Find the current affairs quiz 19 September 2026 by Exam Charcha.
Staying updated with current events is crucial, and this quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the latest happenings. The 19 September 2026 current affairs quiz covers the key events, news, and developments from this day.
Each question comes with multiple choices, and the correct answer is provided to help you learn. Whether you’re preparing for competitive exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz is a great way to assess your awareness of current affairs.
Current Affairs Quiz – 19 September 2026 (Test Now)
Q1. Section 299 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, criminalises acts intended to outrage religious feelings, provided that such acts involve:
(A) Mere unintentional offence to religious sentiments
(B) A deliberate and malicious intention to outrage the religious feelings of any class of citizens
(C) Any criticism of religious institutions, regardless of intent
(D) Only physical acts, excluding spoken or written words
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A deliberate and malicious intention to outrage the religious feelings of any class of citizens
Q2. Under Section 217 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, a court cannot take cognisance of an offence under BNS Section 299 without:
(A) A unanimous jury verdict
(B) Prior sanction from the Central or State Government
(C) Approval from the Supreme Court
(D) A public referendum on the matter
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Prior sanction from the Central or State Government
Q3. In Amish Devgan v. Union of India (2020), the Supreme Court addressed the problem of multiple FIRs arising from the same incident, holding that:
(A) Each FIR must be investigated separately by a different state
(B) Such FIRs should ordinarily be consolidated, with the first FIR forming the basis of a single investigation
(C) Multiple FIRs automatically invalidate the underlying complaint
(D) Only the Supreme Court can register FIRs relating to religious offence
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Such FIRs should ordinarily be consolidated, with the first FIR forming the basis of a single investigation
Q4. India rejected the newly operationalised Pakistan-China Boundary Joint Commission primarily on the ground that:
(A) It violates WTO trade norms
(B) It has no legal basis to make arrangements concerning territories India considers under illegal occupation
(C) China is not a party to the UN Charter
(D) It infringes upon SAARC’s regional mandate
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) It has no legal basis to make arrangements concerning territories India considers under illegal occupation
Q5. Under the 1963 China-Pakistan Boundary Agreement, Pakistan agreed to transfer which territory to China?
(A) Aksai Chin
(B) Shaksgam Valley (Trans-Karakoram Tract)
(C) Gilgit-Baltistan in its entirety
(D) The Siachen Glacier
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Shaksgam Valley (Trans-Karakoram Tract)
Q6. The China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC), which connects Kashgar in Xinjiang with Gwadar Port in Pakistan, is opposed by India primarily because:
(A) It threatens India’s maritime trade routes in the Indian Ocean
(B) A portion of it passes through Pakistan-occupied Kashmir, raising sovereignty concerns
(C) It competes directly with India’s Sagarmala programme
(D) It is not part of China’s Belt and Road Initiative
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A portion of it passes through Pakistan-occupied Kashmir, raising sovereignty concerns
Q7. Article 44 of the Constitution, which directs the State to endeavour to secure a Uniform Civil Code, is:
(A) A Fundamental Right enforceable in courts
(B) A Directive Principle of State Policy, non-justiciable under Article 37
(C) A Fundamental Duty under Article 51A
(D) An entry in the Union List
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A Directive Principle of State Policy, non-justiciable under Article 37
Q8. Family-law matters such as marriage, divorce and succession fall under which legislative list of the Seventh Schedule, allowing both Parliament and State Legislatures to legislate on them?
(A) Union List
(B) State List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) Residuary List
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Concurrent List
Q9. The 21st Law Commission’s 2018 consultation paper on ‘Reform of Family Law’ primarily recommended:
(A) Immediate nationwide implementation of a Uniform Civil Code
(B) Reforming discriminatory practices within personal laws, rather than treating a UCC as necessary or desirable at that stage
(C) Abolition of the Special Marriage Act, 1954
(D) Transferring family-law matters exclusively to the Union List
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Reforming discriminatory practices within personal laws, rather than treating a UCC as necessary or desirable at that stage
Q10. India’s Authorised Economic Operator (AEO) Programme, implemented by the CBIC, operates in accordance with which international framework?
(A) WTO Trade Facilitation Agreement exclusively
(B) The World Customs Organization’s SAFE Framework of Standards
(C) The Basel Convention
(D) The International Maritime Organization’s SOLAS Convention
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The World Customs Organization’s SAFE Framework of Standards
Q11. Under India’s AEO certification framework, which category represents the highest tier within the principal business certification structure?
(A) AEO-T1
(B) AEO-T2
(C) AEO-T3
(D) AEO-LO
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) AEO-T3
Q12. The AEO Programme supports India’s commitments under which provision of the WTO Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA)?
(A) Article 5.2
(B) Article 7.7
(C) Article 10.1
(D) Article 12.4
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Article 7.7
Q13. A Doppler Weather Radar (DWR) determines the speed and direction of movement of precipitation by measuring:
(A) The colour of the returned radar signal
(B) The Doppler shift — a change in frequency or phase of the returned signal compared with the transmitted signal
(C) The temperature of the atmosphere directly above the radar
(D) The humidity level at ground stations
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The Doppler shift — a change in frequency or phase of the returned signal compared with the transmitted signal
Q14. India’s 51st Doppler Weather Radar, recently inaugurated in Odisha, was commissioned under which mission of the Ministry of Earth Sciences?
(A) National Monsoon Mission
(B) Mission Mausam
(C) Climate Smart India Mission
(D) Mission LiFE
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Mission Mausam
Q15. Mission Mausam, launched in 2024, primarily aims to strengthen India’s capabilities in which of the following areas?
(A) Weather and climate observation, numerical modelling, forecasting, and early-warning systems
(B) Deep-sea mineral exploration
(C) Space-based missile defence
(D) Urban public transportation planning
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Weather and climate observation, numerical modelling, forecasting, and early-warning systems
Q16. As per the Global Gender Gap Report 2026, published by the World Economic Forum, India retained which rank among 145 economies, with a gender parity score of 64.5%?
(A) 101st
(B) 115th
(C) 131st
(D) 142nd
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 131st
Q17. Which country retained the top position in the Global Gender Gap Index 2026, being the only economy to have crossed the 90% gender-parity threshold?
(A) Finland
(B) Norway
(C) Iceland
(D) Sweden
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Iceland
Q18. Among the four subindices of the Global Gender Gap Index, India recorded its LOWEST parity score in:
(A) Educational Attainment
(B) Health and Survival
(C) Economic Participation and Opportunity
(D) Political Empowerment
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Political Empowerment
Q19. E.V. Ramasamy Periyar, whose birth anniversary is commemorated as Social Justice Day, led the Vaikom Satyagraha (1924-25), which primarily sought to:
(A) Secure voting rights for women
(B) Secure access to roads surrounding the Vaikom temple for oppressed castes
(C) Abolish the zamindari system in Travancore
(D) Promote Tamil as the sole official language of Madras Presidency
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Secure access to roads surrounding the Vaikom temple for oppressed castes
Q20. The Self-Respect Movement, launched by Periyar in 1925 after leaving the Indian National Congress, primarily promoted:
(A) Restoration of monarchical rule in South India
(B) Social equality, rationalism and a distinct Dravidian social identity, including Self-Respect Marriages
(C) Expansion of caste-based reservations exclusively in government jobs
(D) Reunification of the Madras Presidency with princely states
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Social equality, rationalism and a distinct Dravidian social identity, including Self-Respect Marriages
Q21. In 1944, Periyar reorganised the Justice Party into which organisation, which functioned primarily as a social reform body rather than an electoral party?
(A) Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK)
(B) Dravidar Kazhagam (DK)
(C) All India Anna Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (AIADMK)
(D) Tamil Nadu Congress Committee
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Dravidar Kazhagam (DK)
Q22. Hyderabad Liberation Day, notified in 2024 and observed on 17 September, commemorates which event of 1948?
(A) The signing of the Standstill Agreement
(B) The Nizam’s ceasefire announcement, marking the end of his independent rule following Operation Polo
(C) The formal creation of Andhra Pradesh
(D) The appointment of the first Rajpramukh of Hyderabad
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The Nizam’s ceasefire announcement, marking the end of his independent rule following Operation Polo
Q23. Operation Polo, India’s 1948 military action to integrate Hyderabad into the Indian Union, was officially described as:
(A) A full-scale war
(B) A Police Action
(C) A humanitarian mission
(D) A United Nations peacekeeping operation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A Police Action
Q24. Following the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, the territories of the former Hyderabad State were redistributed. Which of the following pairings is correct?
(A) Telugu-speaking region merged with Andhra State to form Andhra Pradesh
(B) Marathi-speaking regions joined Madhya Pradesh
(C) Kannada-speaking regions joined Kerala
(D) The entire state was retained as a single Union Territory
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Telugu-speaking region merged with Andhra State to form Andhra Pradesh
Q25. DRDO’s indigenously developed Gallium Nitride (GaN)-on-Silicon Carbide MMICs and HEMTs are primarily intended for use in next-generation radars and electronic warfare systems operating up to which frequency band?
(A) L-band
(B) S-band
(C) X-band
(D) Ku-band
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) X-band
Q26. Active Electronically Scanned Array (AESA) radars, which can integrate GaN-based MMICs, differ from conventional radar systems in that they:
(A) Rely on a single mechanically rotating antenna dish
(B) Steer the radar beam electronically rather than by physically rotating the antenna
(C) Cannot track more than one target at a time
(D) Operate exclusively using visible light rather than radio waves
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Steer the radar beam electronically rather than by physically rotating the antenna
Q27. Compared with conventional silicon, Gallium Nitride (GaN) semiconductor technology offers which of the following advantages?
(A) Lower breakdown voltage and poorer high-frequency performance
(B) Higher energy efficiency, higher breakdown voltage and better high-frequency performance
(C) Significantly lower thermal tolerance
(D) Suitability only for low-power civilian electronics
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Higher energy efficiency, higher breakdown voltage and better high-frequency performance
Q28. As per the Drugs Rules, 1945, medicines that generally cannot be sold without a prescription issued by a Registered Medical Practitioner fall under:
(A) Schedule G
(B) Schedule H
(C) Schedule M
(D) Schedule Y
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Schedule H
Q29. The proposed amendments to the Drugs Rules, 1945, strengthening oversight of Schedule H, H1 and X drugs, are primarily aimed at:
(A) Reducing the retail price of essential medicines
(B) Curbing unauthorised sale of prescription medicines and reducing their misuse, including concerns relating to antimicrobial resistance
(C) Promoting the export of Indian generic drugs
(D) Eliminating the need for pharmacist licensing
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Curbing unauthorised sale of prescription medicines and reducing their misuse, including concerns relating to antimicrobial resistance
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19 September 2026 Current Affairs