Find the current affairs quiz 20 August 2025 by Exam Charcha.
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Current Affairs Quiz – 20 August 2025 (Test Now)
1. The primary objective of the FRBM Act, 2003 does NOT include:
a) Promoting long-term macroeconomic stability
b) Ensuring inter-generational equity by reducing deficits
c) Increasing government expenditure on welfare schemes
d) Strengthening fiscal discipline and transparency
Show Answer
Answer: c) Increasing government expenditure on welfare schemes
2. According to the CAG report, Central Government debt as a percentage of GDP:
a) Increased from 57% to 61.38% between FY 2020-21 and March 2024
b) Declined from 61.38% to 57% between FY 2020-21 and March 2024
c) Remained constant at 61.38% throughout the period
d) Fluctuated between 55% and 65% during the period
Show Answer
Answer: b) Declined from 61.38% to 57% between FY 2020-21 and March 2024
3. The improvement in public debt repayment to public debt receipts ratio from FY 2019-20 to FY 2023-24 was:
a) From 81.46% to 86.66%
b) From 86.66% to 81.46%
c) From 90% to 85%
d) From 75% to 80%
Show Answer
Answer: b) From 86.66% to 81.46%
4. Under the FRBM targets, the General Government debt (Centre + States) should be:
a) ≤ 40% of GDP by FY 2024-25
b) ≤ 50% of GDP by FY 2024-25
c) ≤ 60% of GDP by FY 2024-25
d) ≤ 70% of GDP by FY 2024-25
Show Answer
Answer: c) ≤ 60% of GDP by FY 2024-25
5. The current commitment for Fiscal Deficit (FD) target is to achieve:
a) FD below 3% of GDP by FY 2025-26
b) FD below 4.5% of GDP by FY 2025-26
c) FD below 5% of GDP by FY 2024-25
d) FD below 3.5% of GDP by FY 2026-27
Show Answer
Answer: b) FD below 4.5% of GDP by FY 2025-26
6. Government borrowing guarantees on the Consolidated Fund of India should not exceed:
a) 0.3% of GDP in any year
b) 0.5% of GDP in any year
c) 1% of GDP in any year
d) 1.5% of GDP in any year
Show Answer
Answer: b) 0.5% of GDP in any year
7. The CAG report suggests that between 2020-21 to 2023-24:
a) Debt accumulation exceeded GDP expansion
b) GDP expansion exceeded debt accumulation
c) Debt accumulation equaled GDP expansion
d) There was no correlation between debt and GDP
Show Answer
Answer: b) GDP expansion exceeded debt accumulation
8. Which organization presents the annual review report on the FRBM Act?
a) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
b) Ministry of Finance
c) Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)
d) Parliament Standing Committee
Show Answer
Answer: c) Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)
9. The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2025 builds upon which previous legislation?
a) Jan Vishwas Act, 2022
b) Jan Vishwas Act, 2023
c) Jan Vishwas Act, 2024
d) Companies Amendment Act, 2023
Show Answer
Answer: b) Jan Vishwas Act, 2023
10. How many provisions were decriminalised under the original Jan Vishwas Act, 2023?
a) 183 provisions across 42 Central Acts
b) 288 provisions across 50 Central Acts
c) 150 provisions across 35 Central Acts
d) 200 provisions across 45 Central Acts
Show Answer
Answer: a) 183 provisions across 42 Central Acts
11. The Jan Vishwas Bill, 2025 proposes decriminalisation of:
a) 183 provisions
b) 250 provisions
c) 288 provisions
d) 300 provisions
Show Answer
Answer: c) 288 provisions
12. Under the new bill, first-time contraventions for how many offences under how many Acts will attract warnings instead of fines?
a) 76 offences under 10 Acts
b) 80 offences under 12 Acts
c) 70 offences under 8 Acts
d) 85 offences under 15 Acts
Show Answer
Answer: a) 76 offences under 10 Acts
13. The automatic penalty revision mechanism in the bill provides for:
a) 5% increase every two years
b) 10% increase every three years
c) 15% increase every four years
d) 8% increase every two years
Show Answer
Answer: b) 10% increase every three years
14. Which of the following Acts is NOT mentioned for further decriminalisation in the 2025 bill?
a) Tea Act, 1953
b) Motor Vehicles Act, 1988
c) Companies Act, 2013
d) Drugs & Cosmetics Act, 1940
Show Answer
Answer: c) Companies Act, 2013
15. The principle behind Jan Vishwas legislation is:
a) Maximum Government, Minimum Governance
b) Minimum Government, Maximum Governance
c) Balanced Government, Effective Governance
d) Digital Government, Transparent Governance
Show Answer
Answer: b) Minimum Government, Maximum Governance
16. Streamlined adjudication under the bill means:
a) All cases must go through courts
b) Parliamentary committees will handle penalties
c) Designated officers can impose penalties administratively
d) State governments will handle all violations
Show Answer
Answer: c) Designated officers can impose penalties administratively
17. According to Article 324(5) of the Constitution, the CEC can be removed:
a) In the same manner as the President of India
b) In like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court
c) By a simple majority in Parliament
d) Through a referendum
Show Answer
Answer: b) In like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court
18. A motion for removal of CEC alleging misbehaviour can be introduced in:
a) Only Lok Sabha
b) Only Rajya Sabha
c) Either House of Parliament
d) Both Houses simultaneously
Show Answer
Answer: c) Either House of Parliament
19. For removal of CEC, the motion must be passed by:
a) Simple majority in both Houses
b) Two-thirds majority of total membership
c) Two-thirds majority of members present and voting in both Houses
d) Three-fourths majority in both Houses
Show Answer
Answer: c) Two-thirds majority of members present and voting in both Houses
20. After parliamentary approval for CEC removal, the final order is issued by:
a) Prime Minister of India
b) President of India
c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
d) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Show Answer
Answer: b) President of India
21. The enquiry into charges against the CEC is conducted by:
a) Supreme Court committee
b) Parliamentary committee
c) High Court judges
d) Cabinet committee
Show Answer
Answer: b) Parliamentary committee
22. The current news about CEC removal motion is being considered by:
a) Government parties
b) Opposition parties
c) Independent members
d) Regional parties
Show Answer
Answer: b) Opposition parties
23. Bond yield represents:
a) The face value of the bond
b) The return an investor earns on capital invested in a bond
c) The maturity period of the bond
d) The credit rating of the bond issuer
Show Answer
Answer: b) The return an investor earns on capital invested in a bond
24. The relationship between bond prices and yields is:
a) Directly proportional
b) Inversely proportional
c) No correlation
d) Sometimes direct, sometimes inverse
Show Answer
Answer: b) Inversely proportional
25. When market interest rates rise:
a) Existing bond prices rise and yields fall
b) Existing bond prices fall and yields rise
c) Both bond prices and yields rise
d) Both bond prices and yields fall
Show Answer
Answer: b) Existing bond prices fall and yields rise
26. Higher inflation expectations typically lead to:
a) Lower bond yields as real returns increase
b) Higher bond yields as investors demand compensation
c) No change in bond yields
d) Volatile bond yields with no clear direction
Show Answer
Answer: b) Higher bond yields as investors demand compensation
27. UNHCR was established in:
a) 1945 after World War II
b) 1950 by the UN General Assembly
c) 1951 along with the Refugee Convention
d) 1967 with the Protocol
Show Answer
Answer: b) 1950 by the UN General Assembly
28. UNHCR headquarters is located in:
a) New York, USA
b) Vienna, Austria
c) Geneva, Switzerland
d) The Hague, Netherlands
Show Answer
Answer: c) Geneva, Switzerland
29. UNHCR has been awarded the Nobel Peace Prize:
a) Technical limitations in plastic recycling
b) Fundamental disagreements on production vs waste management approaches
c) Insufficient scientific evidence about plastic pollution
d) Lack of international legal frameworks
Show Answer
Answer: c) Twice in 1954 and 1981
30. The recent suspension of repatriation process by UNHCR concerns:
a) Afghan refugees
b) Syrian refugees
c) Sri Lankan Tamil refugees
d) Myanmar refugees
Show Answer
Answer: c) Sri Lankan Tamil refugees
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20 August 2025 Current Affairs