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22 August 2025 – Current Affairs Quiz & MCQ (With PDF)

Find the current affairs quiz 22 August 2025 by Exam Charcha.

Staying updated with current events is crucial, and this quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the latest happenings. The 22 August 2025 current affairs quiz covers the key events, news, and developments from this day. 

Each question comes with multiple choices, and the correct answer is provided to help you learn. Whether you’re preparing for competitive exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz is a great way to assess your awareness of current affairs.

Current Affairs Quiz – 22 August 2025 (Test Now)

1. The Agni-5 missile test was conducted under the supervision of:

(a) Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
(b) Strategic Forces Command (SFC)
(c) Nuclear Command Authority (NCA)
(d) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO

Show Answer

Answer: b) Strategic Forces Command (SFC)


2. Agni-5 is powered by:

(a) Two-stage liquid-fuel propulsion system
(b) Three-stage solid-fuel propulsion system
(c) Four-stage hybrid propulsion system
(d) Single-stage solid-fuel system

Show Answer

Answer: b) Three-stage solid-fuel propulsion system


3. The successful test of Agni-5 places India among countries with MIRV-capable IRBMs alongside:

(a) United States, Russia, China
(b) United States, Russia, China, France
(c) United States, Russia, China, United Kingdom
(d) United States, Russia, China, France, United Kingdom

Show Answer

Answer: b) United States, Russia, China, France


4. According to the classification by range, Agni-5 with over 5,000 km range falls under:

(a) Medium-Range Ballistic Missile
(b) Intermediate-Range Ballistic Missile
(c) Long-Range Intercontinental Ballistic Missile
(d) Strategic Ballistic Missile

Show Answer

Answer: b) Intermediate-Range Ballistic Missile


5. The Parliamentary Standing Committee’s 370th report recommended reservation quotas in private HEIs as:

(a) 25% OBCs, 15% SCs, 7.5% STs
(b) 27% OBCs, 15% SCs, 7.5% STs
(c) 27% OBCs, 12% SCs, 8% STs
(d) 30% OBCs, 15% SCs, 7.5% STs

Show Answer

Answer: b) 27% OBCs, 15% SCs, 7.5% STs


6. What percentage of India’s colleges are private unaided according to the document?

(a) 60.3%
(b) 63.5%
(c) 65.3%
(d) 67.8%

Show Answer

Answer: c) 65.3%


7. The Supreme Court case that upheld the constitutional validity of Article 15(5) was:

(a) Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (1992)
(b) Pramati Educational and Cultural Trust v. Union of India (2014)
(c) Ashoka Kumar Thakur v. Union of India (2008)
(d) T.M.A. Pai Foundation v. State of Karnataka (2002)

Show Answer

Answer: b) Pramati Educational and Cultural Trust v. Union of India (2014)


8. Article 15(5) allows reservation in private institutions except:

(a) Professional institutions
(b) Technical institutions
(c) Minority institutions
(d) Medical institutions

Show Answer

Answer: c) Minority institutions


9. The committee recommended that costs of implementing reservation in private HEIs should be:

(a) Borne by the private institutions themselves
(b) Shared between government and institutions
(c) Borne by the State, similar to RTE Act 2009
(d) Funded through student fee structure

Show Answer

Answer: c) Borne by the State, similar to RTE Act 2009


10. BITS Pilani’s 2024-25 enrollment showed what percentage of SC students?

(a) 0.5%
(b) 0.8%
(c) 1.2%
(d) 10%

Show Answer

Answer: a) 0.5%


11. How many bills were introduced regarding removal of ministers facing criminal charges?

(a) Two bills
(b) Three bills
(c) Four bills
(d) Five bills

Show Answer

Answer: b) Three bills


12. The trigger for removal under the proposed bills is:

(a) Arrest and 15 consecutive days detention
(b) Arrest and 30 consecutive days detention
(c) Conviction in any criminal case
(d) Framing of charges in serious cases

Show Answer

Answer: b) Arrest and 30 consecutive days detention


13. The bills propose amendments to which constitutional articles?

(a) Articles 74, 163, 239
(b) Articles 75, 164, 239AA
(c) Articles 76, 165, 240
(d) Articles 77, 166, 241

Show Answer

Answer: b) Articles 75, 164, 239AA


14. If no action is taken by the 31st day of detention, what happens?

(a) Case is referred to judiciary
(b) Minister gets automatic bail
(c) Office automatically falls vacant
(d) Parliament must vote

Show Answer

Answer: c) Office automatically falls vacant


15. According to Section 8 of RPA 1951, legislators are disqualified upon conviction if sentenced to imprisonment of:

(a) 1 year or more
(b) 2 years or more
(c) 3 years or more
(d) 5 years or more

Show Answer

Answer: b) 2 years or more


16. The bilateral trade between India and EAEU reached what amount in 2024?

(a) USD 65 billion
(b) USD 67 billion
(c) USD 69 billion
(d) USD 71 billion

Show Answer

Answer: c) USD 69 billion


17. Russia currently supplies what percentage of India’s total oil imports by volume?

(a) 25-30%
(b) 30-35%
(c) 35-40%
(d) 40-45%

Show Answer

Answer: c) 35-40%


18. The EAEU was established under which treaty?

(a) Treaty on the Eurasian Economic Union (2012)
(b) Treaty on the Eurasian Economic Union (2014)
(c) Treaty on the Eurasian Economic Union (2015)
(d) Treaty on the Eurasian Economic Union (2016)

Show Answer

Answer: b) Treaty on the Eurasian Economic Union (2014)


19. Which country is NOT a member of the EAEU?

(a) Kazakhstan
(b) Kyrgyzstan
(c) Uzbekistan
(d) Armenia

Show Answer

Answer: c) Uzbekistan


20. The India-EAEU FTA is expected to particularly benefit:

(a) Large corporations
(b) Public sector enterprises
(c) Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs)
(d) Multinational companies

Show Answer

Answer: c) Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs)


21. The Online Gaming Bill 2025 was introduced with the President’s recommendation under:

(a) Article 115(1) and 115(3)
(b) Article 116(1) and 116(3)
(c) Article 117(1) and 117(3)
(d) Article 118(1) and 118(3)

Show Answer

Answer: c) Article 117(1) and 117(3)


22. Which category of online games is completely banned under the bill?

(a) e-Sports
(b) Online Social Games
(c) Online Money Games
(d) All of the above

Show Answer

Answer: c) Online Money Games


23. e-Sports outcomes are determined by:

(a) Only luck and chance
(b) Physical dexterity, skill, and mental agility
(c) Only monetary investment
(d) Random algorithms

Show Answer

Answer: b) Physical dexterity, skill, and mental agility


24. The bill establishes which new regulatory mechanism?

(a) Gaming Regulatory Commission
(b) Online Gaming Authority
(c) Digital Games Board
(d) Electronic Sports Council

Show Answer

Answer: b) Online Gaming Authority


25. The International Solar Alliance plans to establish a GCC in India envisioned as:

(a) Solar Innovation Hub
(b) Clean Energy Valley
(c) Silicon Valley for Solar
(d) Renewable Energy Center

Show Answer

Answer: c) Silicon Valley for Solar


26. Lipulekh Pass is located in which Indian state?

(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Uttarakhand
(c) Sikkim
(d) Arunachal Pradesh

Show Answer

Answer: b) Uttarakhand


27. Nepal’s constitutional amendment in 2020 claimed which areas?

(a) Limpiyadhura, Lipulekh, Kalapani
(b) Limpiyadhura, Lipulekh, Kalimpong
(c) Lipulekh, Kalapani, Nathu La
(d) Kalapani, Lipulekh, Shipki La

Show Answer

Answer: a) Limpiyadhura, Lipulekh, Kalapani


28. Article 30(1) of the Constitution grants which right to minorities?

(a) Right to conserve language and culture
(b) Right to establish and administer educational institutions
(c) Right against discrimination in admissions
(d) Right to receive government aid

Show Answer

Answer: b) Right to establish and administer educational institutions


29. The Uttarakhand Minority Education Bill, 2025 seeks to:

(a) Establish new Madrasa Boards
(b) Abolish the Madrasa Board and replace it with Minority Education Authority
(c) Merge all minority institutions
(d) Transfer Madrasas to central government

Show Answer

Answer: b) Abolish the Madrasa Board and replace it with Minority Education Authority


30. For Union Ministers, who recommends removal to the President?

((a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Home Minister

Show Answer

Answer: c) Prime Minister


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Study Current Affairs of 22 August 2025

For a detailed understanding of the key events from 22 August 2025, visit our comprehensive current affairs page. This section covers all major news and developments, providing in-depth insights that are crucial for exam preparation and staying informed.

22 August 2025 Current Affairs


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