Find the current affairs quiz 17 September 2026 by Exam Charcha.
Staying updated with current events is crucial, and this quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the latest happenings. The 17 September 2026 current affairs quiz covers the key events, news, and developments from this day.
Each question comes with multiple choices, and the correct answer is provided to help you learn. Whether you’re preparing for competitive exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz is a great way to assess your awareness of current affairs.
Current Affairs Quiz – 17 September 2026 (Test Now)
Q1. The 1951 Convention Relating to the Status of Refugees, which recently marked its 75th anniversary, designates which organisation as its guardian?
(A) International Organization for Migration (IOM)
(B) United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR)
(C) United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC)
(D) International Committee of the Red Cross (ICRC)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR)
Q2. The principle of ‘non-refoulement’, a core principle of the 1951 Refugee Convention, holds that:
(A) A refugee must be granted citizenship within five years of arrival
(B) A refugee should not be returned to a country where they face serious threats to their life or freedom
(C) Refugees have an unrestricted right to choose their country of asylum
(D) States must provide refugees with the right to vote in national elections
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A refugee should not be returned to a country where they face serious threats to their life or freedom
Q3. The 1967 Protocol to the Refugee Convention primarily served to:
(A) Restrict the Convention’s application only to European refugees
(B) Remove the Convention’s original geographical and temporal restrictions, extending its applicability beyond the post-WWII European context
(C) Abolish the principle of non-refoulement
(D) Transfer guardianship of the Convention from UNHCR to the UN Secretary-General
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Remove the Convention’s original geographical and temporal restrictions, extending its applicability beyond the post-WWII European context
Q4. With reference to India’s position on international refugee instruments, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) India is a party to both the 1951 Convention and the 1967 Protocol
(B) India is a party to the 1967 Protocol but not the original 1951 Convention
(C) India is not a party to either the 1951 Convention or its 1967 Protocol
(D) India ratified the 1951 Convention with reservations
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) India is not a party to either the 1951 Convention or its 1967 Protocol
Q5. The Merchant Discount Rate (MDR), a fee associated with digital payment transactions, is best described as:
(A) A government-levied tax on digital transactions
(B) A fee paid by merchants for payment-processing services, generally calculated as a percentage of the transaction value
(C) A fee charged exclusively to consumers for using digital wallets
(D) An interest rate charged on delayed merchant settlements
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A fee paid by merchants for payment-processing services, generally calculated as a percentage of the transaction value
Q6. The Zero-MDR policy for specified UPI and RuPay transactions was introduced through which legislative provision?
(A) Section 269SU of the Income-tax Act, 1961, alone
(B) Section 10A of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, inserted by the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2019
(C) Section 45ZA of the RBI Act, 1934
(D) Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Section 10A of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, inserted by the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2019
Q7. Under the Revised UPI MDR Framework announced in 2026, which of the following categories remains MDR-free irrespective of the transaction value?
(A) Person-to-Person (P2P) transfers
(B) Person-to-Merchant (P2M) payments above ₹2,000
(C) Capital-market payments above ₹1 lakh
(D) All merchant payments through third-party apps
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Person-to-Person (P2P) transfers
Q8. Under the 2026 UPI MDR framework, Person-to-Merchant (P2M) transactions exceeding ₹2,000 attract a standard MDR of:
(A) 0.1%
(B) 0.4%
(C) 1%
(D) 2%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 0.4%
Q9. With reference to the distinction between MDR and interchange fee, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Interchange fee is charged directly to the merchant, while MDR is paid between banks
(B) MDR is paid by merchants for payment processing, while interchange fee is paid by the acquiring bank to the issuing bank and is not charged directly to the merchant
(C) Both terms refer to the same fee structure
(D) Interchange fee applies only to UPI, while MDR applies only to credit cards
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) MDR is paid by merchants for payment processing, while interchange fee is paid by the acquiring bank to the issuing bank and is not charged directly to the merchant
Q10. Under Section 128 of the Indian Contract Act, referenced in the context of personal guarantors under the IBC, the liability of a guarantor is generally:
(A) Limited to 50% of the principal debtor’s liability
(B) Co-extensive with that of the principal debtor, unless the contract provides otherwise
(C) Extinguished automatically once the principal debtor’s resolution plan is approved
(D) Applicable only after a five-year waiting period
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Co-extensive with that of the principal debtor, unless the contract provides otherwise
Q11. In Lalit Kumar Jain v. Union of India (2021), the Supreme Court held that:
(A) Approval of a corporate debtor’s resolution plan automatically discharges the personal guarantor from liability
(B) Approval of a corporate debtor’s resolution plan does NOT automatically discharge the personal guarantor from liability
(C) Personal guarantors cannot be proceeded against under the IBC at all
(D) Only the NCLAT, not the NCLT, can adjudicate personal guarantor insolvency
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Approval of a corporate debtor’s resolution plan does NOT automatically discharge the personal guarantor from liability
Q12. Which authority adjudicates insolvency and bankruptcy proceedings involving personal guarantors of corporate debtors under the IBC?
(A) National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT)
(B) National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)
(C) Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT)
(D) Supreme Court of India directly
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)
Q13. Among the challenges identified in the resolution of personal guarantor insolvency, which of the following relates to potential conflicts of interest in creditor decision-making?
(A) Lack of digital infrastructure at the NCLT
(B) Creditors connected to the guarantor, but falling outside the narrow statutory definition of ‘associate’ under Section 79(2), participating in voting
(C) Excessive judicial delay in appointing resolution professionals
(D) Absence of any statutory timeline for resolution
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Creditors connected to the guarantor, but falling outside the narrow statutory definition of ‘associate’ under Section 79(2), participating in voting
Q14. Among the amendments proposed by the IBBI for personal guarantor insolvency resolution, which of the following is included?
(A) Complete removal of creditor voting on repayment plans
(B) Mandatory asset valuation by a registered valuer, covering both fair value and realisable value, before creditors vote
(C) Automatic conversion of all personal guarantor cases into corporate insolvency proceedings
(D) Abolition of the resolution professional’s role in the process
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Mandatory asset valuation by a registered valuer, covering both fair value and realisable value, before creditors vote
Q15. The Indian Cybercrime Coordination Centre (I4C), with which Meta has agreed to directly report child-safety matters, functions under which ministry and is headquartered where?
(A) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology; Bengaluru
(B) Ministry of Home Affairs; New Delhi
(C) Ministry of Women and Child Development; Mumbai
(D) Ministry of Law and Justice; Hyderabad
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Ministry of Home Affairs; New Delhi
Q16. Which of the following is a key objective of the Indian Cybercrime Coordination Centre (I4C)?
(A) Regulating cryptocurrency exchanges
(B) Functioning as an early-warning mechanism and facilitator for cybercrime complaint reporting
(C) Issuing digital signature certificates
(D) Administering the Income Tax e-filing portal
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Functioning as an early-warning mechanism and facilitator for cybercrime complaint reporting
Q17. The national cybercrime reporting mechanism coordinated by I4C particularly aims to strengthen protection for which vulnerable groups?
(A) Senior citizens and pensioners exclusively
(B) Women and children
(C) Foreign nationals residing in India
(D) Government employees only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Women and children
Q18. India recently entered the Guinness World Records for building the world’s longest road using processed steel-slag aggregates. This 1.85-km road is located in:
(A) Bhilai, Chhattisgarh
(B) Raigarh, Chhattisgarh
(C) Rourkela, Odisha
(D) Jamshedpur, Jharkhand
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Raigarh, Chhattisgarh
Q19. With reference to the benefits of using processed steel slag in road construction, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) It has increased road construction costs by nearly 40%
(B) It has reduced road construction costs by nearly 40% and lowered pavement thickness by around 35%
(C) It has no measurable impact on construction cost or durability
(D) It requires significantly more natural stone aggregate than conventional roads
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) It has reduced road construction costs by nearly 40% and lowered pavement thickness by around 35%
Q20. Steel slag, the primary material used in the Raigarh road project, is best described as:
(A) A rare earth mineral extracted from mining
(B) A solid industrial by-product generated during the steel-making process, containing complex silicates and oxides
(C) A synthetic polymer used in plastic recycling
(D) A naturally occurring volcanic rock
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A solid industrial by-product generated during the steel-making process, containing complex silicates and oxides
Q21. World Ozone Day 2026, observed on 16 September, commemorated the Montreal Protocol and marked 10 years since the adoption of which amendment?
(A) Doha Amendment
(B) Kigali Amendment
(C) Beijing Amendment
(D) Kampala Amendment
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Kigali Amendment
Q22. The Kigali Amendment (2016) to the Montreal Protocol primarily mandates the phase-down of which class of chemicals?
(A) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
(B) Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs)
(C) Sulphur hexafluoride (SF₆)
(D) Nitrous oxide (Nâ‚‚O)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs)
Q23. Full implementation of the Kigali Amendment is projected to prevent global warming of approximately how much by 2100?
(A) 0.1°C
(B) 0.5°C
(C) 1.5°C
(D) 2°C
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 0.5°C
Q24. As per the 2022 UNEP-WMO assessment on ozone layer recovery, the ozone layer over Antarctica is expected to return to 1980 levels by approximately:
(A) 2040
(B) 2045
(C) 2066
(D) 2100
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2066
Q25. Samvatsari, regarded as the holiest day in the Jain calendar, falls on the final day of which festival and is also known as ‘Kshama Yachna Divas’?
(A) Mahavir Jayanti
(B) Paryushana Parva
(C) Diwali (Jain)
(D) Akshaya Tritiya
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Paryushana Parva
Q26. Paryushana Parva, the most sacred annual festival in Jainism, is primarily dedicated to:
(A) Agricultural harvest celebrations
(B) Spiritual introspection, purification and the practice of universal forgiveness
(C) Commemoration of royal victories
(D) Seasonal changes in the lunar calendar
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Spiritual introspection, purification and the practice of universal forgiveness
Q27. Nuakhai, primarily celebrated in Western Odisha, southern Chhattisgarh and adjoining Jharkhand, is traditionally associated with which practice?
(A) Worship of the new harvest, linked to the Vedic Pralambana Yajna
(B) Commemoration of a naval victory
(C) The founding of a Buddhist monastery
(D) The coronation of a Mughal emperor
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Worship of the new harvest, linked to the Vedic Pralambana Yajna
Q28. Nuakhai is traditionally credited with being institutionalised in the 14th century by which ruler?
(A) Raja Ramai Deo of Patnagarh
(B) Raja Man Singh of Amber
(C) Rana Kumbha of Mewar
(D) Raja Ganga of Odisha
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Raja Ramai Deo of Patnagarh
Q29. The S-71K Kovyor, recently unveiled by Russia, is best described as:
(A) A submarine-launched ballistic missile
(B) A turbojet-powered, air-launched stealth cruise missile intended for the Su-57E fighter aircraft
(C) An unmanned reconnaissance drone
(D) A hypersonic glide vehicle for intercontinental use
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A turbojet-powered, air-launched stealth cruise missile intended for the Su-57E fighter aircraft
Q30. Matryoshka dolls, associated with Russian culture and referenced at the 18th BRICS Summit, are traditionally:
(A) Ceramic figurines representing Russian folk heroes
(B) Wooden nesting dolls consisting of progressively smaller hollow figures placed inside one another
(C) Painted metal ornaments used during Orthodox Christmas
(D) Woven textile dolls used in traditional Russian weddings
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Wooden nesting dolls consisting of progressively smaller hollow figures placed inside one another
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