Find the current affairs quiz 8 September 2026 by Exam Charcha.
Staying updated with current events is crucial, and this quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the latest happenings. The 8 September 2026 current affairs quiz covers the key events, news, and developments from this day.
Each question comes with multiple choices, and the correct answer is provided to help you learn. Whether you’re preparing for competitive exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz is a great way to assess your awareness of current affairs.
Current Affairs Quiz – 8 September 2026 (Test Now)
Q1. As per the recent clarification by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA), which of the following statements regarding the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006 is correct?
(A) The FRA explicitly mandates 100% Gram Sabha consent for Stage-II forest clearance
(B) The FRA does not expressly prescribe obtaining Gram Sabha consent for Stage-II forest clearance for diversion of forest land
(C) The FRA abolishes the role of Gram Sabhas in forest-rights matters altogether
(D) The FRA applies only to forests located within Fifth Schedule Areas
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The FRA does not expressly prescribe obtaining Gram Sabha consent for Stage-II forest clearance for diversion of forest land
Q2. Which of the following is NOT among the key objectives of the Forest Rights Act, 2006?
(A) Recognition of Community Forest Resource (CFR) rights
(B) Habitat rights for Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)
(C) Transfer of ownership of all forest land to State Forest Departments
(D) Protection against arbitrary eviction of forest-dwelling communities
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Transfer of ownership of all forest land to State Forest Departments
Q3. The Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA) extends the Panchayati Raj framework under Part IX of the Constitution to:
(A) All rural areas of India uniformly
(B) Fifth Schedule Scheduled Areas
(C) Sixth Schedule Areas only
(D) Union Territories only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Fifth Schedule Scheduled Areas
Q4. Consider the following statements comparing FRA, 2006 and PESA, 1996:
1.FRA primarily focuses on recognition of forest rights, while PESA focuses on tribal self-governance.
2.Both Acts assign an important institutional role to the Gram Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Q5. India’s Flexible Inflation Targeting (FIT) framework, introduced in 2016, derives its statutory basis from which provision of the RBI Act, 1934?
(A) Section 21
(B) Section 45ZA
(C) Section 17
(D) Section 58
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Section 45ZA
Q6. The Expert Committee whose recommendations led to India’s adoption of Flexible Inflation Targeting was chaired by:
(A) Raghuram Rajan
(B) Urjit Patel
(C) Y.V. Reddy
(D) Bimal Jalan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Urjit Patel
Q7. With reference to India’s inflation-targeting framework, which index is used as the principal measure for assessing price stability?
(A) Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
(B) Consumer Price Index (CPI)
(C) GDP Deflator
(D) Producer Price Index (PPI)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Consumer Price Index (CPI)
Q8. Recent assessments of India’s inflation-targeting framework note that the Phillips Curve has remained relatively flat, implying that:
(A) Changes in output or employment produce a strong and immediate change in inflation
(B) Changes in output or employment produce only a limited corresponding change in inflation
(C) Inflation is entirely unrelated to monetary policy
(D) The RBI has no role in influencing aggregate demand
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Changes in output or employment produce only a limited corresponding change in inflation
Q9. A key concern regarding inflation targeting in India is that inflation is frequently driven by which of the following factors, limiting the effectiveness of interest-rate-based tools?
(A) Excessive aggregate demand alone
(B) Supply-side disturbances such as food-price volatility and weather-related disruptions
(C) Excessive household savings
(D) Overvaluation of the rupee
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Supply-side disturbances such as food-price volatility and weather-related disruptions
Q10. The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) recently crossed which cumulative disbursement milestone under India’s Access and Benefit-Sharing (ABS) framework?
(A) ₹50 crore
(B) ₹100 crore
(C) ₹200 crore
(D) ₹500 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) ₹200 crore
Q11. The Biological Diversity Act, 2002 was enacted primarily to implement India’s obligations under which international agreement?
(A) Ramsar Convention
(B) Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), 1992
(C) Kyoto Protocol
(D) Basel Convention
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), 1992
Q12. Under the three-tier biodiversity governance structure in India, which institution functions at the grassroots level and is associated with People’s Biodiversity Registers (PBRs)?
(A) National Biodiversity Authority (NBA)
(B) State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs)
(C) Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs)
(D) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs)
Q13. The Nagoya Protocol, which supplements the Convention on Biological Diversity by providing an international framework for Access and Benefit-Sharing, was adopted in which year and entered into force in which year respectively?
(A) Adopted 2002, entered into force 2010
(B) Adopted 2010, entered into force 2014
(C) Adopted 1992, entered into force 2000
(D) Adopted 2014, entered into force 2018
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Adopted 2010, entered into force 2014
Q14. With reference to the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (KMGBF), adopted at CBD COP15, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) It provides 23 global targets for 2030 and four long-term goals for 2050
(B) It replaces the Convention on Biological Diversity entirely
(C) It was adopted in Nagoya, Japan
(D) It contains no provisions relating to Access and Benefit-Sharing
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) It provides 23 global targets for 2030 and four long-term goals for 2050
Q15. The systematic archaeological excavation at Rajghat, Varanasi, which helped establish the antiquity and cultural sequence of the settlement, was first conducted in 1940 by:
(A) Mortimer Wheeler
(B) Krishna Deva
(C) B.B. Lal
(D) Alexander Cunningham
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Krishna Deva
Q16. Based on the archaeological sequence at Rajghat, particularly the pre-Northern Black Polished Ware (pre-NBPW) layer, the beginnings of the settlement have been placed around:
(A) 3000 BCE
(B) 1500 BCE
(C) 800 BCE
(D) 300 BCE
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 800 BCE
Q17. Northern Black Polished Ware (NBPW), found at sites like Rajghat, is generally regarded as an important archaeological marker associated with:
(A) The Harappan urban phase
(B) The period of second urbanisation in the Gangetic plains
(C) The Mesolithic period
(D) The early colonial period
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The period of second urbanisation in the Gangetic plains
Q18. By around the 6th century BCE, Kashi was recognised as one of the sixteen territorial political units mentioned in early Buddhist and Jain traditions, known as:
(A) Janapadas
(B) Mahajanapadas
(C) Sabhas
(D) Samitis
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Mahajanapadas
Q19. The Mercator projection, developed in 1569, was primarily designed to preserve which property, making it useful for maritime navigation?
(A) Relative area of landmasses
(B) Direction and angles
(C) Distance between all points
(D) Population distribution
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Direction and angles
Q20. The major limitation of the Mercator projection, frequently illustrated by the comparison of Greenland and Africa, is:
(A) It distorts direction but preserves area accurately
(B) It exaggerates the apparent size of regions near the poles while understating equatorial regions
(C) It cannot be used for any navigational purposes
(D) It represents the Earth as a perfect sphere without distortion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) It exaggerates the apparent size of regions near the poles while understating equatorial regions
Q21. The Equal Earth projection, introduced in 2018 as an alternative to the Mercator projection, is best described as:
(A) A projection that preserves angles and directions perfectly
(B) An equal-area projection that more accurately represents relative continental sizes
(C) A projection used exclusively for maritime navigation
(D) A three-dimensional globe representation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) An equal-area projection that more accurately represents relative continental sizes
Q22. With reference to the recent UN General Assembly debate on promoting the Equal Earth projection, which country introduced the proposal, and what was India’s voting position?
(A) Nigeria introduced it; India abstained
(B) Togo introduced it; India voted in favour
(C) South Africa introduced it; India voted against
(D) Kenya introduced it; India abstained
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Togo introduced it; India voted in favour
Q23. The Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP), launched in 2023, primarily aims to promote comprehensive socio-economic development of villages located:
(A) In coastal metropolitan regions
(B) Along India’s international land borders
(C) In central Indian tribal belts only
(D) In state capital regions
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Along India’s international land borders
Q24. Under the Vibrant Villages Programme, development activities at the local level are implemented through:
(A) District Master Plans
(B) Village Action Plans (VAPs)
(C) State Infrastructure Blueprints
(D) Panchayat Development Charters
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Village Action Plans (VAPs)
Q25. With reference to the two phases of the Vibrant Villages Programme, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) VVP-I focuses on northern border villages and is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, while VVP-II is a fully Centre-funded Central Sector Scheme covering other land borders
(B) VVP-I and VVP-II are identical in funding pattern and geographic focus
(C) VVP-I is fully funded by States, while VVP-II is funded by the Centre
(D) VVP-II precedes VVP-I in implementation and covers only northern borders
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) VVP-I focuses on northern border villages and is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, while VVP-II is a fully Centre-funded Central Sector Scheme covering other land borders
Q26. Which ministry serves as the nodal ministry for coordinating implementation of the Vibrant Villages Programme with State Governments and border guarding forces?
(A) Ministry of Rural Development
(B) Ministry of Home Affairs
(C) Ministry of External Affairs
(D) Ministry of Defence
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Ministry of Home Affairs
Q27. The National Commission for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK) was established under an Act enacted in which year, and currently functions as what type of body?
(A) 1993 Act; currently a statutory body
(B) 1993 Act; currently a non-statutory body under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
(C) 2013 Act; currently a constitutional body
(D) 1994 Act; currently an autonomous financial institution
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 1993 Act; currently a non-statutory body under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
Q28. Which of the following is NOT a function of the National Commission for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK)?
(A) Monitoring implementation of welfare and rehabilitation measures for Safai Karamcharis
(B) Taking suo motu cognisance of non-implementation of welfare policies
(C) Setting monetary policy targets for the Reserve Bank of India
(D) Investigating grievances relating to working conditions and safety of Safai Karamcharis
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Setting monetary policy targets for the Reserve Bank of India
Q29. The Union Home Minister’s roadmap for a drug-free India envisages achieving this goal by which year, as a medium-term milestone within the broader objective of a Drug-Free India by 2047?
(A) 2027
(B) 2029
(C) 2035
(D) 2040
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 2029
Q30. The National Coordination Committee for Countering Drug Trafficking (NCORD), established in 2019, primarily functions as:
(A) A judicial body for adjudicating narcotics-related cases
(B) A multi-level coordination mechanism among agencies at the national, state and district levels
(C) An international treaty body under the United Nations
(D) A financial regulator overseeing drug-related asset seizures
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A multi-level coordination mechanism among agencies at the national, state and district levels
Download PDF of 8 September Current Affairs Quiz
Download the 8 September 2026 Current Affairs Quiz PDF for easy access to all questions and answers. This handy resource is perfect for offline practice or revision, helping you stay updated with the latest current affairs at your convenience.
Study Current Affairs of 8 September 2026
For a detailed understanding of the key events from 8 September 2026, visit our comprehensive current affairs page. This section covers all major news and developments, providing in-depth insights that are crucial for exam preparation and staying informed.
8 September 2026 Current Affairs