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9 September 2026 – Current Affairs Quiz & MCQ (With PDF)

Find the current affairs quiz 9 September 2026 by Exam Charcha.

Staying updated with current events is crucial, and this quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the latest happenings. The 9 September 2026 current affairs quiz covers the key events, news, and developments from this day.

Each question comes with multiple choices, and the correct answer is provided to help you learn. Whether you’re preparing for competitive exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz is a great way to assess your awareness of current affairs.

Current Affairs Quiz – 9 September 2026 (Test Now)

Q1. A ‘rhumb line’, a concept closely associated with the Mercator projection, refers to a path on the Earth’s surface that:

(A) Follows the shortest possible distance between two points
(B) Intersects successive meridians at a constant angle
(C) Always runs parallel to the Equator
(D) Represents the boundary of a country’s territorial waters

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Intersects successive meridians at a constant angle


Q2. With reference to the Equal Earth projection, which of the following statements is correct?

(A) It was introduced in 2018 and, compared with the Gall-Peters projection, seeks to reduce severe distortions in continental shapes
(B) It perfectly preserves area, shape, distance and direction simultaneously
(C) It was designed primarily for maritime navigation, like the Mercator projection
(D) It eliminates all polar distortion entirely

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (A) It was introduced in 2018 and, compared with the Gall-Peters projection, seeks to reduce severe distortions in continental shapes


Q3. Under Section 6 of the Forest Rights Act, 2006, which body initiates the process for determining the nature and extent of individual and community forest rights?

(A) District Collector
(B) State Forest Department
(C) Gram Sabha
(D) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) Gram Sabha


Q4. In Orissa Mining Corporation v. Ministry of Environment & Forests (2013) — the Niyamgiri case — the Supreme Court significantly strengthened the role of:

(A) State Pollution Control Boards in granting environmental clearances
(B) Gram Sabhas in determining claims relating to the religious and cultural rights of tribal communities
(C) The National Green Tribunal in mining-related disputes
(D) District Magistrates in land-acquisition proceedings

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Gram Sabhas in determining claims relating to the religious and cultural rights of tribal communities


Q5. The Supreme Court’s judgment in Samatha v. State of Andhra Pradesh (1997) primarily placed restrictions on:

(A) The transfer of land in Scheduled Areas to non-tribal interests
(B) The retirement age of High Court judges
(C) The use of the Mercator projection in school textbooks
(D) The appointment process for members of the National Biodiversity Authority

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (A) The transfer of land in Scheduled Areas to non-tribal interests


Q6. Under Article 124(4) of the Constitution, a Supreme Court judge can be removed only on the ground of:

(A) Adverse performance appraisal by the Chief Justice of India
(B) Proved misbehaviour or incapacity, through a parliamentary process followed by a presidential order
(C) A simple majority resolution in the Rajya Sabha alone
(D) An executive order of the Union Cabinet

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Proved misbehaviour or incapacity, through a parliamentary process followed by a presidential order


Q7. The ‘Uncle Judge’ phenomenon, examined in the Law Commission of India’s 230th Report, refers to concerns regarding:

(A) Judges being appointed at a very young age
(B) Situations where judges have close relatives practising as lawyers in the same court
(C) Excessive workload among senior judges
(D) The mandatory retirement age of judicial officers

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Situations where judges have close relatives practising as lawyers in the same court


Q8. The Judicial Standards and Accountability Bill, which sought to create a comprehensive statutory framework for judicial accountability, was passed by the Lok Sabha in 2012 but:

(A) Was subsequently enacted into law in 2015
(B) Was struck down by the Supreme Court as unconstitutional
(C) Lapsed in 2014 without becoming law
(D) Was withdrawn immediately after passage

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) Lapsed in 2014 without becoming law


Q9. As per India’s Flexible Inflation Targeting framework, if inflation remains outside the prescribed tolerance band for three consecutive quarters, the RBI is statutorily required (under Section 45ZN) to report to the Central Government on all of the following EXCEPT:

(A) Reasons for the inflation breach
(B) Corrective measures being undertaken
(C) The estimated period required to bring inflation back within target
(D) A recommendation for the dissolution of the Monetary Policy Committee

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (D) A recommendation for the dissolution of the Monetary Policy Committee


Q10. Under India’s inflation-targeting framework, the CPI-Combined inflation target and its tolerance band are set at:

(A) 3% with a band of ±1 percentage point
(B) 4% with a band of ±2 percentage points
(C) 5% with a band of ±3 percentage points
(D) 6% with a band of ±1 percentage point

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) 4% with a band of ±2 percentage points


Q11. With reference to the New Keynesian Phillips Curve (NKPC), current inflation is understood to be influenced by:

(A) Only the current unemployment rate
(B) Expected future inflation, economic slack, and marginal costs
(C) Exclusively the exchange rate of the domestic currency
(D) Only the fiscal deficit of the government

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Expected future inflation, economic slack, and marginal costs


Q12. The Green Climate Fund (GCF), the largest dedicated multilateral climate fund, was established in 2010 as an operating entity of the financial mechanism of which international framework?

(A) Montreal Protocol
(B) UNFCCC
(C) Convention on Biological Diversity
(D) Basel Convention

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) UNFCCC


Q13. The Green Climate Fund’s headquarters is located in:

(A) Geneva, Switzerland
(B) Bonn, Germany
(C) Songdo, Incheon, Republic of Korea
(D) Nairobi, Kenya

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) Songdo, Incheon, Republic of Korea


Q14. A Glacial Lake Outburst Flood (GLOF), a risk highlighted in the context of the GCF’s delayed clearance of Nepal’s climate-resilience proposal, refers to:

(A) A gradual and predictable seasonal rise in glacier-fed river levels
(B) A sudden and potentially destructive release of water from a glacial lake
(C) A permanent reduction in glacial lake volume due to evaporation
(D) A man-made flood caused by dam mismanagement only

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) A sudden and potentially destructive release of water from a glacial lake


Q15. The Variable Rate Reverse Repo (VRRR), recently used by the RBI to absorb surplus banking-system liquidity, is best described as:

(A) A facility through which the RBI injects liquidity into the banking system during a shortage
(B) An auction-based instrument under the Liquidity Adjustment Facility through which the RBI absorbs surplus liquidity at a market-determined rate
(C) A fixed-rate standing facility accessible only to NBFCs
(D) A long-term bond issued by the Government of India

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) An auction-based instrument under the Liquidity Adjustment Facility through which the RBI absorbs surplus liquidity at a market-determined rate


Q16. The Weighted Average Call Rate (WACR), which serves as the RBI’s operating target for monetary policy, refers to the average rate at which:

(A) The RBI lends to the Government of India
(B) Banks lend to and borrow from one another in the overnight call-money market
(C) Retail customers borrow personal loans from banks
(D) The RBI purchases foreign currency in the spot market

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Banks lend to and borrow from one another in the overnight call-money market


Q17. Under ECLGS 5.0, what is the extent of government guarantee coverage provided for eligible MSME borrowers?

(A) 50% of eligible default
(B) 75% of eligible default
(C) 90% of eligible default
(D) 100% of eligible default

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (D) 100% of eligible default


Q18. Which institution is responsible for implementing the Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS), functioning under the Department of Financial Services?

(A) Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)
(B) National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Limited (NCGTC)
(C) Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE)
(D) Export Credit Guarantee Corporation (ECGC)

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Limited (NCGTC)


Q19. Under ECLGS 5.0, the maximum repayment tenure and moratorium period prescribed for the airline sector are respectively:

(A) 5 years tenure, 1 year moratorium
(B) 7 years tenure, 2 years moratorium
(C) 3 years tenure, 6 months moratorium
(D) 10 years tenure, 3 years moratorium

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) 7 years tenure, 2 years moratorium


Q20. The Gollala Gudi Temple, recently recognised by the ASI as a Monument of National Importance, is situated near which UNESCO World Heritage Site in Telangana?

(A) Charminar
(B) Golconda Fort
(C) Ramappa Temple
(D) Qutb Shahi Tombs

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) Ramappa Temple


Q21. The Gollala Gudi Temple’s ‘Trikutalaya’ plan and its distinctive foundation technique are associated with which medieval dynasty?

(A) Chalukya dynasty
(B) Kakatiya dynasty
(C) Rashtrakuta dynasty
(D) Vijayanagara dynasty

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Kakatiya dynasty


Q22. As per the Geothermal Atlas of India (2022) prepared by the Geological Survey of India, which of the following statements is correct?

(A) India’s total geothermal potential is estimated at around 100 GW
(B) The GSI mapped 381 hot springs across 10 geothermal provinces, with an estimated potential of around 10.6 GW
(C) India has no viable geothermal provinces suitable for power generation
(D) Puga in Ladakh is the only geothermal province identified in India

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) The GSI mapped 381 hot springs across 10 geothermal provinces, with an estimated potential of around 10.6 GW


Q23. Which type of geothermal power plant is most suitable for relatively lower-temperature geothermal resources, using a secondary working fluid with a lower boiling point to drive the turbine?

(A) Dry steam plant
(B) Flash steam plant
(C) Binary cycle plant
(D) Combined-cycle plant

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) Binary cycle plant


Q24. The ONGC Energy Centre’s ‘Wells to Watts’ initiative, involving conversion of an abandoned oil/gas well into a geothermal-energy asset, is located at which field?

(A) Puga field, Ladakh
(B) Gandhar field, Ankleshwar, Gujarat
(C) Bakreshwar field, West Bengal
(D) Manikaran field, Himachal Pradesh

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Gandhar field, Ankleshwar, Gujarat


Q25. China’s proposed mega hydropower project on the Yarlung Zangbo river, located near Medog County, is planned to have an approximate installed capacity of:

(A) 10 GW
(B) 25 GW
(C) 60 GW
(D) 120 GW

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (C) 60 GW


Q26. The Yarlung Zangbo river is known by which name after it enters Arunachal Pradesh, before eventually being called the Brahmaputra in Assam?

(A) Teesta
(B) Siang/Dihang
(C) Subansiri
(D) Lohit

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Siang/Dihang


Q27. A major concern for India regarding China’s proposed Brahmaputra mega dam is that:

(A) India and China have a comprehensive, legally binding water-sharing treaty that fully addresses the issue
(B) India and China do not have a comprehensive, legally binding water-sharing treaty covering the Brahmaputra
(C) The Brahmaputra does not flow through any Indian state
(D) The project poses no seismic risk since Medog lies outside any active seismic zone

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) India and China do not have a comprehensive, legally binding water-sharing treaty covering the Brahmaputra


Q28. As per the Supreme Court’s 2026 direction in the All India Judges Association proceedings, the retirement age of district judicial officers in seven consenting States is being raised from:

(A) 58 to 60 years
(B) 60 to 62 years
(C) 62 to 65 years
(D) 60 to 65 years

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) 60 to 62 years


Q29. Under Article 233 of the Constitution, District Judges are appointed by the Governor of the State:

(A) Without any consultation requirement
(B) In consultation with the High Court
(C) On the sole recommendation of the Chief Justice of India
(D) Through a direct examination conducted by the Union Public Service Commission alone

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) In consultation with the High Court


Q30. The Port of Antwerp-Bruges, highlighted as a potential gateway for Indian goods entering European markets, is Europe’s second-largest seaport after which port?

(A) Port of Hamburg
(B) Port of Rotterdam
(C) Port of Marseille
(D) Port of Piraeus

Show Answer

Correct Answer: (B) Port of Rotterdam


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9 September 2026 Current Affairs


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