency and Development


22. Under which Act does the UMEED Portal operate?

A) Waqf Act, 1993
B) Waqf Act, 1995
C) Waqf Act, 1997
D) Waqf Act, 2000

Show Answer

Answer: B) Waqf Act, 1995


23. For how many months has the penalty for delayed registration on UMEED Portal been waived?

A) Two months
B) Three months
C) Four months
D) Six months

Show Answer

Answer: B) Three months


24. Which product is initially covered under the capacity-based cess in the Health Security Bill?

A) Cigarettes
B) Alcohol
C) Pan masala
D) Soft drinks

Show Answer

Answer: C) Pan masala


25. By how many basis points did RBI reduce the repo rate?

A) 15 basis points
B) 20 basis points
C) 25 basis points
D) 30 basis points

Show Answer

Answer: C) 25 basis points


26. What is the new repo rate after RBI’s reduction?

A) 5.00%
B) 5.25%
C) 5.50%
D) 5.75%

Show Answer

Answer: B) 5.25%


27. What is the projected GDP growth mentioned in the Goldilocks economy context?

A) 6.8%
B) 7.0%
C) 7.3%
D) 7.5%

Show Answer

Answer: C) 7.3%


28. What is the current inflation rate mentioned?

A) Around 1%
B) Around 2%
C) Around 3%
D) Around 4%

Show Answer

Answer: B) Around 2%


29. Under which Act does DGCA issue rules?

A) Aircraft Act, 1932
B) Aircraft Act, 1934
C) Aircraft Act, 1936
D) Aircraft Act, 1938

Show Answer

Answer: B) Aircraft Act, 1934


30. Which organization handles aircraft accident investigations (not DGCA)?

A) AAIB
B) BCAS
C) AAI
D) CAA

Show Answer

Answer: A) AAIB


31. What are stablecoins typically pegged to?

A) Gold reserves
B) Stock market indices
C) Stable value like fiat currency
D) Commodity prices

Show Answer

Answer: C) Stable value like fiat currency


32. Who typically issues stablecoins?

A) Central banks
B) Government treasuries
C) Centralized entities such as crypto firms or financial institutions
D) Decentralized autonomous organizations only

Show Answer

Answer: C) Centralized entities such as crypto firms or financial institutions


33. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a risk of stablecoins?

A) Run Risk
B) Currency Substitution
C) Banking Disintermediation
D) Blockchain congestion

Show Answer

Answer: D) Blockchain congestion


34. What could happen during a stablecoin run?

A) Increased lending capacity
B) Mass redemptions forcing fire sales of reserves
C) Automatic currency appreciation
D) Enhanced monetary stability

Show Answer

Answer: B) Mass redemptions forcing fire sales of reserves


35. What does IMF recommend as an alternative to stablecoins?

A) Gold-backed currencies
B) Central Bank Digital Currencies (CBDCs)
C) Cryptocurrency derivatives
D) Commodity-backed tokens

Show Answer

Answer: B) Central Bank Digital Currencies (CBDCs)


36. Through which Constitutional Amendment was the 10th Schedule added?

A) 50th Amendment Act
B) 52nd Amendment Act
C) 54th Amendment Act
D) 56th Amendment Act

Show Answer

Answer: B) 52nd Amendment Act


37. In which year was the 10th Schedule added to the Constitution?

A) 1983
B) 1985
C) 1987
D) 1989

Show Answer

Answer: B) 1985


38. What phrase describes the unprincipled defections that the 10th Schedule aimed to prevent?

A) “Party-hopping politics”
B) “Aaya Ram-Gaya Ram politics”
C) “Floor-crossing syndrome”
D) “Political turncoat culture”

Show Answer

Answer: B) “Aaya Ram-Gaya Ram politics”


39. Which Law Commission suggested using whips only on critical votes?

A) 160th Law Commission
B) 165th Law Commission
C) 170th Law Commission
D) 175th Law Commission

Show Answer

Answer: C) 170th Law Commission


40. Which Article does the whip system potentially undermine according to critics?

A) Article 19(1)(a) – Freedom of speech and expression
B) Article 21 – Right to life
C) Article 14 – Equality before law
D) Article 25 – Freedom of religion

Show Answer

Answer: A) Article 19(1)(a) – Freedom of speech and expression


41. Does the whip have constitutional or statutory status?

A) Yes, constitutional status
B) Yes, statutory status
C) No, only political enforcement
D) Yes, both constitutional and statutory

Show Answer

Answer: C) No, only political enforcement


42. Where is the IAEA headquarters located?

A) Geneva, Switzerland
B) Vienna, Austria
C) New York, USA
D) Brussels, Belgium

Show Answer

Answer: B) Vienna, Austria


43. When was the IAEA established?

A) 1955
B) 1957
C) 1959
D) 1961

Show Answer

Answer: B) 1957


44. How many member countries does the IAEA have?

A) 170
B) 175
C) 180
D) 185

Show Answer

Answer: C) 180


45. When did the IAEA receive the Nobel Peace Prize?

A) 2003
B) 2005
C) 2007
D) 2009

Show Answer

Answer: B) 2005


46. What is the protective structure at Chernobyl called?

A) Safe Containment Structure
B) New Safe Confinement
C) Nuclear Protection Shield
D) Radiation Barrier System

Show Answer

Answer: B) New Safe Confinement


47. Which of the following countries is mentioned as a non-NPT member that IAEA cannot fully inspect?

A) China
B) France
C) India
D) United Kingdom

Show Answer

Answer:C) India


48.Can IAEA inspect military nuclear facilities?

A) Yes, all facilities
B) Yes, but only with permission
C) No, it cannot inspect military facilities
D) Yes, in NPT member states only

Show Answer

Answer: C) No, it cannot inspect military facilities


49. Which two countries signed the Washington Accord?

A) Uganda and DRC
B) Rwanda and Burundi
C) DRC and Rwanda
D) Kenya and Rwanda

Show Answer

Answer: C) DRC and Rwanda


50. What percentage of global cobalt supply does DRC produce?

A) 50%
B) 60%
C) 70%
D) 80%

Show Answer

Answer: C) 70%


51. Which rebel group is mentioned as causing conflict in eastern DRC?

A) M21 rebels
B) M23 rebels
C) M25 rebels
D) M27 rebels

Show Answer

Answer: B) M23 rebels


52. Which country facilitated the Washington Accord?

A) France
B) United Kingdom
C) United States
D) China

Show Answer

Answer: C) United States


53. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a mineral resource in eastern DRC?

A) Copper
B) Cobalt
C) Lithium
D) Tungsten

Show Answer

Answer: C) Lithium


54. Which regions in eastern DRC are mentioned as affected by conflict?

A) Katanga, Kivu, and Ituri
B) Kinshasa, Kasai, and Kongo
C) Bandundu, Bas-Congo, and Equateur
D) Maniema, Nord-Kivu, and Sud-Ubangi

Show Answer

Answer: A) Katanga, Kivu, and Ituri


55. What is the length of the Shyok Tunnel?

A) 820 meters
B) 870 meters
C) 920 meters
D) 970meters

Show Answer

Answer: C) 920 meters


56. Which organization constructed the Shyok Tunnel?

A) National Highways Authority of India
B) Border Roads Organisation (BRO)
C) Indian Army Engineering Corps
D) Ministry of Road Transport

Show Answer

Answer: B) Border Roads Organisation (BRO)


57. What type of tunnel is the Shyok Tunnel?

A) Drill-and-blast tunnel
B) TBM (Tunnel Boring Machine) tunnel
C) Cut-and-cover tunnel
D) Immersed tube tunnel

Show Answer

Answer: C) Cut-and-cover tunnel


58. Where is the Shyok Tunnel located?

A) Western Ladakh
B) Eastern Ladakh
C) Northern Kashmir
D) Southern Ladakh

Show Answer

Answer: B) Eastern Ladakh


59. Which road does the Shyok Tunnel connect?

A) Leh-Manali Road
B) Srinagar-Leh Road
C) Durbuk-Shyok-Daulat Beg Oldie (DS-DBO) Road
D) Kargil-Zanskar Road

Show Answer

Answer: C) Durbuk-Shyok-Daulat Beg Oldie (DS-DBO) Road


60. What does DBO stand for in the context of the tunnel?

A) Daulat Border Outpost
B) Defense Border Operation
C) Daulat Beg Oldie
D) Defense Battalion Office

Show Answer

Answer: C) Daulat Beg Oldie


61. What percentage of seats in State Bar Councils must be reserved for women according to the Supreme Court directive?

A) 25%
B) 30%
C) 33%
D) 35%

Show Answer

Answer: B) 30%


62. For 2025, what percentage of seats will be filled through election of women members?

A) 15%
B) 20%
C) 25%
D) 30%

Show Answer

Answer: B) 20%


63. For 2025, what percentage of seats will be filled by co-option?

A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 15%
D) 20%

Show Answer

Answer: B) 10%


64. Under which Act are Bar Councils established?

A) Advocates Act, 1959
B) Advocates Act, 1961
C) Bar Council Act, 1961
D) Legal Practitioners Act, 1963

Show Answer

Answer: B) Advocates Act, 1961


65. How many women members are there in the Bar Council of India out of 20 members?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 0
D) 3

Show Answer

Answer: C) 0


66. How many women members are there in State Bar Councils out of 441 members?

A) 7
B) 9
C) 11
D) 13

Show Answer

Answer: B) 9


67. What is the percentage of women judges in High Courts?

A) 11.4%
B) 13.4%
C) 15.4%
D) 17.4%

Show Answer

Answer: B) 13.4%


68. How many women judges have served in the Supreme Court since independence?

A) 9
B) 11
C) 13
D) 15

Show Answer

Answer: B) 11


69. What percentage of judges in the District Judiciary are women according to State of Judiciary Report 2023?

A) 32.3%
B) 34.3%
C) 36.3%
D) 38.3%

Show Answer

Answer: C) 36.3%


70. When was the International Big Cat Alliance launched?

A) 2021
B) 2022
C) 2023
D) 2024

Show Answer

Answer: C) 2023


71. How many big cat species does IBCA aim to conserve?

A) Five
B) Six
C) Seven
D) Eight

Show Answer

Answer: C) Seven


72. Where is the IBCA Secretariat located?

A) Mumbai, India
B) New Delhi, India
C) Geneva, Switzerland
D) Nairobi, Kenya

Show Answer

Answer: B) New Delhi, India


73. How many range countries are part of IBCA?

A) 85
B) 90
C) 95
D) 100

Show Answer

Answer: C) 95


74. How many member countries does IBCA have?

A) 15
B) 18
C) 21
D) 24

Show Answer

Answer: B) 18


75. How many observer countries does IBCA have?

A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5

Show Answer

Answer: B) 3


76. When will the Global Big Cats Summit be hosted in New Delhi?

A) 2025
B) 2026
C) 2027
D) 2028

Show Answer

Answer: B) 2026


77. What is the apex decision-making body of IBCA?

A) IBCA Council
B) IBCA Board
C) IBCA Assembly
D) IBCA Committee

Show Answer

Answer: C) IBCA Assembly


78. Which of the following big cats is NOT found in India?

A) Tiger
B) Snow Leopard
C) Puma
D) Cheetah

Show Answer

Answer: C) Puma


79. Which of the following big cats is found in India?

A) Jaguar
B) Puma
C) Leopard
D) Cougar

Show Answer

Answer: C) Leopard


80. Which big cat species lives in prides unlike other solitary species?

A) Tiger
B) Lion
C) Leopard
D) Cheetah

Show Answer

Answer: B) Lion


81. When was the Indian Statistical Institute founded?

A) 1929
B) 1931
C) 1933
D) 1935

Show Answer

Answer: B) 1931


82. Who founded the Indian Statistical Institute?

A) C.R. Rao
B) P.C. Mahalanobis
C) Calyampudi Radhakrishna Rao
D) Samarendra Nath Roy

Show Answer

Answer: B) P.C. Mahalanobis


83. Under which Act was ISI initially registered in 1932?

A) Companies Act, 1860
B) Societies Registration Act, 1860
C) Indian Trusts Act, 1882
D) Registration Act, 1908

Show Answer

Answer: B) Societies Registration Act, 1860


84. Under which Act was ISI re-registered?

A) Societies Registration Act, 1860
B) West Bengal Societies Registration Act, 1961
C) Companies Act, 1956
D) Indian Trusts Act, 1961

Show Answer

Answer: B) West Bengal Societies Registration Act, 1961


85. When was ISI granted Institute of National Importance status?

A) 1957
B) 1959
C) 1961
D) 1963

Show Answer

Answer: B) 1959


86. Where is the ISI headquarters located?

A) Mumbai, Maharashtra
B) New Delhi
C) Kolkata, West Bengal
D) Chennai, Tamil Nadu

Show Answer

Answer: C) Kolkata, West Bengal


87. Which major organization was developed by ISI?

A) Central Statistical Office
B) National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO)
C) Indian Statistical Service
D) Census of India

Show Answer

Answer: B) National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO)


88. Under which Act were CAFE norms notified?

A) Environment Protection Act, 1986
B) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
C) Energy Conservation Act, 2001
D) Motor Vehicles Act, 1988

Show Answer

Answer: C) Energy Conservation Act, 2001


89. When was CAFE I first notified?

A) 2015
B) 2016
C) 2017
D) 2018

Show Answer

Answer: C) 2017


90. What is the maximum Gross Vehicle Weight (GVW) for vehicles covered under CAFE norms?

A) <2,500 kg
B) <3,000 kg
C) <3,500 kg
D) <4,000 kg

Show Answer

Answer: C) <3,500 kg


91. When was Aditya-L1 launched?

A) July 2023
B) August 2023
C) September 2023
D) October 2023

Show Answer

Answer: C) September 2023


92. Which launch vehicle was used to launch Aditya-L1?

A) PSLV-C55
B) PSLV-C56
C) PSLV-C57
D) PSLV-C58

Show Answer

Answer: C) PSLV-C57


93. How far is Lagrange Point L1 from Earth?

A) ~1.0 million km
B) ~1.5 million km
C) ~2.0 million km
D) ~2.5 million km

Show Answer

Answer: B) ~1.5 million km


94. How many payloads/instruments does Aditya-L1 carry?

A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8

Show Answer

Answer: C) 7


95. What does VELC stand for?

A) Visible Energy Line Coronagraph
B) Visible Emission Line Coronagraph
C) Visual Emission Light Coronagraph
D) Visible Electromagnetic Line Coronagraph

Show Answer

Answer: B) Visible Emission Line Coronagraph


96. What does SUIT stand for?

A) Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope
B) Solar Ultra-high Intensity Telescope
C) Solar UV Instrument Telescope
D) Solar Unit for Imaging Technology

Show Answer

Answer: A) Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope


97. What is the scientific process where magnetic field lines snap and rejoin?

A) Magnetic polarization
B) Magnetic reversal
C) Magnetic reconnection
D) Magnetic alignment

Show Answer

Answer: C) Magnetic reconnection


98. What is the core agenda of the new U.S. National Security Strategy?

A) America First
B) Make America Great Again (MAGA)
C) Global Leadership
D) Liberal Democracy

Show Answer

Answer: B) Make America Great Again (MAGA)


99. Which doctrine does the new NSS reassert regarding the Western Hemisphere?

A) Truman Doctrine
B) Monroe Doctrine (1823)
C) Eisenhower Doctrine
D) Bush Doctrine

Show Answer

Answer: B) Monroe Doctrine (1823)


100. When was the Monroe Doctrine originally proclaimed?

A) 1803
B) 1813
C) 1823
D) 1833

Show Answer

Answer: C) 1823


101. Which grouping is mentioned in the context of India-US cooperation?

A) BRICS
B) SCO
C) QUAD
D) G7

Show Answer

Answer: C) QUAD


102. What new ideological concept does the NSS introduce?

A) Democratic pluralism
B) Civilizational pluralism
C) Cultural relativism
D) Geopolitical realism

Show Answer

Answer: B) Civilizational pluralism


103. What is the average age of drug initiation among schoolchildren in India?

A) 11.9 years
B) 12.9 years
C) 13.9 years
D) 14.9 years

Show Answer

Answer: B) 12.9 years


104. At what age is the youngest initiation of inhalants reported?

A) 10.3 years
B) 11.3 years
C) 12.3 years
D) 13.3 years

Show Answer

Answer: B) 11.3 years


105. What percentage of students reported lifetime use of psychoactive substances?

A) 12.1%
B) 13.1%
C) 14.1%
D) 15.1%

Show Answer

Answer: D) 15.1%


106. What percentage reported past-year use?

A) 8.3%
B) 9.3%
C) 10.3%
D) 11.3%

Show Answer

Answer: C) 10.3%


107. Where was CITES CoP20 held?

A) Geneva, Switzerland
B) Nairobi, Kenya
C) Samarkand, Uzbekistan
D) Bangkok, Thailand

Show Answer

Answer: C) Samarkand, Uzbekistan


108. How many species were added to CITES Appendices at CoP20?

A) 67
B) 72
C) 77
D) 82

Show Answer

Answer: C) 77


109. When did CITES come into force?

A) July 1, 1973
B) July 1, 1975
C) July 1, 1977
D) July 1, 1979

Show Answer

Answer: B) July 1, 1975


110. How many Parties does CITES have (including India)?

A) 175
B) 180
C) 185
D) 190

Show Answer

Answer: C) 185


111. Which CITES Appendix offers the highest protection with a ban on commercial trade?

A) Appendix I
B) Appendix II
C) Appendix III
D) Appendix IV

Show Answer

Answer: A) Appendix I


112. Which species did India oppose listing in Appendix II?

A) Sandalwood
B) Guggul (Commiphora wightii)
C) Neem
D) Tulsi

Show Answer

Answer: B) Guggul (Commiphora wightii)


113. What is the purpose of a Blue Notice?

A) Arrest wanted persons
B) Locate missing persons
C) Collect additional information about a person’s identity, location, or activities
D) Warn about dangerous persons

Show Answer

Answer: C) Collect additional information about a person’s identity, location, or activities


114. Which Interpol Notice seeks location and arrest of wanted persons?

A) Blue Notice
B) Red Notice
C) Yellow Notice
D) Green Notice

Show Answer

Answer: B) Red Notice


115. Which notice helps locate missing persons, especially children?

A) Blue Notice
B) Orange Notice
C) Yellow Notice
D) Green Notice

Show Answer

Answer: C) Yellow Notice


116. Which notice warns about serious and imminent threats?

A) Orange Notice
B) Green Notice
C) Purple Notice
D) Black Notice

Show Answer

Answer: A) Orange Notice


117. By which year does India aim to become a global 6G leader?

A) 2028
B) 2029
C) 2030
D) 2032

Show Answer

Answer: C) 2030


118. What is the target latency for 6G technology?

A) 10 microseconds
B) 5 microseconds
C) 1 microsecond
D) 0.5 microseconds

Show Answer

Answer: C) 1 microsecond


119. How many times faster is 6G response time compared to 5G?

A) 100 times
B) 500 times
C) 1,000 times
D) 5,000 times

Show Answer

Answer: C) 1,000 times


120. Under which Act is Mephedrone classified as a controlled substance?

A) NDPS Act, 1980
B) NDPS Act, 1985
C) NDPS Act, 1990
D) Drugs Act, 1940

Show Answer

Answer: B) NDPS Act, 1985


121. What percentage of global wealth is owned by the top 1%?

A) 32%
B) 35%
C) 37%
D) 40%

Show Answer

Answer: C) 37%


122. What percentage of global wealth is owned by the top 10%?

A) 70%
B) 75%
C) 80%
D) 85%

Show Answer

Answer: B) 75%


123. In India, what percentage of national wealth is held by the top 1%?

A) ~35%
B) ~40%
C) ~45%
D) ~50%

Show Answer

Answer: B) ~40%


124. In India, what percentage of national wealth is held by the top 10%?

A) ~60%
B) ~65%
C) ~70%
D) ~75%

Show Answer

Answer: B) ~65%


125. At what rate has billionaire wealth grown annually since the 1990s?

A) 6%
B) 7%
C) 8%
D) 9%

Show Answer

Answer: C) 8%


126. What percentage of global carbon emissions are the top 10% responsible for?

A) 67%
B) 72%
C) 77%
D) 82%

Show Answer

Answer: C) 77%


127. What percentage of global carbon emissions do the poorest 50% contribute?

A) 1%
B) 3%
C) 5%
D) 7%

Show Answer

Answer: B) 3%


128. How many billion units (BUs) did NPCIL surpass for the first time in FY 2024-25?

A) 40 BUs
B) 45 BUs
C) 50 BUs
D) 55 BUs

Show Answer

Answer: C) 50 BUs


129. How many million tonnes of CO2 emissions were avoided due to this record generation?

A) Nearly 39 million tonnes
B) Nearly 44 million tonnes
C) Nearly 49 million tonnes
D) Nearly 54 million tonnes

Show Answer

Answer: C) Nearly 49 million tonnes


130. As of July 2025, what percentage of India’s total electricity generation comes from nuclear energy?

A) ~2%
B) ~3%
C) ~4%
D) ~5%

Show Answer

Answer: B) ~3%


131. What is India’s target for nuclear power capacity by 2047?

A) 75 GW
B) 85 GW
C) 100 GW
D) 125 GW

Show Answer

Answer: C) 100 GW


132. What is the maximum power output of Small Modular Reactors (SMRs)?

A) Up to 200 MW(e)
B) Up to 250 MW(e)
C) Up to 300 MW(e)
D) Up to 350 MW(e)

Show Answer

Answer: C) Up to 300 MW(e)


133. What is the capacity of indigenous Bharat Small Reactors (BSRs)?

A) 200 MW
B) 220 MW
C) 250 MW
D) 270 MW

Show Answer

Answer: B) 220 MW


134. What is the capacity of the indigenously designed PHWR units at Kakrapar?

A) 500 MWe
B) 600 MWe
C) 700 MWe
D) 800 MWe

Show Answer

Answer: C) 700 MWe


135. How many units are planned in the Mahi Banswara Rajasthan Atomic Power Project?

A) 2 units
B) 3 units
C) 4 units
D) 5 units

Show Answer

Answer: C) 4 units


136. On which day of the Hindu calendar is Deepavali celebrated?

A) Kartik Purnima
B) Kartik Amavasya
C) Chaitra Purnima
D) Ashwin Amavasya

Show Answer

Answer: B) Kartik Amavasya


137. How many elements does India now have on the UNESCO ICH Representative List?

A) 14
B) 15
C) 16
D) 17

Show Answer

Answer: C) 16


138. When was the UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage Convention adopted?

A) 17 October 2001
B) 17 October 2003
C) 17 October 2005
D) 17 October 2007

Show Answer

Answer: B) 17 October 2003


139. Where was the 20th Session of the Intergovernmental Committee held?

A) Paris, France
B) UNESCO Headquarters
C) Red Fort, New Delhi
D) Taj Mahal, Agra

Show Answer

Answer: C) Red Fort, New Delhi


140. Which festival celebrates the sibling bond during Deepavali festivities?

A) Dhanteras
B) Naraka Chaturdashi
C) Lakshmi Puja
D) Bhai Dooj

Show Answer

Answer: D) Bhai Dooj


141. When was the National Quantum Mission approved?

A) 2021
B) 2022
C) 2023
D) 2024

Show Answer

Answer: C) 2023


142. What is the budget allocated for the National Quantum Mission?

A) ₹5000 crore
B) ₹6000 crore
C) ₹7000 crore
D) ₹8000 crore

Show Answer

Answer: B) ₹6000 crore


143. What is the duration of the National Quantum Mission?

A) 2023-2029
B) 2023-2030
C) 2023-2031
D) 2023-2032

Show Answer

Answer: C) 2023-2031


144. Which Act governs contempt proceedings in India?

A) Contempt of Courts Act, 1969
B) Contempt of Courts Act, 1971
C) Contempt of Courts Act, 1973
D) Contempt of Courts Act, 1975

Show Answer

Answer: B) Contempt of Courts Act, 1971


145. Which Article gives the Supreme Court power to punish for contempt of itself?

A) Article 127
B) Article 129
C) Article 131
D) Article 133

Show Answer

Answer: B) Article 129


146. Which Article gives High Courts power to punish for contempt?

A) Article 213
B) Article 215
C) Article 217
D) Article 219

Show Answer

Answer: B) Article 215


147. What is GlowCas9 fused with to produce light?

A) Enzyme from deep-sea jellyfish
B) Enzyme from deep-sea shrimp
C) Enzyme from fireflies
D) Enzyme from bioluminescent algae

Show Answer

Answer: B) Enzyme from deep-sea shrimp


148. What does RAMBHA-LP stand for?

A) Radio Anatomy of Moon Bound Hypersensitive Ionosphere and Atmosphere – Langmuir Probe
B) Radio Analysis of Moon Based Hypersensitive Ionosphere – Langmuir Probe
C) Radiation Anatomy of Moon Bound Hypersensitive Atmosphere – Langmuir Probe
D) Radio Assessment of Moon Bound Ionosphere – Langmuir Probe

Show Answer

Answer: A) Radio Anatomy of Moon Bound Hypersensitive Ionosphere and Atmosphere – Langmuir Probe


149. What is the fourth state of matter?

A) Solid
B) Liquid
C) Gas
D) Plasma

Show Answer

Answer: D) Plasma


150. When was the Asian Development Bank established?

A) 1964
B) 1966
C) 1968
D) 1970

Show Answer

Answer: B) 1966


151. Where did India’s first indigenous hydrogen fuel-cell powered passenger vessel begin operations?

A) Mumbai
B) Varanasi
C) Kolkata
D) Kochi

Show Answer

Answer: B) Varanasi


152. What type of fuel cell technology does the vessel use?

A) High Temperature PEM
B) Low Temperature Proton Exchange Membrane (LT-PEM)
C) Solid Oxide Fuel Cell
D) Alkaline Fuel Cell

Show Answer

Answer: B) Low Temperature Proton Exchange Membrane (LT-PEM)


153. What is the only by-product of PEM fuel cells?

A) Carbon dioxide
B) Nitrogen oxides
C) Water
D) Hydrogen peroxide

Show Answer

Answer: C) Water


154. Which precious metal catalyst is commonly used in PEM fuel cells?

A) Gold
B) Silver
C) Platinum
D) Palladium

Show Answer

Answer: C) Platinum


155. Which case led to the Supreme Court broadening the scope of the PoSH Act?

A) Vishakha case
B) Sohail Malik case
C) Nirbhaya case
D) Shakti Mills case

Show Answer

Answer: B) Sohail Malik case


156. When was the PoSH Act enacted?

A) 2011
B) 2012
C) 2013
D) 2014

Show Answer

Answer: C) 2013


157. The PoSH Act was enacted based on which guidelines?

A) Verma Guidelines
B) Vishakha Guidelines (1997)
C) Shah Commission Guidelines
D) Justice Leila Seth Guidelines

Show Answer

Answer: B) Vishakha Guidelines (1997)


158. What is the minimum number of employees required for an organization to have an Internal Complaints Committee (ICC)?

A) 5 or more
B) 10 or more
C) 15 or more
D) 20 or more

Show Answer

Answer: B) 10 or more


159. What is constituted where an ICC is not available?

A) Regional Committee
B) State Committee
C) Local Committee (LC)
D) National Committee

Show Answer

Answer: C) Local Committee (LC)


160. What percentage of India’s GDP does the Corporate Bond Market currently account for?

A) 10-12%
B) 15-16%
C) 20-22%
D) 25-27%

Show Answer

Answer: B) 15-16%


161. What was the size of India’s Corporate Bond Market in FY2015?

A) ₹12.5 trillion
B) ₹17.5 trillion
C) ₹22.5 trillion
D) ₹27.5 trillion

Show Answer

Answer: B) ₹17.5 trillion


162. What was the size of India’s Corporate Bond Market in FY2025?

A) ₹43.6 trillion
B) ₹48.6 trillion
C) ₹53.6 trillion
D) ₹58.6 trillion

Show Answer

Answer: C) ₹53.6 trillion


163. What is the average annual growth rate of India’s Corporate Bond Market from FY2015 to FY2025?

A) Around 8%
B) Around 10%
C) Around 12%
D) Around 14%

Show Answer

Answer: C) Around 12%


164. What percentage of GDP is South Korea’s Corporate Bond Market?

A) 69%
B) 74%
C) 79%
D) 84%

Show Answer

Answer: C) 79%


165. What percentage of global trade is now affected by standards (compared to 15% in late 1990s)?

A) Around 70%
B) Around 80%
C) Around 90%
D) Around 95%

Show Answer

Answer: C) Around 90%


166. On average, what fraction of technical committee seats do developing countries occupy in ISO?

A) Less than one-fourth
B) Less than one-third
C) Less than one-half
D) Less than two-thirds

Show Answer

Answer: B) Less than one-third


167. By what percentage did standardised childbirth safety checklists help reduce maternal mortality in Indian hospitals?

A) Nearly 37%
B) Nearly 42%
C) Nearly 47%
D) Nearly 52%

Show Answer

Answer: C) Nearly 47%


168. When was the UNESCO Convention against Discrimination in Education adopted?

A) 1958
B) 1960
C) 1962
D) 1964

Show Answer

Answer: B) 1960


169. Has India ratified the UNESCO Convention against Discrimination in Education?

A) Yes, in 1960
B) Yes, in 1975
C) No
D) Yes, in 2000

Show Answer

Answer: C) No


170. What is the minimum mass requirement (in solar masses) for a core-collapse supernova?

A) >6 times the mass of the Sun
B) >8 times the mass of the Sun
C) >10 times the mass of the Sun
D) >12 times the mass of the Sun

Show Answer

Answer: B) >8 times the mass of the Sun


171. What is formed when a massive star (approximately 10+ solar masses) undergoes core collapse?

A) White dwarf
B) Neutron star
C) Black hole
D) Red giant

Show Answer

Answer: C) Black hole


172. Which type of supernova is used as a standard candle for measuring cosmic distances?

A) Core-collapse supernova
B) Thermonuclear (Type Ia) supernova
C) Hypernova
D) Failed supernova

Show Answer

Answer: B) Thermonuclear (Type Ia) supernova


173. At which Lagrange point does the James Webb Space Telescope operate?

A) Sun-Earth L1
B) Sun-Earth L2
C) Earth-Moon L1
D) Earth-Moon L2

Show Answer

Answer: B) Sun-Earth L2


174. When was the Charaichung Royal Bird Sanctuary established?

A) 1623 AD
B) 1633 AD
C) 1643 AD
D) 1653 AD

Show Answer

Answer: B) 1633 AD


175. Who founded the Charaichung Royal Bird Sanctuary?

A) Swargadeu Rudra Singha
B) Swargadeu Pratap Singha
C) Swargadeu Gadadhar Singha
D) Swargadeu Rajeswar Singha

Show Answer

Answer: B) Swargadeu Pratap Singha


176. Where is the Charaichung Royal Bird Sanctuary located?

A) Kaziranga
B) Majuli
C) Jorhat
D) Dibrugarh

Show Answer

Answer: B) Majuli


177. What is Majuli recognized as?

A) India’s largest island
B) World’s largest river island
C) Asia’s largest wetland
D) India’s highest plateau

Show Answer

Answer: B) World’s largest river island


178. When was the UN Champions of the Earth Award instituted?

A) 2003
B) 2005
C) 2007
D) 2009

Show Answer

Answer: B) 2005


179. Which IAS officer was recently awarded the UN Champions of the Earth Award?

A) Supriya Sahu
B) Durga Shakti Nagpal
C) Smita Sabharwal
D) Tina Dabi

Show Answer

Answer: A) Supriya Sahu


180. Which organization confers the UN Champions of the Earth Award?

A) UNEP
B) UNDP
C) UNESCO
D) UNICEF

Show Answer

Answer: A) UNEP


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